Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Diagnostic Parasitology > (F) Advances of DX Parasitology: (lecture-based) > Flashcards

(F) Advances of DX Parasitology: (lecture-based) Flashcards

Rupert-based

1
Q
  • Gold standard
  • Allows detection of parasites
  • Morphologically distinct parasites are differentiated
  • Requires high parasite density to achieve a good level of sensitivity
A

MICROSCOPY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Enumerate the Basic Microscopic Techniques (5)

A
  • DFS
  • Kato Katz
  • Formol-Ether-Sedimentation Technique
  • Harada-Mori
  • Mcmaster technique
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

TOF. For a good level of sensitivity, there should be a low parasite densitive.

A

F (high parasite density)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

2 Reagents used for DFS

A

Lugol’s iodine and NSS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

DFS

TOF. The lugol’s iodine is ONLY used to improve the nuclear detail and visualize the morphology of egg and ova.

A

F (not only, it is also used for larvae or other diagnostic feature/stage depending on the parasite accd. to ser)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Kato Katz Technique, except:

A. Determine the intensity of infection
B. Quantitative method
C. 6.5mm template hole size
D. Green cellophane tape is used
E. Read under the microscope using OIO

A

E (10x and 40x obj. lang)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Arrange in Order

Kato Katz Technique

A. Place cellophane tape
B. Sieve the stool in a mesh screen
C. Place the stool in a template
D. Wait for 10-30 minutes
E. Read under 10x and 40x objective

A

CBADE

Here’s the complete:

  1. Stool sample, then place the stool in a template ○ Template contains a hole where the stool sample is placed ○ 6.5 mm (diameter of hole)
  2. Spatula is needed
  3. A sieve/screen is used where the stool is sieved in a mesh screen
  4. Cellophane tape is placed
  5. Wait 10-30 minutes.
  6. Read under the microscope using 10x and 40x power objective
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

This technique is used to homogenize the stool sample and form 4 layers after centrifugation.

A

Formol Ether Sedimentation

  1. Homogenize the stool sample and take a quantity of 1g
  2. Use 10 ml of 10% formol water solution to emulsify the stool and filter the mixture with a sieve and gauze to remove large particles
  3. Transfer 7 ml of the filtered solution into 15 mL centrifuge tube and add 3 ml of ether or ethyl acetate
  4. Centrifuge the mix at 1600 rpm at 10℃ for 5 minutes
  5. After centrifugation, there should be 4 layers
  6. Discard the supernatant and add 1 ml of sediment onto a glass slide, and read it under the microscope with 10x and 40x objectives
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

FEST

  1. Emulsify the stool
  2. Remove large particles
  3. Promote separation fo the sediment from the supernatant

A. NSS
B. 10% formol water
C. Sieve
D. Centrifugation

A

BCD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

FEST

Enumerate the 4 layers in order

upper to last layer

A

Ether, Fecal debri, Formol Water, Sediment (containing the parasites)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

FEST

Arrange in Order

A. Centrifuge the mix at 1600 rpm at 10℃ for 5 minutes
B. Formation of 4 layers
C. Discard the supernatant and add 1 ml of sediment onto a glass slide
D. Take 1g of homogonize stool sample
E. Use 10 ml of 10% formol water solution to emulsify the stool and filter the mixture with a sieve and gauze to remove large particles
F. Transfer 7 ml of the filtered solution into 15 mL centrifuge tube and add 3 ml of ether or ethyl acetate

A

DEFABC

  1. Filter paper strip with stool sample
  2. Remove the strip and close the tube
  3. Centrifuge the sample at 1500 rpm for 2 minutes
  4. Discard the supernatant
  5. Using a pipette, remove the sediment, place it on a slide and re-cover it with a cover glass
  6. Read the slide with the 10x power objective of the microscope
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Harada Mori
A. Allows visualization of hookworm
B. Allows visualization of Strongyloides stercoralis filariform larvae
C. Allows visualization of Angiostrongylus stercoralis
D. AB
E. BC

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

harada mori

identify
* Incubation days
* Centrifuge (RPM for how many minutes)

A
  • 3-7; pero p’wede rin 10 days
  • 1500rpm for 2 minutes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Harada Mori

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  • For examining animal parasites
  • Uses ZnSO4 solution but also uses Sucrose solution in some
  • Read with 10x microscope objective
  • Mimics hemocytometer
  • Checks for the presence of eggs
A

MCMASTER TECHNIQUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

McMaster Technique

A. Add 60 ml of ZnSO4 solution in a beaker and homogenize
B. Filter the mixture into another beaker
C. Transfer filtrate into a clean 15 ml tube and place a cover glass on the top of tube for 15 min
D. Fill both McMaster chambers, mount the chambers on a microscope and examine with the 10x microscope objective
E. Carefully transfer the cover glass onto a glass slide and read with 10x microscope objective

A

ABCED

  1. Weigh 2g of stool
  2. Add 60 ml of ZnSO4 solution in a beaker and homogenize (vigorously by vortexing)
  3. Filter the mixture into another beaker
  4. Transfer filtrate into a clean 15 ml tube and place a cover glass on the top of tube for 15 min
  5. Carefully transfer the cover glass onto a glass slide and read with 10x microscope objective
  6. Fill both McMaster chambers, mount the chambers on a microscope and examine with the 10x microscope objective
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Power Objective

  1. Kato Katz
  2. FEST
  3. Harada-mori
  4. Mcmaster technique

A. 10x
B. 40x
C. both
D. neither

may repeating answers

A

CCAA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

INTESTINAL NEMATODE INFECTIONS

Microscopic techniques used for diagnosis

A
  • DFS and kato-katz
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

INTESTINAL NEMATODE INFECTIONS

  1. Used to increase diagnostic sensitivity of microscopy; labor-intensive have poor
    reproducibility owing to operator error, and usually require centrifugation steps
  2. Enables assessing the prevalence and intensity of infection in nematode control programmes

identify techniques

A
  1. Floatation and conc techniques
  2. Kato katz
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

INTESTINAL NEMATODE INFECTIONS

TOF. Larvae of Ascaris lumbricoides may be observed in the sputum suring pulmonary migration.

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

INTESTINAL NEMATODE INFECTIONS

Advantage

A. Sensitive
B. ID of nematode eggs
C. ID of larvae and adult forms of nematodes
D. AB
E. BC

A

C (the others are the disadvantage; make it opposite)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

INTESTINAL NEMATODE INFECTIONS

TOF. Microscopic analysis of multiple samples with multiple slides per sample over several days is required for sensitive detection and quantification of nematode infections.

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

INTESTINAL NEMATODE INFECTIONS

Familiariza yourself with the advantages and disadvantages

A

OK

pati na rin intestinal tapeworm infections + liver lung and blood flukes infection advantages and disad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

INTESTINAL NEMATODE INFECTIONS

TOF. The DFS as the most commonly used microscopic technique, enables assessing the prevalence and intensity of
infection in nematode control programmes

A

F (kato katz)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

INTESTINAL NEMATODE INFECTIONS

TOF. In the Kato-Katz method, nematode eggs are observed at specific intervals (“clearing times”) after slide preparation, affecting the test’s sensitivity and specificity for hookworm detection. Hookworm eggs, with their thin shells, may disintegrate over time and are reported as helminth eggs.

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

INTESTINAL TAPEWORM INFECTIONS

TOF. Conventional coproscopic examination has HIGH sensitivity due to variable egg excretion in stool and the small sample volume analyzed.

A

F [low sensitivity; (60-70% of cases missed)]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

LIVER, LUNG AND BLOOD FLUKES INFECTION

TOF. Microscopy cannot diagnose early-stage (prepatent) infections since it relies on detecting parasite eggs, which, in schistosomiasis, appear at least two months after the last freshwater contact.

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Microscopic techniques used for diagnosis

  1. Kato-Katz Method
  2. Wet mount preparation of fresh or concentrated stool

A. INTESTINAL NEMATODE INFECTIONS
B. INTESTINAL TAPEWORM INFECTIONS
C. LIVER,LUNG AND BLOOD FLUKES INFECTION

Just choose one infection

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Microscopic techniques used for diagnosis

  1. Wet mount preparations of fresh or concentrated stool
  2. Preianal scraping (Graham’s test)
  3. Haematoxylin and eosin staining of gravid proglottids obtained from stool samples

A. INTESTINAL NEMATODE INFECTIONS
B. INTESTINAL TAPEWORM INFECTIONS
C. LIVER,LUNG AND BLOOD FLUKES INFECTION

1 answer

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Microscopic techniques used for diagnosis

  1. Wet mount preparation of stool/ bile/ sputum/ urine after the concentration by sedimentation or flotation techniques
  2. Membrane filtration technique using nucleopore filters for schistosomal infections
  3. Kato-Katz method ○ Sedimentation or flotation techniques

A. INTESTINAL NEMATODE INFECTIONS
B. INTESTINAL TAPEWORM INFECTIONS
C. LIVER,LUNG AND BLOOD FLUKES INFECTION

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
  • Detect either antigen or antibodies in clinical specimens
  • Useful in monitoring response to chemotherapy
  • Alternative test; support test that we can employ to fully diagnose true positive patients with parasitive infection.
A

Immunodiagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Familiarize ka nalang beh mga naka-include sa immunodiagnosis

15 items lang ‘to lahat sa exam

A

o Immunofluorescent assay (IFA)
o Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
o Hemagglutination test (HA)
o Immunoblotting (dot blot)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

TOF. Microscopic techniques can be unnecessary for patients hence we have immunodiagnosis for non-invasive procedures and accurate/rapid results.

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The detection of (Antibody/Antigen)

  • This test is used against the parasite in question are used when biologic specimens do not permit microscopic diagnosis during chronic or asymptomatic infections
  • Indicates recent or past infections
  • Are useful when significant levels of athis are produced with parasitic infections
A

Antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

TOF. In antibody detection assay, use WHOLE parasites from animal models or in vitro cultures soluble crude extracts as antigens

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Pls study the ANTIBODY DETECTION TEST OFFERED AT CDC

A

okay thx

familiar urself lang raw

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The detection of (Antigen/Antibody)

  • Detection of specific parasite ________ is more sensitive and specific immunodiagnostic test to determine the disease status of patients
  • Cross reactivity
  • Feces, urine, duodenal fluid or biopsy specimens for the small intestine or urine (for intestinal parasites)
  • Serum or whole blood (for blood parasites)
  • To determine the immune status of the patient
A

DETECTION OF ANTIGEN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Detection of Antigen

Arrange in order

A. Capture antibody binds to antigen with high specificity
B. Wells are pre-coated with capture antibody and sample is added
C. Enzyme labeled antibody binds to Fc region of detection antibody
D. Primary antibody binds the immobilized antigen
E. Substrate is catalyzed by the enzyme and gives color

A

BADCE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Detection of Antigen

Shape of the antibody

A

Y

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Components of Detection of Antigen

What is done for the first antibody?

either monoclonal or polyclonal

A

immobilized in a solid phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Components of Detection of Antigen

What is used when it comes to this solid state

A

Microtiter plate and nitrocellulose membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Components of Detection of Antigen

The parasite antigen is detected by the second antibody, which is usually (monoclonal/polyclonal) antibody labeled with an enzyme

A

Mono

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Components of Detection of Antigen

TOF. Always perform a positive or negative cut upp control

A

T

44
Q

Components of Detection of Antigen

Sensitivities and specificities of commercially available kits
range from?

A

93 to 100%

45
Q

Parasites that utilizes antigen detection assay

A. Cryptosporidium
B. Giardia
C. E. histolytica
D. A & B
E. A, B, C

A

E

46
Q
  • Provide quickest turnaround time and the least requirement for an experienced laboratory personnel
  • offer the convenience of multiple results in one reaction device without the need for special equipment
  • Both EIA and rapid test kits show good correlation with DFA
A

Rapid immunochromatographic assays

47
Q
  • most sensitive and specific test in the diagnosis of cryptosporidiosis and G. duodenalis
A

DFA

48
Q

DFA uses a ________ which detects antigens on the surface of Cryptosporidium oocysts

A

fluorescein isothiocyanate (FITC)-labeled monoclonal antibody

49
Q
  • detecting the presence of an antigen
  • detecting the presence of antibodies
    A. DFA
    B. IFA

identify each

A

AB

50
Q
  • The primary principle of this technique is when the antigen is present in a biological sample such as stool and the monoclonal antibody present in the reagent that contains your FITC it will bind to the antigen on the surface of the egg/ova of the parasite to form an antigen-antibody reaction
A

IMMUNOFLOURESCENCE ASSAY

51
Q
  • enzyme used to differentiate E. histo from E. dispar since they can’t be differentiated under a microscope
A

GALACTOSE ADHESIN

52
Q
  • Enzyme detected in E . histolytica using monoclonal antibodies in commercially available diagnostic test kits
  • Very specific for E . histolytica was found to be highly sensitive and specific by several studies
  • Amebic liver abscess (ALA) can be diagnosed by SEROLOGY using this enzyme

A. Techlab E . histolytica II
B. Galactose adhesin
C. Gal/GalNac Lectin

answer each bullet and onward cards

A

BA

53
Q

COMMERCIALLY AVAILABLE PARASITE ANTIGEN DETECTION TEST

A

pa-study thank u po

54
Q
  • Detect the presence of the parasite up to the molecular level; Genetic contents for identification of specific
    organisms.
  • This offer greater sensitivity and specificity than the previous mentioned tests compared with serological and microscopy
  • Allow for direct detection of parasites in samples including those with very low parasite load from asymptomatic patients
  • Uses two oligonucleotide primers which flank the parasite target sequence and Taq polymerase
A

MOLECULAR DIAGNOSIS

55
Q

Steps in PCR

  1. separate double stranded DNA at high temp 94-95°C
  2. 50-60°C ,facilitates binding of primer to its complementary sequence
  3. 72-74°C DNA synthesis process

identify each step

kaya mo na yan

A

Denaturation, Annealing, Extension

56
Q

Steps in PCR

The amplified target is then analyzed by?

A

gel electrophoresis
or alternatively, by ELISA methods

57
Q

PCR Variants

  1. requires two amplification steps. 1st 15-30 cycle and 2nd round amplification, use a second set of primer to bind the internal template to first amplification to improve sensitivity and specificity.
  2. detect multiple species of parasite in a single sample in a single tube
  3. Quantify original template concentration

A. Real-time PCR
B. Nested PCR
C. Multiplex PCR

A

BCA

58
Q

Real-time PCR

Various fluorescence, except:
A. TaqMan probes
B. SYBR Pink
C. ALL
D. NOTA

A

B (SYBR green)

59
Q
  • a DNA binding dye that fluoresces strongly when bound to double stranded DNA
  • a DNA binding dye and it intercalates with the DNA that cause fluorescence strongly with bound to double stranded DNA
A

SYBR GRE EN DETECTION IN REAL -TIME PCR

60
Q

SYBR GRE EN DETECTION IN REAL -TIME PCR

TOF. Low amplification = High fluoresce

A

F (low fluoresce)

61
Q

Components of a SYBR green
A. dNTPs
B. Forward and reverse primer
C. SYBR green dye
D. All

A

D

62
Q
  • is designed to be complementary to a specific sequence spanned by the PCR primers
  • has a reporter dye at its 5’ end and a quencher dye at its 3’ end.
  • Same composition of master mix, templates, double stranded DNA, DNTPs, forward and reverse primer and probe that contains report and quencher dye and light source of instrument and resulting fluorescence that normally emitted by reporter dye
A

TaqMan RT-PCR

63
Q

TaqMan RT-PCR

TOF. As long as the reporter and quencher dye is intact, there will be a fluorescence.

A

F (as long as there’s a close proximity with the probe and quencher dye, fluorescence will not happen due to the quenching effect)

64
Q

TaqMan RT-PCR

This effect is the process that normally decreases the intensity of fluorescence.

A

Quencher dye

65
Q

OTHER NEW MOLECULAR AP PROACHE S IN THE DIAGNOSIS OF PARA SITIC DIEASE

  • Current trend
  • Dectect multiple organism
  • Achieve result in a matter of 30 mins to an hour as compare to conventional wait to several hours before process complete.
  • Provide increase release of result
A

Loop-mediated isothermal amplification (LAMP)

+ luminex-based technologies

66
Q

LOOP-MEDIATED ISOTHERMAL AMPLIFICATION (LAMP)

TOF. Do not require extraction of parasite DNA (as compare to conventional PCR).

A

T

67
Q

LOOP-MEDIATED ISOTHERMAL AMPLIFICATION (LAMP)

TOF. Specimens of interest is mixed with diagnostic primers, substrates, and DNA polymerase capable of strand displacement in a microcentrifuge tube in MULTIPLE TUBES.

A

F (single tube)

68
Q

LOOP-MEDIATED ISOTHERMAL AMPLIFICATION (LAMP)

TOF. The resulting turbidity is proportional to the amount of DNA synthesized.

A

T

69
Q

LOOP-MEDIATED ISOTHERMAL AMPLIFICATION (LAMP)

Measurement
A. Naked eye
B. Real-time
C. Both
D. NOTA

A

C

70
Q

LOOP-MEDIATED ISOTHERMAL AMPLIFICATION (LAMP)

Temperature

A

60-65C constant

do not need an isothermal

71
Q
  • Allows for high throughput diagnosis of parasitic diseases in large scale studies
  • Bead-based flow cytometry assay that allows for simultaneous detection of different targets (parasite species or genotypes) in the same reaction using very low volumes
  • Very useful in parasite genetic diversity and drug resistant allele studies of your parasites.
  • DNA is isolated and undergo amplification particularly specific gene fragment afterwards and subject in luminex system with the use of color beads
  • This multiplex assay will be used of these beads in a single well and with the use of biotinylated primer can capture it in a fragment then add streptavidin or streptavidin pico urethane to detect the presence of the organism.
  • ANalysis is normally done using this laser excitation green and red for luminex xmap technology.
A

LUMINEX XMAP TECHNOLOGY

72
Q

Conventional and Real-time PCR or Conventional PCR

o Cryptosporidium spp.
o Cylospora cayetanensis
o Entamoeba histolytica
o Entamoeba dispar

A

Conventional and Real-time PCR

73
Q

Conventional and Real-time PCR or Conventional PCR

o Giardia duodenalis
o Microsporidia

A

Conventional PCR

74
Q

where amplification products of conventional PCR is loaded

Anong gel

A

Agarose gel

75
Q
  • measures the fluorescence signal in the reaction tube per cycle and is proportional to the amount of accumulated amplified product (check for the standard curve and fluorescence signal in the reaction per cycle depending on the cycle made ( take note that is it proportional to the accumulated amplified product)
  • Increase of no. amplified product there increases intensity fluorescence signal.

anong PCR

A

real time PCR

76
Q

Differentiates Cryptosporidium hominis from Cryptosporidium parvum.

anong PCR

A

TaqMan-based real-time PCR

77
Q

What does the Generic TaqMan assay targets to detect Cryptosporidium species?

A

18S rRNA

78
Q

to identify C. hominis and C. parvum or differentiate them through this assay

anong type na taq man assay

A

Two species-specific TaqMan assays

79
Q
  1. Detect the pathogenic E. histolytica and non-pathogenic E. dispar.
  2. simultaneously detect E. histolytica, Giardia intestinalis and Cryptosporidium spp. in one tube using parasite-specific probes
  3. Uses two species-specific probes encompassing new SSU RNA regions of the ribosomal DNA-containing episome

A. Single-tube multiprobe real-time PCR assay
B. Multiplex real-time PCR

A

ABA

80
Q

primers and TaqMan probes were designed on a small subunit ribosomal RNA gene to detect what two organisms?

A

E. histolytica and Giardia duodenalis

81
Q

To detect Cryptosporidium spp., it is directed to?

A

Cryptosporidium oocyst wall protein
(COWP)

82
Q

To detect Schistosoma spp., it is directly against what gene?

A

cytochrome C oxidase gene

83
Q

To differentiate Taenia spp OVA

familiarize urself

A
  • PCR restriction fragment length polymorphism (PCR-RFLP)
  • Multiplex PCR targeting mitochondrial DNA
  • Nested PCR targeting – Tso31 gene encoding the
  • T. solium oncosphere specific protein
  • LAMP technology - targets COX 1 and cathepsin L-like cysteine peptidase (clp) genes
84
Q

Pls study the PCR-RESTRICTION FRAGMENT LENGTH POLYMORPHISM PROTOCOL FOR ASCARIS SPP

A

Thank u

Play 1:16:20 to be guided, sandali lang siya

wag tamarin https://youtu.be/ewqWab23M08?si=29iyJOMTIldvsxtx

85
Q
  • Use antibodies (monoclonal or polyclonal) to detect parasite antigens in blood, stool, urine or other body fluids
  • Great potential in improving diagnostic accuracy of parasitic infections in field settings that still rely on the microscope
  • Without the need for :
    o Electricity
    o Sophisticated equipment
    o Extensive training of laboratory personnel
  • Employ immunochromatographic methods
  • Results are available within 15 MINUTES (Advantage) within 20mins release the result if positive.
A

RAPID DIAGNOSTIC TEST

86
Q

RDT

Principle, except:
A. Lysing agent labeled Ab
B. Nitrocellulose strip
C. Bound Ab/Ag
D. Free labeled Ab
E. Cellulose

A

E

87
Q

RDT

Interpret Results

    • control, + test band
    • control, + test band
    • control, - test band
    • control, - test band
A
  1. Positive
  2. Invalid
  3. Negative
  4. Invalid
88
Q

RAPID DIAGNOSTIC TEST

TOF. As the level of the parasite increase the intensity of the band being form in the control will be decrease.

A

T

89
Q
  • Is a lateral flow immunochromatographic device that detects protein [antigen (Ag)] derived from the blood stage of malaria parasites.
  • Volume : 5 to 20 μL
  • Lysed to release the Ag from within red blood cells and parasites from within these cells (a variable amount of Ag is also present in the serum)
  • Test produces a series of visible lines to signal the presence or absence of Ag in the blood sample
A

RDTS FOR MALARIA

90
Q

Pls study the diagram for the RDTs for Malaria

A

thx

91
Q

RDTs for Malaria

The end product after the action of the labeled antibody and bound antibody

color

A

Red

92
Q

RDTs for malaria detect either?

A

P. falciparum histidine rich protein 2 (PfHRP-2) or parasite lactate dehydrogenase (pLDH)

93
Q

RDTS FOR MALARIA

Good levels of sensitivity have been achieved with what levels of parasitemia?

interpret

A

> 100 parasites/µL blood

94
Q

error

A

skip

95
Q

RDTS FOR MALARIA

sensivity drops in the presence of parisatemia

anong level

A

<100 parasites/uL

96
Q
  • HRP - 2 /pLDH (Pf/Pan) Combo Test
  • Has different kit for detection (pero isa lang nadedetect na specific organism)
    ▪ Falciparum
    ▪ Vivax
    ▪ Ovale
    ▪ Malariae
A

The Care StartTM Malaria

97
Q
  • a three-band RDT that can detect both PfHRP - 2 (P. falciparum histidine rich protein-2) and pan-pLDH from infected blood
A

(Pf/Pan) Combo Test

98
Q

(Pf/Pan) Combo Test

  • The presence of an HRP - 2 line indicates infection with?
  • P . falciparum , and the presence of a pan-pLDH line indicates infection with?
A

*P . falciparum
* one or more of the non - P . falciparum species

99
Q
A
100
Q
  • Detect taeniasis caused by the adult worm of the cestode Taenia solium
  • It is a POCT test a control line and test line where you put your sample
  • Gold colloid particles
A

MAGNETIC IMMUNOCHROMATOGRAPHIC TEST (MICT)

101
Q

MAGNETIC IMMUNOCHROMATOGRAPHIC TEST (MICT)

  • neurocysticercosis caused by the larval forms has been developed based on two specific T. solium excretory - secretory proteins
  • These two ES protein detects antibodies against taenia solium and use as point of care case or confirmation the immunochromatographic test.
A
  • ES33 - Excretory Secretory Protein 33
  • ES38 - Excretory Secretory Protein 38
102
Q
  • Use to detect schistosoma spp
  • Eliminates the need for a fecal sample which is more difficult to collect from patients.
  • A useful supplement to Kato-Katz examination for the rapid detection of intestinal schistosomiasis
A

CIRCULATING CATHODIC ANTIGEN (CCA)

103
Q

CIRCULATING CATHODIC ANTIGEN (CCA)

TOF. A negative association between increasing intensity of CCA urine-dipstick test band and fecal egg count was observed.

A

F (posi)

104
Q
  • To detect Leishmania antibodies revolutionized the diagnosis of visceral leishmaniasis.
A

RK39 ANTIGEN AND RK38 POLYPROTEIN-BASED

105
Q
  • ONLY detect Leishmania spp in INDIAN continent but in the part of african subcontinent hindi kaya idetect mababa yung specificity rate.
  • can detect AFRICAN continent belongs doon were yung Leishmania prevalent

identify each antigen

A
  • RrK39 antigen
  • rK38

Diagnostic Parasitology (37 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions