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UH 72 > EXAM (VFR NAV) > Flashcards

EXAM (VFR NAV) Flashcards

1
Q

Class B airspace

Airspace altitude ?

A

Surface to max 10.000’
(airport dependent)

MSL

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2
Q

What kind of airports are in class B ?

A

The busiest (IFR and passengers)

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3
Q

Class B airspace

How does the airspace apear on maps ?

A

As a blue solidt line

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4
Q

Class B airspace

What’s the weather minima for this airspace ?

A

3 sm visability

Clear of clouds

3 sm ≈ 5 km

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5
Q

What’s the TAC ?

A

Terminal Area Chart
a 1:250.000 scale chart of the area excist for more detailed information on the specific area

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6
Q

What’s the mode C veil ?
(Radius, altitude, at which airports)

A

Magenta line
A circular box with a 30 NM radius from primary airport in the airspace - extending from surface to 10.000’ MSL - around most class B airports

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7
Q

Class B airspace

What do you need to enter this airspace ?

A

ATC clearance
Two-way radio communication
Transponder mode c or s+ADS-B

Mode C = Altitude + FL automatically transponded

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8
Q

Class A airspace

Airspace altitude ?

A

18.000’ - FL600

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9
Q

Which type of airports are in class C airspace ?

A

Congestion = high amount of aircrafts
Airports where ATC provides radar vectoring and dequencing for all VFR and IFT a/c

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10
Q

Class C airspace

Airspace altitude

A

Surface to 4.000’

MSL

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11
Q

Class B airspace

Which services does an airport in this airspace provide ?

A

Radar
Intrument approaches
Weather
Control TWR

High density = The airport has an hourly limit for IFR T/O and landings. Generally no unplanned flights allowed to land and T/O.

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12
Q

Class C airspace

Which services does an airport in this airspace provide ?

A

Radar
Intrument approaches
Weather
Control TWR

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13
Q

Class C airspace

How does the airspace apear on maps ?

A

As a magenta solidt line

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14
Q

Class C airspace

What’s the weather minima for this airspace ?

A

3 sm visability

Cloud distance:
500’ Below
1000’ Above
2000’ Horizontal

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15
Q

Class C airspace

What do you need to enter this airspace ?

A

Two-way radio communication must be established before entering airspace

Transponder mode c

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16
Q

How is the class C airspace structured ?

A

Generally:
A core ring (Core surface area) with a 5 NM radius from airspace primary airport extending from surface to 4000’ AGL
A second ring (Shelf area) with a 10 NM radius from primary airport extending from 1200’-4000’ AGL

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17
Q

Class C

At what distance from the service area should you call ATC

A

20 NM

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18
Q

Class C airspace

Can you enter the airspace on a

  1. “Aircraft callsign Standby” respond from ATC ?
  2. ‘Just a respond without callsign’ from ATC

Specify reason for answer

A
  1. Yes, *because when callsing has been used, two way radio communication is established
    (Update!! Not sure - get answer)
  2. No, because when no callsign is used, two way radio communication is not established
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19
Q

Class D airspace

Airspace altitude ?

A

Surface to 2.500’

MSL

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20
Q

Class D airspace

How does the airspace apear on maps ?

A

Blue dash line

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21
Q

Class D airspace

What does the number and the minus in the box indicate ?

A

The airport altitude from the surface x 100

The minus indicate “From surface to but not including” the altitude

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22
Q

Class D airspace

What’s the weather minima for this airspace ?

A

3 sm visability

Cloud distance:
500’ Below
1000’ Above
2000’ Horizontal

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23
Q

Class D airspace

What do you need to enter this airspace?

A

Two way radio communication must be established prior to entering the airspace

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24
Q

Class D airspace

Which services does an airport in this airspace provide ?

A

Intrument approaches
Weather
Control TWR

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25
Q

Class E airspace

How does the airspace apear on maps ?

And which airspace ALT limits relate to the respective depictions?

A

Magenta dash line = From surface to 700’ AGL
Magenta vingette = +700’ AGL (transition area)

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26
Q

Class E airspace / Below 10.000’ MSL

What’s the weather minima for this airspace ?

A

3 sm visability

Cloud distance:
500’ Below
1000’ Above
2000’ Horizontal

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27
Q

Class E airspace / Above 10.000’ MSL

What’s the weather minima for this airspace ?

A

5 sm visability
Cloud distance:
1000’ Below
1000’ Above
1 sm Horizontal

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28
Q

Class E airspace

What do you need to enter this airspace ?

A

No specific requirements

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29
Q

Class E airspace

Which services does an airport in this airspace provide ?

A

Instrument approaches
Weather

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30
Q

Class G airspace < 1200’ AGL

What’s the weather minima for this airspace ?

Day/night

ROTARY

A

DAY ½ sm visability
Clear of clouds

NIGHT 1 sm visability
Clear of clouds

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31
Q

10.000’ > Class G airspace > 1200’ AGL

What’s the weather minima for this airspace ?

Day/night

ROTARY

A

DAY 1 sm visability

NIGHT 3 sm visability

Cloud distance (DAY/NIGHT)
500’ Below
1000’ Above
2000’ Horizontal

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32
Q

Class G airspace > 10.000’

What’s the weather minima for this airspace ?

ROTARY

A

5 sm Visability

Clouds distance:
1000’ Below
1000’ Above
1 sm Horizontal

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33
Q

What a TFR ?

A

Temporary Flight Restriction

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34
Q

Civilian airport trafic pattern height and standard ?

A

1000’ AGL - left Hand patterns

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35
Q

Army airport trafic pattern height ?

A

700’ AGL

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36
Q

Army special VFR minima ?

A

½ sm visability
Clear of clouds

Unless otherwose is specified by specific airport

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37
Q

What’s highlighted in yellow ?

A

The airfield name + four letter identifier
Cairns AFF + KOZR

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38
Q

What does the highlighted part mean ?

A

CT: The airfield had a control TWR
135.2: The control TWR frequency
★: The control TWR is part time
ⓒ: Common traffic advisory frequency = air-air communication on the frequency when TWR is closed

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39
Q

Which meridians is longitude/latitude ?

A
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40
Q
A

Other than hard surface runways

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41
Q
A

Seaplane base

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42
Q
A

Hard surface runways 1500’ - 8069’

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43
Q
A

Hard surface runways greater than 8069’

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44
Q

(white dot)

A

white dot = approximate VOR, VOR-DME, VORTAC location

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45
Q
A

Private (having emergency/landmark value)

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46
Q
A

Military other than hard surface

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47
Q
A

Heliport

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48
Q
A

Unverified

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49
Q

Name and Distance

A

Abandoned (landmark value) 3000’ or greater

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50
Q
A

Ultralight flight park

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51
Q
A

Services - fuel available and field tended during normal workoung hours

normal hours 11 am - 4 pm

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52
Q
A

Rotating airport beacon operating sunset to sunrise

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53
Q
A

Airport may adversely affect airspace use

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54
Q
A

1000’+ AGL

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55
Q
A

Above 200’ below 1000’. AGL

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56
Q
A

Obstructions with high intensity lights

may operate part time

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57
Q
A

Group obstructions

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58
Q
A

Wind turbine

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59
Q
A

Wind turbine farm

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60
Q
A

Height MSL
Height AGL
Under contruction

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61
Q
A

Aeronautical advisory station

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62
Q

Airport info

A

L = Lighting in operation sunset to sunrise

L* = Lighting limitations excist (pilot controlled)

72 = Length of longest runway 7200’

63
Q

What does the blue feathers mean ?

A

Prohibited, restricted, danger area, alert area

(This one is an alert area)

64
Q

What does this mean ?

A

Military operations area

65
Q

What does TRSA stand for ?

A

Terminal radar service area

66
Q

What does these represent ?

A

TRSA
(dimensions depicted)

67
Q

Are you required to use TRSA?

A

No

68
Q

What does this mean ?

A

Prohibited, restricted and warning areas

69
Q

What does this mean ?

A

Prohibited, restricted and warning areas

70
Q

In conjunction with the blue feathers, what does:
P
R
W
A

A

Prohibited
Restricted
(Need permission)
Warning
Alert

71
Q

What is a TFR

A

Temporary flight restriction

72
Q

Where can you find TFRs when flight planning

A

NOTAMs

73
Q

Equation for calculating headings with variation and drift correction

A

TC ± DC = TH ± V = MH

True course / line over the ground
Drift correction angle / amount of º the nose is changed due to wind
True heading / the direction the nose is pointing to maintain correct groundtrack (True north, geographic north pole)
Magnetic heading / direction relative to the magnetic north

74
Q

At which airports are you required to obtain an PPR piror to arrival

A

All military airports

75
Q

When is a weather briefing void ?

A

after 1.5 hour

76
Q

What is AWOS an abbrieviation for ?

A

Automatic weather observation service

77
Q

When must you establish 2-way-rdo communication when entering:
Class D airspace

A

10 NM prior

78
Q

What does an Alert & warning area mean for you as a pilot ?

A

Alert: Warns pilots of high volume traning area or unusual activities
Warning: Warns nonparticipating pilots of the potential danger from the activity conducted in the area

79
Q

When must you establish 2-way-rdo communication when entering:
Class C airspace

A

20 NM prior

80
Q

When must you establish 2-way-rdo communication when entering:
Class B airspace

A

You have to get a clearence to enter (distance not specified)

81
Q

What’s SVFR for army helicopters

A

1/2 SM visability
Clear of clouds

(Airports may have different rules that apply)

82
Q

What should you be aware of in regards to SVFR in airspace E (sfc) and G

A

E (sfc) : You may need to obtain SVFR clearance from closest TWR

G : SVFR is not used in this airspace

83
Q

What’s SVFR for Cairns AAF ?

A

DAY 1/2 SM visability - 300’ ceiling
NIGHT 1 SM visability - 500’ ceiling

84
Q

Are you required to fly above MEF ?

A

No

(it’s merely altitudes above which you are clear by a safe margin of all obstacles in a 30 min grid square)

85
Q

Above which altitude do you need oxygen ?

A

14.000’ PA

86
Q

Between which two altitudes can you stay 30 min without oxygen ?

A

12.000-14.000’ PA

87
Q

Between which two altitudes can you stay 1 hour without oxygen ?

A

10.000-12.000’ PA

88
Q

What’s the fuel reserve for a VFR day flight (rotary wing)

A

20 min at cruise

89
Q

What’s the minimum weather that must be reported to operate VFR flight inside any core surface area of controlled airspace

(This is the weather needed to obtain VFR minimums)

A

3 SM visibility - 1000’ ceiling

90
Q

Above what altitude does the cruising altitude rule begin ?

(MSL or AGL ?)

A

above 3000’ AGL

91
Q

When approaching a non TWRed airport - how far out should you begin to monitor CTAF ?

A

10 NM

92
Q

What’s RTIS ?
(Radar traffic information service)

A

A radar service provided by ATC to alert pilots of other trafic in their area

93
Q

As an army aviator - should we use the RTIS ?

A

Yes but it’s not mandated by regulation

94
Q

Vertical dimensions of class C airspace
Core + shelf

A

Core: SFC to 4000’ AGL
Shelf: no lower than 1200’-4000’ AGL

95
Q

Vertical dimensions of class D airspace
Generally + chart

A

SFC-2500’ AGL (charted MSL)

96
Q

What is TRSA and how do you perticipate ?

A

Pilot can receive additional radar service
Contact radar approach and avail yourself to TRSA

97
Q

What should be done prior to entering a MOA ?

A

Pilot should contact any FSS within 100 mi of the area to obtain current real time information - prior to entering contact controlling agency for traffic advisories

98
Q

What’s the difference between TC and TH ?

A

Both measured from TN
TC: to proposed flight patch
TH: To the nose of the a/c

99
Q

What’s the definition of TC ?

A

Measured from TN to the proposed flight path

100
Q

What’s the definition of TR ?

A

From true north (clockwise) to the actual flight patch of the ground

101
Q

What’s the difference between TR and TC ?
when would they be the same ?

A

Both measured from TN
TR: to actual flight path
TC: To proposed flight path
(Would be the same if wind correction is corrected properly)

102
Q

What’s the definition of MH ?

A

From MN to the nose of the a/c

103
Q

What’s the definition of DC ?

A

The amount of correction applied to prevent drifting off course

104
Q

What’s the definition of TAS ?

A

Calibrated airspeed corrected for error due to air density

105
Q

What’s the definition of GS ?

A

The speed of the a/c over the ground

106
Q

What’s the definition of VAR ?

A

Difference between TN and MN

107
Q

What’s the definition of agonic line ?

A

Line connecting points of 0 variation

108
Q

What’s the definition of isogonic line ?

A

Line connecting points of equal variation

109
Q

What’s the definition of CAS ?

A

Indicated airspeed corrected for instrument installation error

110
Q

What’s the definition of TH ?

A

TN to the nose of the aircraft

111
Q

What’s the difference between a heading and a course ?

A

Heading refer to the nose of the a/c
course refer to a flight path / ground track

112
Q

When is groundspeed FASTER than TAS ?

A

Tailwind

113
Q

TR and TC is always the same ?

A

False

114
Q

Drift angle is measured between ?

A

TH and TR

115
Q

To check if your KM / NM convertion on the E6B is about right : 1 KM is equal to ___ NM

A

1 KM = 0.54 NM
( So about half )

116
Q

Where is warning areas located ?

A

Over water

117
Q

What airspace heights are depicted on the maps ?

A

MSL

118
Q

D airspace: Instrument approach extensions
When will they be D / E airspace ?

A

2 miles or less = D airspace

119
Q

What does the TRSA do ?

A

Vectoring, spacing, sequencing and advisories

120
Q

When PA & TEMP is put in this window - what can you read on the inner and outer ring of the E6B

A

Inner = Indicated ALT
Outer = TALT

121
Q

When should you use the small “sec” hammer on the E6B

A

Then distance is 1/10 of the airspeed (kts)

122
Q

When you put PA and temp in this window: What can you read on the inner and outer scale of the E6B ?

A

Inner: CAS
Outer: TAS

123
Q

At what altitude does the “cruising altitude rule” end ?

A

18.000 feet
A airspace

124
Q

When completing a flight plan, which callsigns can we use as army aviators ?

A

“SAVER48” flight callsign
“R17029” R+last 5 of tail number

125
Q

Which letters can we put here and why ?

A

V = VFR
I = IFR

126
Q

What letter do we put here and why ?

A

M for military

127
Q

How do we enter our crusing speed?

A

N00XX
XX = crusing speed

N is for “knots” - TAS

128
Q

How do we enter our crusing altitude

A

A0XX
XX = altitude in thousand ft.

129
Q

How would we enter flying to Cairns

A

“DCT KOZR”

130
Q

How would we enter that we are a “UH 72 Lakota”

A

“EC45”

131
Q

What would we enter as a UH 72 lakota ?

A

L - GSU SB1

SB1 = Transponder

S(ADS-B) B1 (w/o capabilities)

GSU = G(gps) S(Standard com) U(UHF)
SB1 = S(ADS-B) B1 (w/o capabilities)

132
Q

What distance should we keep to restriced areas ?

A

3 NM

133
Q

How often should you give points (VFR rute) when filing a flight plan ?

A

30 min apart or every 200 NM

134
Q

When should we have a ALTN airport and what makes a good one?

A

When destination reports SVFR
A good one would be in class G no TWR ( = just go and land)

135
Q

Can a VFR flight plan legally be filed to an airport with SVFR conditions ?

A

Yes - a flight plan can ALWAYS be filed

136
Q

Name the controlled airspaces

A

A, B, C, D, E

137
Q

Name the uncontrolled airspaces

A

G

138
Q

As an army aviator, do you need transponder in G airspace?

A

Yes, always

139
Q

What is the mode C veil for ?

A

Civil aviators need transponder within the circle/veil

140
Q

What is the CTAF used for. ?

A

Communication with other a/c in airspace

141
Q

What deos the following rotating beacons indicate ?
A) 1 green, 1 white light
B) 1 green, 2 white lights

A

A) civil airport
B) Military airport

142
Q

If the rotating beacon is on during the day - what does this indicate ?

A

IFR conditions

143
Q

When do you need to contact controlling agency of airspace
B
C
D
E

A

B) ASAP/not stated
C) 20 NM
D+E) 10 NM

144
Q

What does “ASOS” mean at an airport ?

A

Weather is available

145
Q

What abbreviations would indicate weather services ?

A

ATIS, AWOS, ASOS

146
Q

What does a small blue dot on the map mean ? (pilot action?)

A

Wildlife = fly 2000’ above AGL

147
Q

At what altitude does G airspace cut off ?

A

14.500 ft
(legend indicates each maps restriction - could be 1200’ for some maps = at cairns)

148
Q

Can anyone fly through a alert area ?

A

Yes

149
Q

The VFR crusing altitude is
___ - ____ - ____

A

“Above - 3000’ - AGL”

Exam answer must contian all 3 words

150
Q

What is the MEF ?

A

Maximum elevation figure
(highest obstruction in a 30 min grid square)

151
Q

When we have a headwind TAS is ____ than GS

A

Higher

152
Q

Which pub do we need to complete our flightplan ?

A

General planning

153
Q

How can we activate/close a flightplan ?

A

In person, by phone, by a/c rdo

154
Q

What form is the military flight plan ?

A

DD form 1801

UH 72 (42 decks)

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