EXAM ( BWS 1 ) Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most important element of an OPORD ?

A

Commanders intent

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2
Q

What are the mission variables

A

METT-TC

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3
Q

What is a OPORD

A

Operations order

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4
Q

What are the two major categories of variables ?

A

Operational
Mission

variables

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5
Q

Who leads a tactical mission (involving more than 1 a/c) and has decision making authority ?

A

Air mission commander

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6
Q

What are TLPs ?

A

Troop leading procedures
a dynamic process used by small unit leaders to analyze missions, make a plane and prepare

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7
Q

During TLP an aviation company breaks into functional planning cells to turn commanders visualization into an ____ ?

A

Actionable plan

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8
Q

When terrain flight planning the FIRST consideration should be ?

A

the location of the threat

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9
Q

How do you avoid being detected ?

A

Vary airspeed and altitude, limit exposure time across open areas, always have an evasive maneuver planned

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10
Q

What are the 3 movement techniques ?

A
  1. Traveling
  2. Traveling overwatch
  3. Bounding overwatch
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11
Q

When using Bounding overwatch what are the likelihood enemy contact and which terrain flight mode would you use?

A

Enemy expected
Terrain flight mode NOE

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12
Q

When using “traveling overwatch” what are the likelihood enemy contact and which terrain flight mode would you use?

A

Enemy possible
Terrain flight mode : Contour or NOE

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13
Q

When using “Traveling” what are the likelihood enemy contact and which terrain flight mode would you use?

A

Enemy not likely
Terrain flight mode: Low level or contour

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14
Q

What are the 3 terrain flight modes used in high threat area ?

A

NOE, contour, low level

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15
Q

To avoid flying over enemy ground forces, you should plan routes over what type of terrain ?

A

Rugged, swamp, Heavy vegetated
(Where they wouldn’t be)

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16
Q

What is an air assualt ?

A

Movement of friendly assualt forces by RW aircraft to engage and destroy enemy forces or to seize and hold key terrain

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17
Q

What key personnel serves as the SME to AATFC and GTC on aviation and their unit capabilities ?

A

Aviation liaison officer | LNO

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18
Q

What is the AATFC ?

A

Air assualt task force commander

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19
Q

What is the decision brief from the AATF staff to the AATFC for approval ?

A

Air mission brief AMB

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20
Q

Air assualts are planned in ____ to ensure timing and synchronization ?

A

Reverse sequence

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21
Q

What are the 5 stages of the reverse planning sequence ?

A

Ground tactical plan
Landing plan
Movement plan
Loading plan
Staging plan

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22
Q

What is the difference between a HOT (cherry) call and a COLD (ice) call ?

A

A HOT call indicates enemy activity on or near the landing zone above the AATFCs acceptable level - a COLD call indicates no enemy

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23
Q

What HLZ final update call indiates enemy activity on or near landing zone above the AATCFs acceptable level ?

A

Cherry

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24
Q

Why use: lift, serials and chalks ?

A

To maximize operational control

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25
What is a: Lift Serial Chalk
Lift: All a/c assigned to mission Serial: Tactical group of 1 or more a/c Chalk: single a/c (aviation assets are designated into these categories)
26
To maintain unit fighting integrity, infantry squads will be assigned to a ____, platoons will remain in the same ____, and companies will remain within the same ____ ?
Infantry squads: CHALK Platoons: SERIAL Companies: LIFT
27
A ____ is an area designated for attack helicopters to maneuver and fire into a designated engagement area ?
BP : Battle position
28
A ____ is an easily recognizable point on the ground used to initiate, distribute and control fires.
TRP: Target reference point
29
What offensive task is utilized when the enemy situation is vague ?
Movement to contact
30
____ follows a successful exploitation and is designed to cut off and destroy the enemy attempting to retreat ?
Pursuit
31
A ____ attack trades off planning and preparation time for speed of execution ?
Hasty attack
32
Which employment method utilize 3 attack companies at once for overwhelming the enemy with massed fires ?
Maximum destruction
33
What does this symbol indicate
**SBF "Support by fire"** Engagin enemy to support another maneuvering force
34
What does this symbol indicate?
**ABF "Attack by fire"** A position from which a unit conduct the tactical task of attack by fire
35
What is the purpose of an aviation check in brief ?
To give ground force the capabilities of air assets on station
36
After given an attack aviation call for fire, it is clearance to fire unless ____ or ____ ?
"Danger close" or "at my command"
37
What does the O stand for in fundamentals of recon | GORRDDE
Orient on the recon objective
38
What criteria is a specific condition and size under which enemy unit contact may be avoided ?
Bypass criteria
39
What is displacement criteria ?
A set of conditions that must be met before assuming a follow on mission
40
What are the differences between an area and zone reconnaissance ?
Zone: Larger - restrictive boundaries Area: Smaller - Permissive boundaries
41
What are the four forms of reconnaissance ?
Recon in force Zone recon Area recon Route recon
42
What form of recon is utilized to discover or test the enemys strengthm dispositions and reactions.
Recon in force
43
Which form of recon is a larger, more time consuming effort, used when existing knowledge of enemy and terrain are vague and limited ?
Zone recon
44
What does the "O" stand for in fundamentals of security ?
Orient on the protected force, area or facility
45
# True/false It is recommended to break and re-establish contact with the enemy during security operations
False
46
Screen primarily provides what?
Early warning
47
What form of security provides the lease amount of security and primarily provides warning to the protected force ?
Screen
48
When would you conduct convoy security rather than route security ?
When you don't have enough of a force to secure the entire route
49
What form of security is designed to protect helicopter in flight to their objectives during an air assualt or air movement mission ?
Aerial security
50
What criteria is given as guidance from the commander as to when you WILL break contact from an enemy force ?
Disengagement criteria
51
____ are a dynamic process used by small unit leaders to analyze the mission, develope a plan and prepare for an operation
Troop leading procedures
52
During TLP's, a company breaks up into functional ____ ____ to turn a commanders visualization into an actionable plan
Planning cells
53
Which planning cell would drive the appropriate route, movement technique and terrain flight mode to the maneuver cell ?
Maneuver planning cell ? | Not sure
54
What are the fundamentals of reconnaissance ?
Gain and maintain contact Orient of the reconnaissance objective Report all information rapidly Retain the freedom of maneuver Develope the situation Do not keep recon assets in reserve Ensure continous reconnaissance
55
What are the forms of recconnaissance ?
Zone, Area, route and reconnaissance in force
56
What criteria is a specific condition and size under which enemy unit contact may be avoid ? ## Footnote similar to disengagement criteria - accept prior to engagement
Bypass criteria
57
What form of recon is utilized to discover or test enemys strength, dispositions and reactions ?
Reconnaissance in force
58
Which from of recon is a larger, more time consuming effort (SQN element or larger) used whn existing knowledge of enemy and terrain are vague and limited ?
Zone recon
59
What are the form of security ?
Screen (early warning) Guard (protect main body by fighting to gain time) Cover (Brigade or higher - same ^) Area (personel, route, aerial security) Local (in support of units with fixed AO/pos.)
60
Which form of security provides the least amount of protection and primarily provides early warning ?
Screen
61
What form of security is the most robust level of security, capable of operating independently of the main body?
Guard