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Microbiology > chapter 18 study guide > Flashcards

chapter 18 study guide Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Characteristics of Adaptive Immunity

A

specificity

memory

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2
Q

Targets specific pathogens.

Quickly responds to previously encountered pathogens.

A

Specificity:

Memory:

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2
Q

Mechanism of Specificity and Memory

A

programming of immune cells

primary and secondary

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3
Q

Enables rapid response to subsequent pathogen exposures.

A

programming of immune cells

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4
Q

Triggered by the first exposure to a pathogen or vaccine.
:
Faster and stronger due to immune memory.
Specific to the initial pathogen.

A

primary response

secondary response

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5
Q

cell types in adaptive immunity

A

b cells

t cells

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6
Q

Mature in bone marrow.
Produce glycoproteins (antibodies or immunoglobulins).
Defend against extracellular pathogens and toxins.
Mechanism: Humoral immunity (involves B cells and antibodies).

A

B cells

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7
Q

Mature in the thymus.
Act as central orchestrators of both innate and adaptive immune responses.
Destroy cells infected with intracellular pathogens.
Mechanism: Cell-mediated immunity (targeting and destruction of intracellular pathogens).

A

T cells

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8
Q

Trigger activation of adaptive immune defenses.
Unique to specific pathogens (e.g., varicella-zoster virus antigens differ from other viral pathogens).
Differ from PAMPs (found on numerous pathogens)

A

antigen

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9
Q

Found in capsules, cell walls, fimbriae, flagella, pili, toxins, and enzymes.

A

bacteria antigens

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10
Q

Associated with capsids, envelopes, and spike structures.

A

viral antigens

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11
Q

Effectiveness as antigens depends on structural complexity

A

proteins most effective

carbohydrates less effective

nucleic acids least effective

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12
Q

Smaller exposed regions on antigen surfaces recognized by antibodies or T cells.

A

epitopes

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13
Q

Small molecules (______):
Not antigenic alone.
Become antigenic when attached to larger carrier molecules (e.g., proteins).

A

haptens

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14
Q

cause specific immune responses, including allergic reactions:
Example:
Urushiol (poison ivy oil) causes contact dermatitis.
Penicillin can trigger allergic reactions to its drug class.

A

haptens

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15
Q

An ____ is a macromolecule that reacts with components of the immune system

A

antigen

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16
Q

Also called immunoglobulins.
Glycoproteins found in blood and tissue fluids

A

antibodies

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17
Q

Consists of four protein chains held together by disulfide bonds:
Disulfide bond: Covalent bond between sulfhydryl R groups of two cysteine amino acids.
Two identical heavy chains (largest).
Two identical light chains (smallest).
Forms a Y-shaped structure.

A

basic structure of antibody monomer

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18
Q

Arms of the Y-shaped antibody molecule.
Serves as the site of antigen binding.

A

FAB region

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19
Q

Neutralization of pathogens.
Agglutination or aggregation of pathogens.
Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity.

A

FAB region

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20
Q

Located in the trunk of the Y.
Site of complement factor binding.
Site of binding to phagocytic cells during antibody-mediated opsonization.

A

FC region

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21
Q

The _____ determines the class (isotype) of the antibody.

A

constant region

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22
Q

five classes of antibodies

A

IgG, IgM, IgA, IgD, IgE.

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23
Q

Penetrates tissue spaces efficiently.
Only antibody that crosses the placental barrier, providing passive immunity to the fetus.
Most versatile in defense against pathogens.

A

IgG

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24
Q

First antibody produced during primary and secondary immune responses.
Diagnostic marker for active/recent infections (pathogen-specific IgM).
Ten Fab sites enhance pathogen binding.

A

IgM

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25
Q

Most abundant in mucus secretions (protects mucous membranes).
Found in breast milk, tears, and saliva.

Traps pathogens in mucus for elimination.

A

IgA

26
Q

Found on B cell surfaces as an antigen-binding receptor.
Function: Not secreted by B cells.
Trace amounts in serum result from degradation of old B cells

A

IgD

27
Q

Involved in anti-parasitic defenses.
Fc region binds to basophils and mast cells.
Fab region binds antigen epitopes, triggering release of pro-inflammatory mediators.
Central to allergic reactions and inflammation defense mechanisms.

A

IgE

28
Q

Antibodies involved: IgG, IgM, IgA.
Mechanism:
Antibodies bind to epitopes on the pathogen/toxin surface, preventing attachment to cells.

A

Neutralization

28
Q

Neutralization of pathogens.
Opsonization for phagocytosis.
Agglutination (aggregation of pathogens).
Complement activation.
Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity.
Provide a link between adaptive specific immunity and innate nonspecific immunity.

A

Functions of antibodies

29
Q

Secretory IgA: Blocks pathogens from attaching to intestinal mucosal cells.
Antibodies neutralize toxins by blocking their attachment to target cells.
Viruses are neutralized, preventing infection of cells.

A

neutralization

30
Q

Pathogens are coated with molecules (e.g., complement factors, C-reactive protein, serum amyloid A) to assist phagocytosis.
IgG acts as an excellent opsonin by binding Fab sites to pathogen epitopes.

A

opsonization

31
Q

Cross-linking of pathogens by antibodies creates large aggregates.
IgG:
Two Fab antigen-binding sites can bind two separate pathogens, clumping them together.
Large aggregates are easier for kidneys and spleen to filter from blood and easier for phagocytes to ingest.
IgM:
Pentameric structure provides ten Fab binding sites per molecule.
Most efficient antibody for ______.

A

Agglutination (Aggregation)

32
Q

Three pathways, with the _____ being the most efficient.

requires:
Initial binding of IgG or IgM antibodies to the surface of a pathogen.
Recruitment and activation of the C1 complex.

A

classical pathway

33
Q

____ is a collection of genes coding for___ molecules on the surface of all nucleated cells.
In humans, these genes are also called human leukocyte antigen (HLA) genes.
Mature red blood cells lack a nucleus and do not express ___ molecules

A

MHC

34
Q

Found on all nucleated cells.
Presents:
Normal self-antigens.
Abnormal or nonself antigens (e.g., pathogens) to effector T cells for cellular immunity.

A

MHC 1

35
Q

Found only on macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells.
Presents:
Abnormal or nonself antigens for the initial activation of T cells.

A

MHC 2

36
Q

Composed of:
A longer α protein chain.
A smaller β2 microglobulin protein.
Only the α chain spans the cytoplasmic membrane.
The α chain folds into three domains: α1, α2, and α3.

A

MHC 1

37
Q

Two protein chains (α and β) of similar length.
Both chains span the plasma membrane.
Each chain folds into two domains:
α1 and α2 (α chain).
β1 and β2 (β chain).

A

MHC 2

38
Q

Formed by α1 and α2 domains.

Formed by α1 and β1 domains.

A

MHC 1

MHC 2

39
Q

All nucleated cells process and present antigens with MHC molecules to signal the immune system.
Macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells specifically present antigens to activate T cells, making them ____.

A

antigen presenting cells APC

40
Q

Function as phagocytes.
Ingest and kill pathogens that penetrate the skin or mucous membranes.
Recognize pathogens via nonspecific receptor interactions (e.g., PAMPs, toll-like receptors, complement, or antibody receptors).

A

Macrophages and dendritic cells

41
Q

Do not function as phagocytes.
Use antigen-specific immunoglobulin receptors (monomeric IgD and IgM) to interact with foreign pathogens or free antigens.
Internalize antigens through endocytosis, then process and present them to T cells.

A

B cells

42
Q

Found on all normal, healthy, nucleated cells.

A

Role of MHC I in Normal Cells:

43
Q

Cross-presentation mechanisms are not fully understood but are mainly carried out by

A

dendritic cells

44
Q

Originates from hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) in the bone marrow.
Differentiates into lymphoid stem cells, then immature lymphocytes (lymphoblasts)

immature T cells travel via the bloodstream to the thymus for maturation

A

T cell production

45
Q

98% of thymocytes are eliminated during thymic selection.
The remaining 2% mature and exit the thymus as

A

mature naive T cells

46
Q

T cells are divided into

A

helper T cells, regulatory T cells, and cytotoxic T cells.

47
Q

Central orchestrators of immune responses.
Activate and direct humoral and cellular immunity.
Enhance pathogen-killing functions of macrophages and natural killer (NK) cells.

A

helper T cells cd 4

48
Q

Prevent undesirable or damaging immune responses.
Role in peripheral tolerance to protect against autoimmune diseases.

A

regulatory T cells cd 4

49
Q

Effector cells for cellular immunity.
Recognize and destroy cells infected by intracellular pathogens.
Kill infected cells along with pathogens inside.

A

Cytotoxic T Cells (CD8+):

50
Q

Long-lived and “remember” a specific antigen/epitope.
Provide a rapid and strong secondary response upon subsequent exposure.

A

memory helper T cells

51
Q

____are derived from multipotent hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) in the bone marrow.
Unlike T cells, ____ do not migrate to the thymus for maturation; they mature in the bone marrow.

A

B cells

52
Q

Ensures B cells have functional antigen-binding receptors.

A

B cell maturation process

positive selection

53
Q

Removes self-reactive B cells to prevent autoimmunity through:
Apoptosis (cell death).
Receptor editing/modification to eliminate self-reactivity.
Induction of anergy (Non responsiveness).

A

B cell maturation process

negative selection

54
Q

Immature B cells that pass selection leave the bone marrow and travel to the ____ for final maturation.

A

spleen

55
Q

Mature B cells in the spleen are referred to as

A

naive mature B cells

56
Q

Individual’s own adaptive immune defenses are activated.

Adaptive immune defenses are transferred from another individual or animal

A

Active Immunity:

passive immunity

57
Q

Develops after natural exposure to a pathogen.
Examples: Lifelong immunity after recovery from chickenpox or measles

A

Natural Active Immunity

58
Q

Involves the natural transfer of antibodies from parent to child:
IgG: Crosses the placenta, providing passive immunity for up to 6 months after birth.
Secretory IgA: Transferred through breast milk.

A

natural passive immunity

59
Q

Transfer of antibodies from a donor to another individual for:
Prophylaxis (e.g., rabies, hepatitis A/B, chickenpox in high-risk individuals).
Treatment of active infections (e.g., cytomegalovirus, Ebola).
Toxin-related diseases (e.g., tetanus, botulism, diphtheria).
Example: 1995 Ebola outbreak, where blood transfusions from recovered patients reduced mortality

A

artificial passive immunity

60
Q

Deliberate exposure to weakened/inactivated pathogens or key pathogen antigens to activate immunity

A

vaccination

artificial active immunity

61
Q

occurs when there are too few susceptible individuals in a population for a disease to spread effectively.
It protects susceptible individuals indirectly, even if they cannot mount their own immune response

A

herd immunity

62
Q

benefits unvaccinated individuals if a critical percentage of the population is immune

A

herd immunity

Microbiology (30 decks)

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