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Human Structure and Function I > Chapter 12 > Flashcards

Chapter 12 Flashcards

Part 1 and 2

1
Q

the spinal cord is part of the pns or cns

A

cns

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2
Q

the spinal cord is the major communication between

A

brain and pns

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3
Q

the spinal cord extends from base of brain to

A

2nd lumbar vertebrae level

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4
Q

where does the spinal cord taper from

A

conus medullaris

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5
Q

is the spinal cord wider or thinner at the top ? and how many enlargements

A

wider , 2 enlargements

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6
Q

what does the spinal cord separate into

A

cauda equina (horses tail)

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7
Q

cervical enlargement has

A

nerve fibers to/ form upper limb

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8
Q

lumbosacral enlargement has

A

nerve fibers to/ from lower limb

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9
Q

the spinal cord is shorter than? and not grow as rapidly during

A

vertebral column
development

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10
Q

what components does the spinal cord have

A

cerviccal, thoracic, and sacral

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11
Q

CT strand anchors conus medullaris to 1st coccygeal vertebra (limits superior movement)

A

filium terminale

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12
Q

the spinal cords gives rise to 31 pair of spinal nerves, and exit vertebrae via

A

intervertebral and sacral foramina

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13
Q

3 thin ct membranes that cover and protect cns

A

meninges

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14
Q

what encloses venous sinuses and contains csf dura, arachnoid and pia mater

A

meningees

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15
Q

what is the epidural space, “tough mother” strong

A

dura mater

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16
Q

how many layers does the dura mater have

A

2

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17
Q

deeper meningeal layer. separate to enclose dural venous sinuses

A

superficial periosteal layer

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18
Q

what dura mater layer forms dural septa

A

meningeal dura

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19
Q

longitudunal fissure between cerebral hemispheres

A

falx cerebri

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20
Q

between cerebellar hemisphere

A

falx cerebelli

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21
Q

transverse fissure between cerebrum U and cerbellum

A

tentorium cerebelli

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22
Q

subdural space in meninges

A

arachnoid mater

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23
Q

subarchnoid space

A

pia mater

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24
Q

spiderweb-like. BV’s and CSF here. what meninge layer

A

pia mater

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25
Q

what meninges layer absorb CSF into venous blood of sinus

A

arachnoid mater

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26
Q

“gentle mother” that clings to brain is what meninge layet

A

pia mater

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27
Q

meningeal inflammation

A

meningitis

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28
Q

what is meningitis causes by

A

bacteria or virus

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29
Q

what removes CSF from subarachnoid space

A

lumbar puncture

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30
Q

antibiotics/ support to prevent spread to CNS

A

encephalitis

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31
Q

injections into the subarachnooid space go into what

A

L3/4 and L4/5

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32
Q

where is L3/4 and L4/5

A

below conus medullaris of spinal cord in cauda equina

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33
Q

subarachnoid space goes to level

A

S2 of vertebral column

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34
Q

needle is inserted with CSF present and then

A

nerve fibers move away from needle

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35
Q

meds block AP transmission inject into subarachnoid space

A

spinal anesthesia (block)

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36
Q

what injection is used to prevent pain in lower body region

A

spinal anesthesia

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37
Q

advantage of spinal anesthesia block

A

stronger anesthesia into CSF, faster effect

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38
Q

needle not through dura mater, drugs diffuse into CSF

A

epirudral anesthesia

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39
Q

advantage of epidural anesthesia

A

readminister drugs via catheter

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40
Q

spinal cord X-section consists of outer and and deep what

A

outer white matter
deep gray matter

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41
Q

white matter consists of

A

myelinated axons-> nerve tracts

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42
Q

gray matter consists of

A

neuron cell bodies, dendrites and axons

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43
Q

anterior mediam fissure and posterious median sulcus=

A

separate halves

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44
Q

white matter= 2 columns which are

A

ventral, dorsal, and lateral

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45
Q

the 3 columns are subdivided into

A

tracts

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46
Q

collection of axons in CNS, PNS equivalent= nerve

A

tract

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47
Q

gray matter=

A

dorsal, ventral, and lateral horn

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48
Q

what connects halves, central canal

A

gray commisure

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49
Q

what arises from ventral and dorsal root

A

spinal nerves

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50
Q

dorsal root ganglion house the

A

sensory cell bodies, afferent
vental is efferent

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51
Q

automatic response to stimulus, no conscious through drives it

A

reflex

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52
Q

painful stimuli response to minimize damage

A

protective (somatic reflexes)

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53
Q

what maintains homeostasis= stable BP

A

autonomic reflexes

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54
Q

reflex arc is in

A

spinal cord

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55
Q

whats a basic functional unit of NS

A

reflex

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56
Q

5 steps of AP

A

stimulus
sensory afferent neuron
integration center
motor efferent neuron
effector

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57
Q

monosynaptic

A

1 synapse

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58
Q

polysynaptic

A

> 1 synapse, interneuron

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59
Q

simplest reflex

A

stretch reflex

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60
Q

patellar tap causes what to stretch

A

quads

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61
Q

patellar tap causes quads to stretch. muscle spindle receptors in muscles stretch, activating stretch reflex

A

knee jerk reflex

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62
Q

how is the knee jerk reflex tested

A

reflex hammer

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63
Q

exaggerated knee jerk reflex response indicated

A

possibly injury to the brain

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64
Q

diminished knee jerk reflex response indicated

A

possible injury in spinal cord

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65
Q

what attaches to ends of spindle to allow it to reset to detect further stretch

A

gamma motor neuron

66
Q

how does polysynaptic reflex prevent falls

A

shifting weight

67
Q

flexor response to painful stimulus

A

withdrawl reflex

68
Q

remove body part from stilumus by excitatory interneurons sending message to flexor muscles in lower extremity

A

withdrawal reflex

69
Q

simultaneously, the opposite leg has excitatory interneurons stimulating extensor muscles to support the body on 1 leg as injured foot Is withdrawn

A

crossed extensor relfex

70
Q

axon is surrounded by what

A

endoneurium

71
Q

what kind of CT is endoneurium

A

delicate loose ct (areolar)

72
Q

axons are packaged into

A

fascicle

73
Q

the fascicle is surrounded by

A

perineurium

74
Q

what kind of CT is the peruneurium

A

dense irregular ct

75
Q

what is in concentric cell layers, up to 15 layers thick

A

perineurium

76
Q

what binds fasicles together to form nerve

A

epineurium

77
Q

what CT is epineurium

A

dense irregular CT

78
Q

what makes peripeheral nerves tough

A

CT coverings

79
Q

spinal nerves are part of the PNS, 31 pair, emanate from the

A

spinal cord

80
Q

spinal nerves are named according to where they

A

emerge from

81
Q

all except 1st pair and sacral exit vertebrae through

A

intervertebral foramina (between vertebrae)

82
Q

C1 exit between

A

skull and C1 vertebrae

83
Q

how many nerves in cervical

A

8

84
Q

how many nerves are in thoracic

A

12

85
Q

how many nerves are in the lumbar

A

5

86
Q

how many nerves are in sacral

A

5

87
Q

how many nerves are in coccygeal

A

1

88
Q

all spinal nerves are mixed what

A

sensory and motor

89
Q

spinal nerve roots connect

A

PNS to spinal cord

90
Q

spinal roots arise from

A

longitudial rows or rootlets attached to each side of spinal cord

91
Q

spinal nerves leave the spinal cord at

A

anterolateral and posterolateral sulci

92
Q

spinal nerves become increasingly longer from

A

superior to inferior cord

93
Q

cervical=

A

short, run horizontal

94
Q

lumbar and sacral=

A

run inferiorly as cauda equina pre exit of vertebral column

95
Q

spinal cord has about how many rootlets

A

8

96
Q

the 8 rootlets unite to form

A

ventral or dorsal root of spinal nerve

97
Q

ventral root=

A

motor (efferent)

98
Q

where do ventral roots arise from

A

ventral horn motor neurons- skeletal muscle

99
Q

dorsal root=

A

sensory (afferent)

100
Q

where do dorsal roots arise from

A

sensory neurons in dorsal root ganglion- spinal cord

101
Q

how short are spinal nerves

A

1-2 cm

102
Q

spinal nerves quickly branches into

A

dorsal, ventral ramus, and meningeal branch

103
Q

what innervates deep muscles of dorsal trunk and also innervates CT and skin near midline back

A

dorsal rami

104
Q

ventral rami have how many ways of distribution

A

2

105
Q

thoracic region forms what

A

intercostals nerves, and innervates intercostal muscles and skin of thorax

106
Q

the remaining spinal nerves from ventral rami form

A

5 major plexuses

107
Q

also communicating rami=

A

thoracic and upper lumbar

108
Q

spinal cord carry axons asSOCIATED WITH

A

sympathetic ANS

109
Q

what is a plexus

A

intermingling of nerves formed by ventral rami and other spinal nerves

110
Q

each muscle in limb receives nerve supply from

A

more than 1 spinal nerve

111
Q

advantage of plexus

A

damage 1 spinal segment does not result in complete paralysis

112
Q

overlap from multiple spinal cord levels minimize

A

loss of control and feeling to specific body area after a spinal cord injury

113
Q

ventral rami of spinal cord includes

A

cervical, brachial, lumbar, sacral, coccygeal

114
Q

C1-C4

A

cervical

115
Q

C5-T1

A

brachial

116
Q

L1-L4

A

lumbar

117
Q

S5-Co

A

coccygeal

118
Q

cervical plexus is deep

A

in the neck

119
Q

spinal nerves what for cervical plus

A

c1-c4

120
Q

what does the cervical plexus innervate

A

superficial neck skin and hyoid bone muscle

121
Q

phrenic nerve is what nerves

A

C3-C5

122
Q

what does the phrenic nerve innervate

A

diaphragm

123
Q

irritation of the phrenic nerve results in

A

diaphragm spasms or hiccups

124
Q

severing of the diaphragm results in

A

paralyzed diaphragm and respiratory arrest

125
Q

bracial plexus has how many roots

A

5

126
Q

the 5 roots in brachial plexus are deep in

A

sternocleidomastoid

127
Q

the 5 roots form

A

3 trunks, 6 divisions, 3 cords, 5 upper limb nerves

128
Q

what is in the brachial plexus

A

axillary, radial, musculocutaneous, ulnar, and median nerve

129
Q

most easy to damage in brachial plexus

A

ulnar

130
Q

is damage to ulnar perm or temp

A

temp usually

131
Q

ulnar is what bone

A

funny bone

132
Q

severe damage to ulnar results in

A

unable to male fist, grip= claw hand

133
Q

numb entire upper limb and inject near plexus is what

A

brachial anesthesia

134
Q

injury due

A

xs arm pull or bloe to superior shoulder

135
Q

severe injury to brachial plexus =

A

weaken or paralyze upper limb

136
Q

what is thoracic outlet syndrome

A

condition due to compression of brachial plxus or subclavian artery or vein

137
Q

TOS compression of nerves and vessels in thoracic outlet syndrome is where

A

lower neck and upper chest

138
Q

causes of TOS

A

MVA
repetitive action
pregnancy
anatomical differences

139
Q

risk factor for TOC

A

women
age 20-50

140
Q

S&S for TOC

A

numbness in arms and fingers
shoulder neck pain
arm fatigue
weak grip

141
Q

diagnosis for TOC

A

utrasound, X-ray, MRI

142
Q

treatment for TOC

A

PT, antiinflammatory, steriod, surgery

143
Q

complication for TOC

A

repetition injury
long term- chronic pain and disability

144
Q

prevention for TOC

A

avoid carrying heavy backpack
daily stretch
exercise to keep shoulders strong

145
Q

lumbosacral plexus spinal nerves l1-l4 lies within

A

psoas major muscle

146
Q

femoral nerve is under

A

inguinal ligament

147
Q

femoral nerve motor branches to

A

quads, cutaneous to anterior thigh and medial lower leg

148
Q

obturator nerve innervates

A

adductors

149
Q

sciatic nerve =

A

tibial and common peroneal nerve L4-S3

150
Q

whats the largest nerve in the body

A

sciatic nerve

151
Q

tinging sensation due to

A

pressure on sciatic nerve

152
Q

damage to sciatic nerve is from

A

herniated disc, hip injury, or bad hip injection

153
Q

pudenal nerve

A

innervates area of perineum

154
Q

what does the pudenal nerve stimulate what and controls what

A

erection and controls urination

155
Q

coccygeal innervation

A

pelvic floor muscles and sensory cutaneous over coccyx skin area

156
Q

dermatomes of skin innervated by

A

cutaneous branches of single spinal nerve

157
Q

all except what contribute to dermatomes

A

C1

158
Q

dermatomes help identify

A

nerves damaged with spinal cord injury

159
Q

what is spinal stenosis

A

spinal canal/ nerve root narrowing that causes compression of nerves

160
Q

spinal stenosis is usually in what area

A

cervical and lumbar

161
Q

S&S of spinal stenosis

A

pain
weak
numbness in back
worse w standing

162
Q

treatment of spinal stenosis

A

PT
maintain activity
strengten muscle
steroids
laminectomy= decompression
spinal fusion (last resort)

Human Structure and Function I (24 decks)

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