Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Transition Block > CAP > Flashcards

CAP Flashcards

1
Q

What conditions have a raised lymphocyte coutn in the CSF?

A

viral; TB; MS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What causes a very raised protein in the CSF?

A

bacterial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What hormone causes enlargement of the mammary glands of the breasts and prepares for lactation?

A

prolactin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the vitamin K dependent factors?

A

II, VII, IX and X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What neurotrasmitter is affected in withdrawal from sedative-hypnotic drugs?

A

reduced GABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What condition is difficult to cross-match blood in?

A

AI haemolytic anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What drugs are relatively CI in myeloma?

A

NSAIDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What significantly reduces the incidence of NEC?

A

breast feeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the first line investigation for heavy menstrual bleeding?

A

FBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Give an exmplae of an anticholinesterae?

A

galantamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is inheritance of Wilsons disease?

A

AR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the inheritance of Beckers muscular dystrophy?

A

X-linked recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what gene is always affected in Beckers muscular dystrophy?

A

dystrophin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the inheritance of myoclonic epilepsy with ragged red fibres?

A

mitochondrial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What causes the ragged red appearnce of muscle fibres in myoclinc epilepsy with ragged red fibres?

A

clumps of mirochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the features of myoclonic epilepsy with ragged red fibres?

A

progressive myoclonic epilepsy; short stautre; hearing loss; lactic acidosis; exercise intolerance; poor night vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does patchy reduced attenuation through the brain on SPECT scan indicate?

A

vascualr dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What other name is cervical dystonia known as?

A

spasmodic torticollis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is cervical dystonia?

A

head turning to one side due to contraction of the SCM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is blepharospasm?

A

twitch or spasm of the eyelid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Waht is hemiballismus?

A

uncontrolled flailing of the limbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What causes hemiballismus?

A

structural lesion or metabolic dysfunction of the subthalamic nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does chronic lung disease of infancy mean?

A

preterm infant will need oxygen supplementation beyond 28 days or beyond 36 weeks corrected gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What forms the outer lining of bone?

A

periosteum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What would cause a female with X-linked haemophilia to get symptoms?

A

normal X- inactivation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the action of bromocriptine?

A

dopamine agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is morphogenesis?

A

formation of hte body plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What artery is likely to be damaged with the insertion of lateral abdominal port?

A

inferior epigastric artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What artery is the inferior epigastric artery a branch of?

A

external iliac artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What artery is likely to be damaged in excision of Bartholins abscess?

A

internal pudendal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What artery is likely to be damaged during dissection of the lower end of the ureter?

A

uterine artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What type of contracption is CI in women with a pelvic infection?

A

intra-uterine devices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is needed if a patient still requires detention after a short term detention order?

A

complsory treatment order

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What stage does the embryo implant into the uterus?

A

blastocyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Where is the lesion in receptive aphasia?

A

Wernickes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is nominal aphasia?

A

unable to name familiar objects but language otherwise preserved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Where is the lesion in nominal aphasia?

A

inferior parietal lesion- angular gyrus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which area of the brain is affected first in Alzhemiers?

A

nucleus basalis of Meynert

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Where is the main source of cholinergic projections to the rest of hte brain?

A

nucleus basalis of meynert

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the most common inheritance of hereditary spherocytosis?

A

autosomal dominait

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is seen with a lesion immediately anteiror to the chiasm?

A

junctional scotoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the MOA of memantine?

A

blocks NMDA-type glutamate receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What anti-microbial protein is secreted by epithelial cells at mucosal surfaces?

A

defensins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What other disorder are patients with a first degree relative with bipolar also at risk of?

A

schizoaffective disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is Vmax ona graph defined as?

A

point at whihc reaction intercepts the Y-axis (1/v)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How do competitive inhibitors affect the KM and Vmax of an enzyme?

A

alter Km but not Vmax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what is seen on a graph with a non-competitive inhibitor?

A

crosses X axis at same value as the control reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What type of swab is done for symptomatic chlamydial testing?

A

endocervical swab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What abnormality of the HPA axis is associated iwht dpression?

A

cortisol non-suppression following dexamethasone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What happens to the adrenal gland in major depression?

A

enlarges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the symptoms of carotid sinus hypersensitivty?

A

dizziness and collapse but not postural sway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Waht is first line treatment of a simple partial seizure?

A

lamotrigine or carbamazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Is Hodgkins disease associated with a lymphocytosis?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the function of the aversive and defensive systems?

A

promote survival in the event of threat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What neurotransmitter is invovled in the aversive and defensive systems?

A

serotonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What movements is the L4 nerve root responsible for?

A

leg extension; patellar reflex and ankle dorsiflexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

When is neural tube closure?

A

4 weeks gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

How does vasa praevia present?

A

severe fetal distress with small intrapartum bleed following rupture of memrabens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Are varicoceles usually painful or painless?

A

painless

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are the essential investigations with pre-eclampsia?

A

FBC; U&Es and LFTs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is efficacy of a drug?

A

ability of an agonist to evoke a cellular response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What type of biopsy is best for lymph node biopsy in Hodgkins?

A

excision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What causes rouleaux formation?

A

charge of hte surface of cells is altered due to cell lablelling with proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What proteins can cause rouleaux formation?

A

reactive process; paraprotein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is done in the proximal tubule?

A

regulation of pH and reabsorption of 100% of glucose and amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

When does the desire to void occur in volume?

A

250ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is polyuria defined as?

A

> 2.8L in 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

How long is the female urethra?

A

3-4cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are the common side effects of thiazides?

A

postural hypotension; gout; impaired glucose tolerance; impotence and electrolyte imbalance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

How is norovirus detected?

A

PCR of stool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What type of blood product shouldn’t be given when there is a life-threatening haemorrhage on warfarin?

A

FFP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What hormone is used to measure ovarian reserve in IVF?

A

anti-mullerian hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the function of anti-mullerian hormone in females?

A

regulates folliculogenesis to form the dominant follicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are the antibodes against in myastehnia gravis?

A

post-synaptic ACh receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What organism produces elementary and reticulate bodies?

A

chlamydia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are the 4 aspects of the 4AT?

A

alterness; AMT4; attention; acute change or fluctuating course

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is asked in the AMT4?

A

age; DOB; place; current year

78
Q

What required for a score of 0 on attention?

A

acheives 7 or more months correctly

79
Q

How many mistakes in the AMT4 gives you a score of 2?

A

> 2 mistakes

80
Q

What drugs are relatively CI in mutltiple pregnancy?

A

IV beta sympathomimetic drugs

81
Q

What are the common SE of IV beta sympathomimetic drugs?

A

nausea; HA; vomiting; trembling and palpitations

82
Q

Who are IV beta sympathomimetic drugs relative CI in?

A

DM; CVS dsiease and multiple pregnnacy

83
Q

What happens if maternal HR exceeds 120/min?

A

cardiac failure with pulmonary oedema

84
Q

When is carotid endartercomy recommended?

A

stenoses greater than 70% of diameter

85
Q

What other name is Still’s disease known as?

A

systmeic-onset juvenile idiopathic arthritis

86
Q

What is Still’s disease characterised by?

A

high spiking fevers; salmon coloured rash and arthritis

87
Q

What type of antibody is involved in warm agglutinins?

A

IgG

88
Q

What DMARDs are assocaited with aplastic anaemia?

A

gold and lefluonamide

89
Q

What is a midzone nodule in TB known as?

A

Ghon focus

90
Q

What is the most common reason for TB reactivation?

A

alcoholism

91
Q

What is Sever’s disease?

A

apophysitis of the calcaneus- painful cartilage break usually in children

92
Q

What is given prophylactically for meningeal disease in ALL?

A

cranio-spinal irradiation and intrathecal methotrexate

93
Q

Which sex has an adverse prognosis in ALL?

A

male

94
Q

Where is the rash in HSP commonly seen?

A

thighs and buttocks

95
Q

why is platelet count reduced in acute leukaemia?

A

bone marrow infiltration by blasts

96
Q

what happens to the platelet count in Kawasaki disease?

A

thrombocytosis

97
Q

Whati s seen in the mouth with lead poisoning?

A

blue lines

98
Q

What type of glomerulonephritis is seen with HSP?

A

membranoproliferative

99
Q

What typically causes a low AFP, uncojugated oestriol and hCG?

A

Edwards syndrome

100
Q

what vascular anomaly is seen with Edwards syndrome?

A

single umbilical artery

101
Q

What does a raised AFP and presence of acetylcholinesterase in the amniotic fluid indicate?

A

open neural tube defect

102
Q

What typically causes of low AFP, low unconjugated oestriol but elevated hCG?

A

Down’s syndrome

103
Q

What are the causes of an isolated high AFP?

A

fetal abdo wall defects; multiple pregnnacy and bleeding in pregnnacy

104
Q

What happens to FSH with OCP?

A

decreased with the raised oestrogen

105
Q

Where are sex binding hormone globulin synthesised?

A

liver

106
Q

What causes increased sex-hormone binding globulin?

A

hepatic cirrhosis; hyperthyroidism and oestrogen use

107
Q

what is Mendelson’s syndrome?

A

risk of aspiration

108
Q

What is the function of circoid pressure with MEndelson’s syndrome?

A

occludes oesphagus to reduce regurgitation

109
Q

What are valvulae conniventes?

A

muscosal folds that cross the full width of the small bowel

110
Q

What imaging should be requested in the setting of an acute abdomen?

A

erect CXR (perforation)

111
Q

What are the common causes of large bowel obstruction?

A

colonic carcinoma or diverticular stricture

112
Q

Which leg more commonly gets DVT in pregnnacy?

A

left

113
Q

Where are DVTs most common in pregnancy?

A

iliac and femoral veins

114
Q

How is phenytoin initially prescribed?

A

as an IV infusion for loading

115
Q

What organ is valproate toxic to?

A

liver

116
Q

what is a side effect of phenobarbitone ?

A

hyperkinesia

117
Q

Why should vigabatrin not be used long term in children?

A

SE of visual field defects nad visual impairment

118
Q

Why is regular monitoring of valproate unhelpful?

A

poor correlation between seizure control and valproate levels

119
Q

What antibody can be raised in juvenile idiopathic arthritis?

A

ANA

120
Q

What is seen on EEG with hepatic encephalopathy?

A

delta waves

121
Q

What is the presentation of PAN?

A

hypertension; nephropathy; vasculitis and mononeuritis multiplex

122
Q

What is seen on angiography with PAN?

A

multiple aneurysms at vessel bifurcationas

123
Q

What is the inheritance of haemophilia?

A

X-linked recessive

124
Q

What are the CI to CT contrast?

A

renal impairment (creat >200); contrast/iodine allergy; pregnnacy

125
Q

What is a cortical osteoma?

A

benign bone grwoth in the frontal sinus

126
Q

What are Brown tumours?

A

osteolytic lesions due to hyperparathyroidism

127
Q

Is the renal failure typically associated with membranous nephropathy acute or chronic?

A

chronic

128
Q

What infections is membranous nephropathy assocaitedi wht?

A

hep b; malaria

129
Q

What type of nephropathy is assocaited with diabetes?

A

nephrotic

130
Q

Is hep B or hep C more transmissable by sex?

A

hep B

131
Q

What is typically seen with amiodarone induced lung disease?

A

reticulo-nodular shadowing or beads on a string

132
Q

What is athetosis?

A

slower movements whcih are irregular and writhing

133
Q

What type of matter do cerebral lesions in MS affect?

A

white

134
Q

What drug is associated iwth placental abruption?

A

cocaine

135
Q

What drug is assoc. with sustained Ht in pregnnacy ?

A

amphetamines

136
Q

Which drug is associated with increased PPH?

A

amphetamines

137
Q

What is a side effect of cimetidine?

A

gynaecomastia

138
Q

What covers the bare surface of the liver?

A

coronary ligmaent

139
Q

What is myotonia?

A

inability to relax limb after contraction

140
Q

What is the treatment for mild von willebrands disease?

A

desmopressin

141
Q

What is the treatment for active bleeding with warfarin toxicity?

A

prothrombin complex concentrate

142
Q

Waht is prothrombin complex concentrate?

A

blood clotting factors II, IX and X

143
Q

What is dry beriberi?

A

painful distal sensorimotor neuropathy

144
Q

what is wet beriberi?

A

peripheral oedema; pleural effusions and cardiomyopathy

145
Q

What is the inheritance of G6PD?

A

X-linked recessive

146
Q

What is haemolysis in G6PD associated with?

A

nitrofurantoin; dapsone; fava beans; antimalarials

147
Q

What are the causes of a resting tremor?

A

anxiety; beta-agonists; alcohol; thyrotoxicosis; familial and basal ganglia lesions

148
Q

What is a unilateral parotid swelling commonly caused by?

A

pleomorphic adenoma

149
Q

What is the investigation for pleomorphic adenoma?

A

excision biopsy

150
Q

What are the causes of a pulsatile mass in the neck?

A

carotid artery aneurysm; carotid body tumour (chemodectoma)

151
Q

What is the general diagnosis with hot and cold nodules?

A

hot- usually adenomas; cold- usually malignant

152
Q

What supplies cricothyroid?

A

external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve

153
Q

When does the first attack of genital herpes develop after exposure?

A

2-14 days

154
Q

What is the first step in treatment of acute sinusitis?

A

decongestnats and nasal sprays eg steroid

155
Q

what effect does aspirin have on warfarin?

A

potentiates

156
Q

Why does long term tetracycline use potentiate warfarin?

A

recudes the bacterial production of vitamin K by commensals by the gut

157
Q

What effect does phenytoin have on warfarin?

A

has been reported to potentiate and inhibit warfarin

158
Q

What is gold standard for investigating suspected renal colic?

A

CT KUB

159
Q

How is haemochromatosis inherited?

A

autosomal recessive

160
Q

How is Marfans syndrome inherited?

A

AD

161
Q

What is seen on ABG with ruptured AAA?

A

metabolic acidosis with raised anion gap

162
Q

What are the 3 Ps in vasovagal syncope?

A

posture; provoking factors; prodromal symptoms

163
Q

Can a prolonged PR interval be normal?

A

common in young athletes

164
Q

What is the most common cardiac abnormality seen with Down’s syndrome?

A

atrioventricular septal defect

165
Q

What are the skin lesions seen with reactive arthritis?

A

keratoderma blehnorrhagica- vesicles which become hyperkeratotic- palms and soles

166
Q

What antihypertensive can cause profound hypotension when started?

A

ACEi

167
Q

What drugs are associated with benign intracranial hypertension?

A

tetracycline; steroids; nitrofuratnoid and OCP

168
Q

What does the CHA2DS2VASc score stand for?

A

congestive cardiac failure; hypertension; age >74; DM; Stroke; vascular disease; sex (F)

169
Q

What is lateral to the ovaries?

A

obturator nerves and vessels

170
Q

What is medial to the ovaries?

A

ovarian ligmanet

171
Q

What is superior to the ovaries?

A

external iliac vessels

172
Q

What is posterior to the ovaries?

A

ureters; internal iliac vessels and pelvic wall

173
Q

Where is ovarian pain felt?

A

periumbilical or can stimulate obturator nerve-inner thigh

174
Q

What conditions express the Kobner phenomenon?

A

psoriasis; lichen planus; plane warts and vitilgo

175
Q

What is the antibiotic of choice against GAS?

A

penicillin

176
Q

Give an example of a GAS?

A

strep. pyogenes

177
Q

What is the effect of trimethoprim?

A

bacteriostatic

178
Q

What antibiotic is effective against Pseudomonas?

A

gent

179
Q

What effect do thiazides have on calcium?

A

increase calcium reabsorption

180
Q

What is the associated risk with renal biopsy/

A

renal AV fistula

181
Q

What is the most common presentation of renal AV fistula?

A

hypertension and haematuria

182
Q

What artery lies within the coronary sulcus?

A

RCA nad LCA

183
Q

What is faecal calprotectin?

A

substance released from the intestine in inflammation

184
Q

What is new onset hypertension prior to 20 weeks gestation commonly due to?

A

gestational trophoblastic disease

185
Q

What are the risks of gestational trophoblastic disease?

A

lung metastases and thyriod dysfunction

186
Q

What condition is renal angiomyolipoma assocaited with?

A

tuberous sclerosis

187
Q

What is the characteristic feature of a cavitating lesion?

A

opacity has a lucent (gas filled ) centre

188
Q

What drug is useful in post-herptic neuralgia?

A

carbamazepine

189
Q

What drugs cause gingival hyperplasia?

A

phenytoin; nifedipine; ciclosporin

190
Q

How is C1 esterase deficiency inherited?

A

autosomal dominant

191
Q

What causes oral hairy leukplakia?

A

EBV

192
Q

When should priamry PCI be given?

A

if present within 12 hours of onset and primary PCI can be delivered wtihin 120 minutes of time fibrinolysis

Transition Block (35 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions