07/04/18 Flashcards
1
Q
When is the red flag limit for no vaocalising?
A
3 months
2
Q
When is the red flag limit for no babbling?
A
10 months
3
Q
When is the red flag limit for not responding to name?
A
12 months
4
Q
Which gender often speaks first?
A
girls
5
Q
What is the commonest cause of convulsions in childhoosd?
A
fever
6
Q
Which DMARDs cause aplastic anaemia?
A
lefluonamdie and gold
7
Q
When are target cells seen?
A
liver disease; hyposplenism; thalassaemia and ida
8
Q
What are the cardiac complications associatedi wth RA?
A
pericarditis; myocarditis; amyloidosis; valvular incompetence
9
Q
What do rheumatoid nodules at the elbows suggest?
A
positive RF
10
Q
What are the causes of biulateraly hilar lympahdenopathy?
A
sarcoid; TB; lymphoma; mets; carcinoma
11
Q
What drug is associated with Dupuytrens?
A
phenytoin and alcohol
12
Q
Is trochlear innervation ipsilateral or contralateral?
A
contralateral (cross in the midbrain
13
Q
What are the stymptoms of superior vena cava obstruction?
A
breathlessness; facial swelling; dilated chest wall veins; plethora; early morning HA and oedema of the upper limb
14
Q
What are the causes of superior vena cava obstruction?
A
lung cancer; Hodgkins lymphoma and thymoma
15
Q
What drugs are implicated in erythema mulitforme?
A
penicillins; sulphonamides; phenytoin; barbuiturates; carbamazepine
16
Q
How long does it take erythema multiforme to resolve?
A
3-6 weeks
17
Q
What are the infectious causes of erythema multiforme?
A
herpes simplex and mycoplasma pneumoniae
18
Q
What coniditon is assocaited with adenosine deaminase deficiency?
A
SCID
19
Q
What are the treatments for fibroids which are less than 3cm and no distortion of the uterine cavity?
A
LNG-IUS; trnaexamic acids; COCs; NSAIDs; norethisterone
20
Q
What is the treatment for fibroids >3cm and heavy menstruation?
A
ulipristal acetate
21
Q
What are the complications of fibroids in pregnancy?
A
early pregnancy bleeding; PROM; obstructed labour; PPH
22
Q
Which area of the stomach is gastrin secreted from?
A
antrum
23
Q
Is the apex of the prostate at the superior or inferior pole?
A
inferior
24
Q
How are bile salts involved in the activation of lipases in the intestine?
A
optimisation of the pH
25
Where are bile salts reabsorbed?
termianl ileum
26
What is seen with triple X syndrome?
immature behaviour; neuromotor developmental delay and are tall
27
What is the most common cause of DIC
severe sepsis
28
What is the overall function of the extrapyramidal system?
initiation and modulation of movement
29
What is the leading non-genetic cause of mental retardation?
alcohol-related neurodev`elopmental disorer
30
What helps differentiate monillia (candida) from napkin rash?
presence of satellite lesions outside the nappy area suggests monilia
31
What is Couvelaire uterus?
placental abruption causes bleeding that pentrates into the uterine myometrium forcing its way into the peritoneal cavity
32
What is seen with maternal valproate administration?
cleft palate, spina bifida and mild learning impairment
33
What is seen with trisomy 18?
dysplastic heart valaves and oesophageal dysplasia
34
What is trisomy 13 assoacited iwht?
holoprosencephaly and cyclops
35
What is left shift?
immature neutrophils released from marrow
36
What is right sift?
hypermature neutrophils
37
What nerve supplies latissimus dorsi?
thorac-dorsal nerve
38
Why are patients with Sheehans syndrome very pale?
loss of MSH produced by the pituitary gland
39
Waht is the difference between a barium meal and swallow?
barium meal asses the stomach and duodenum whereas barium swallow looks at the oesophagus
40
What would a pleural effusion with intra-abdominal sepsis suggest?
sub-phrenic abscess
41
Why is prednisolone given with co-trimoxazole for PCP?
pneumonitis worsens with tx due to inflammation- given if PO2 <60
42
What is the distal attachment of tricepts?
olecranon of ulna
43
What is factor V Leiden disease?
activated protein C resistance
44
What is the function of normal factor V?
cofactor to allow factor X to generate thrombin
45
What is the function of activated protein C?
limit extent of clotting by cleaving and degrading factor V
46
What is the inheritance of Factor V Leiden?
AD
47
What is the most likely artery lesion in a pure motor stroke?
lacunar infarct- lenticulostriate (internal capsule)
48
What is syringomyleia?
lesion of the spinal cord leading to peripheral neuro symptoms
49
What is the inheritance of hereditary spherocytosis?
AD
50
Which nucleic acids are purines?
adenine and guanine (pure agony)
51
How can uracil be formed?
deamination of cytosin
52
What does a quick response to treatment with anticonvuslatns suggest?
psychogenic non-epileptic seizures
53
What are tophi?
solid deposits of monosodium urate crystals
54
Where does the oculomotor nucleus lie?
midrbain
55
What would be seen with a midbrain infarct in the eyes?
destroys central nucleus- bilateral ptosis because it innervates levator palpebrae bilaterally
56
Whati s the other name for seborrheic keratoses?
basal cell papilloma
57
What causes seborrheic keratoses?
overgrowth of epidermal keratinocytes
58
What skin lesion is characterised by a network of crypts on the surface?
seborrheic keratoses
59
What is the most common organism in acute otitis externa?
pseudomonas
60
What is resistant to treatment OE a sign of?
cancer
61
What is the treatment for OE?
neomycin and colistin/polymyxin ear drops
62
What happens to stored blood over time?
becomes acidotic and hyperkalaemia
63
What is the function of LH in males?
secretion of testosterone
64
what is the function of FSH in males?
generation of spermatozoa
65
What cells in males respond to LH?
leydig cells
66
What is difficult about the innervation of flexor pollicis brevis?
may be innervated by the median or ulnar nerve
67
What level does the SMA originate from the aorta?
L1
68
what is the blood supply of the middle part of the rectum?
2 middle rectal arteries arising from the inferior vesical arteries
69
What si the blood supply of hte inferior part of hte rectum?
inferior rectal arteries- internal pudendal
70
What is the anastamoses between the SMA and IMA?
marginal artery of Drummond
71
When is calcitonin releasewd?
in response to hypercalcaemia
72
What type of haematological malignancy is associatedi wht EBV?
Hodgkins
73
What is the function of nipple stimulation postpartum?
prvokes oxytocin release and causes uterine contractions and reduces haemorrhage
74
What are anti-prostaglandins parcticularly useful in the treatment of DUB?
if there is concurrent dysmenorrhea
75
When can delayed puberty be diagnosed in terms of breast development?
if has not commenced by 14
76
In which tissue is glycolyssi the main source of ATP?
erythrocytes
77
Whcih hormones are involved in releasing insluin?
GLP-1; glucogon
78
What are cytochromes?
haem-containing metalloproteins
79
What is the function of cytochromes in the elctron transport chain?
act within enzyme complexes to accept and donate electrons
80
what is axon varicosity?
series of swelllings along the length of an axon from which certain types of neurones can release neurotransmitters
81
Where are M2 receptors found?
cardiac muscle
82
Where are M3 muscles found?
smooth muscle
83
What is seen with hormones in post-menopause?
raised FSH, LH and low oestrogen
84
What are the problems with atenolol in pregnancy?
fetal bradycardia and neonatal apnoea
85
How long should babies born to diabetic mothers be observed in hospital?
24 hours
86
What is the risk to diabetic mothers during breastfeeding?
increased risk of hypoglycaemia
87
What is the stimulus for closure of the umbilical vein?
reduced blood flow
88
What causes contraction of the ductus arteriosus?
raised arterial oxygen tension results in lower PG production
89
What is the stimulus for surfactant poduction?
rise in fetal cortisol levels
90
What is the management of bacteriuria in an asymptomatic pregnant woman?
need 2 urine samples before treating with antibiotics
91
With what antibiotic is additional barriers of contraception with the pill mandatory?
metronidazole- for 4 weeks after discontinuing
92
When is a classic overshoot of plasma glucose to below basal levels in OGTT seen?
in normal individuals as aresult of a pulse of insulin secretion
93
What are the treatments for chorea?
phenothiazines and tetrabenazine
94
What can be used to treat tardive kinesia?
tetrabenazine
95
What chromosome is the Hungtingtons gene found on?
short arm of chromosome 4
96
What is seen pathologically with Huntington's?
loss of GABA and ACh within the corpus stratum; loss of ACE and metenkephalin in the substantia nigra
97
Waht drugs are associated iwth chorea?
neurolpetics; anticonvulsants; alcohol
98
What is the treatment for benign intracranial hypertension?
duiretics; weight loss and stopping the pill
99
What is the level of the transpyloric plane?
L1
100
What feature of kidneys lies in the transpyloric plane?
hila of both kidneys
101
What are teh features of alpha-1-antitrypsyin deficiency?
early-onset COPD and hepatic dysfunction
102
Waht is alpha-1-antitrypsin?
glycoprotein
103
What is the first line diuretic in treating ascites secondary to liver cirrhosis?
spironolactone
104
What is the best measure of the rate a drug is elimintaed fro mthe body?
rate of clearance
105
How can haemolytic disease of the newborn be predicted?
measuring the optical density of hte amniotic fluid - increased bilirubin
106
When can haemolytic disease of hte newborn occur without prior sensitisation?
ABO incompatilbility
107
What contraception improves the quality of breast milk postpartum?
depo-provera infections
108
What common drug should be stopped whilst on clarithromycin?
statin- and for 5 days post treatment
109
What is the cardiac SE of clarithromycin?
prolongs the QT
110
Aside from the leg where else can erythema nodosum appear?
forearm
111
What does an apple core stricture in the colon suggest?
colorectal carcinoma
112
How is colorectal carcinoma staged?
CT chest, abdo and pelvis
113
What is the mechanism of etoposide?
topoisomerase II inhibitor
114
What neurotransmitter is the priamry regulator of REM sleep?
noradrenaline
115
What are the causes of sialolithaisis?
Sjogrens; pleomrphic adenoma; chronic sialadenitis
116
What is the treatment for salivary calculi?
hydration compression and masssage; antibiotcis
117
What artery lies on the infreior aspect of the heart?
posterior interventricular branch
118
What drugs are used to induce multiple ovulations in IVF?
clomiphene citrate; human gonadotrophin and FSH
119
What is th efunction of inhibin?
blocks FSH production
120
Waht drug should not be mixed with allopruinol?
azathioprine
121
What follicular diameter does ovulation usually occur at?
18-35mm
122
What is Reye's syndrome?
fatty necrosis of the liver which can lead to fulminant liver failure and ecepalopathy
123
What are Montgomery tubercles?
sebaceous glands in the areola surrounding the nipple
124
What is the mode of action of trimethoprim?
folate antagonist
125
What is the first line empirical therapy for UTI in pregnancy?
nitrofurantoin
126
What is the investigation for Cushing's?
dexamthasone suppression test
127
What is the difference between Cushing's disease and Cushing's syndrome?
disease: specifically pituitary; syndrome- anything else causing it
128
What is regression?
revert to immature behaviour in the setting of stress
129
When does red degeneration usually occur?
middle trimester of pregnancy
130
What is breakthrough bleeding in younr pill users often assocaited iwth?
PID
131
What effect does chronic alcohol use have on heptic enzymes?
potentiates enzyme action
132
What causes condyloma lata?
cutaneous manifestation of secondary syphilis
133
What type of matter is affected in subacute combined degeneration of the cord?
white amtter
134
Which gender is hodgkins disease more common in?
males
135
What is the bimodal age presentation of hodgkins?
20-30 eyars and over 50s
