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Transition Block > 07/04/18 > Flashcards

07/04/18 Flashcards

1
Q

When is the red flag limit for no vaocalising?

A

3 months

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2
Q

When is the red flag limit for no babbling?

A

10 months

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3
Q

When is the red flag limit for not responding to name?

A

12 months

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4
Q

Which gender often speaks first?

A

girls

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5
Q

What is the commonest cause of convulsions in childhoosd?

A

fever

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6
Q

Which DMARDs cause aplastic anaemia?

A

lefluonamdie and gold

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7
Q

When are target cells seen?

A

liver disease; hyposplenism; thalassaemia and ida

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8
Q

What are the cardiac complications associatedi wth RA?

A

pericarditis; myocarditis; amyloidosis; valvular incompetence

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9
Q

What do rheumatoid nodules at the elbows suggest?

A

positive RF

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10
Q

What are the causes of biulateraly hilar lympahdenopathy?

A

sarcoid; TB; lymphoma; mets; carcinoma

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11
Q

What drug is associated with Dupuytrens?

A

phenytoin and alcohol

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12
Q

Is trochlear innervation ipsilateral or contralateral?

A

contralateral (cross in the midbrain

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13
Q

What are the stymptoms of superior vena cava obstruction?

A

breathlessness; facial swelling; dilated chest wall veins; plethora; early morning HA and oedema of the upper limb

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14
Q

What are the causes of superior vena cava obstruction?

A

lung cancer; Hodgkins lymphoma and thymoma

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15
Q

What drugs are implicated in erythema mulitforme?

A

penicillins; sulphonamides; phenytoin; barbuiturates; carbamazepine

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16
Q

How long does it take erythema multiforme to resolve?

A

3-6 weeks

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17
Q

What are the infectious causes of erythema multiforme?

A

herpes simplex and mycoplasma pneumoniae

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18
Q

What coniditon is assocaited with adenosine deaminase deficiency?

A

SCID

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19
Q

What are the treatments for fibroids which are less than 3cm and no distortion of the uterine cavity?

A

LNG-IUS; trnaexamic acids; COCs; NSAIDs; norethisterone

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20
Q

What is the treatment for fibroids >3cm and heavy menstruation?

A

ulipristal acetate

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21
Q

What are the complications of fibroids in pregnancy?

A

early pregnancy bleeding; PROM; obstructed labour; PPH

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22
Q

Which area of the stomach is gastrin secreted from?

A

antrum

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23
Q

Is the apex of the prostate at the superior or inferior pole?

A

inferior

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24
Q

How are bile salts involved in the activation of lipases in the intestine?

A

optimisation of the pH

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25
Q

Where are bile salts reabsorbed?

A

termianl ileum

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26
Q

What is seen with triple X syndrome?

A

immature behaviour; neuromotor developmental delay and are tall

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27
Q

What is the most common cause of DIC

A

severe sepsis

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28
Q

What is the overall function of the extrapyramidal system?

A

initiation and modulation of movement

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29
Q

What is the leading non-genetic cause of mental retardation?

A

alcohol-related neurodev`elopmental disorer

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30
Q

What helps differentiate monillia (candida) from napkin rash?

A

presence of satellite lesions outside the nappy area suggests monilia

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31
Q

What is Couvelaire uterus?

A

placental abruption causes bleeding that pentrates into the uterine myometrium forcing its way into the peritoneal cavity

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32
Q

What is seen with maternal valproate administration?

A

cleft palate, spina bifida and mild learning impairment

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33
Q

What is seen with trisomy 18?

A

dysplastic heart valaves and oesophageal dysplasia

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34
Q

What is trisomy 13 assoacited iwht?

A

holoprosencephaly and cyclops

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35
Q

What is left shift?

A

immature neutrophils released from marrow

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36
Q

What is right sift?

A

hypermature neutrophils

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37
Q

What nerve supplies latissimus dorsi?

A

thorac-dorsal nerve

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38
Q

Why are patients with Sheehans syndrome very pale?

A

loss of MSH produced by the pituitary gland

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39
Q

Waht is the difference between a barium meal and swallow?

A

barium meal asses the stomach and duodenum whereas barium swallow looks at the oesophagus

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40
Q

What would a pleural effusion with intra-abdominal sepsis suggest?

A

sub-phrenic abscess

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41
Q

Why is prednisolone given with co-trimoxazole for PCP?

A

pneumonitis worsens with tx due to inflammation- given if PO2 <60

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42
Q

What is the distal attachment of tricepts?

A

olecranon of ulna

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43
Q

What is factor V Leiden disease?

A

activated protein C resistance

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44
Q

What is the function of normal factor V?

A

cofactor to allow factor X to generate thrombin

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45
Q

What is the function of activated protein C?

A

limit extent of clotting by cleaving and degrading factor V

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46
Q

What is the inheritance of Factor V Leiden?

A

AD

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47
Q

What is the most likely artery lesion in a pure motor stroke?

A

lacunar infarct- lenticulostriate (internal capsule)

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48
Q

What is syringomyleia?

A

lesion of the spinal cord leading to peripheral neuro symptoms

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49
Q

What is the inheritance of hereditary spherocytosis?

A

AD

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50
Q

Which nucleic acids are purines?

A

adenine and guanine (pure agony)

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51
Q

How can uracil be formed?

A

deamination of cytosin

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52
Q

What does a quick response to treatment with anticonvuslatns suggest?

A

psychogenic non-epileptic seizures

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53
Q

What are tophi?

A

solid deposits of monosodium urate crystals

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54
Q

Where does the oculomotor nucleus lie?

A

midrbain

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55
Q

What would be seen with a midbrain infarct in the eyes?

A

destroys central nucleus- bilateral ptosis because it innervates levator palpebrae bilaterally

56
Q

Whati s the other name for seborrheic keratoses?

A

basal cell papilloma

57
Q

What causes seborrheic keratoses?

A

overgrowth of epidermal keratinocytes

58
Q

What skin lesion is characterised by a network of crypts on the surface?

A

seborrheic keratoses

59
Q

What is the most common organism in acute otitis externa?

A

pseudomonas

60
Q

What is resistant to treatment OE a sign of?

A

cancer

61
Q

What is the treatment for OE?

A

neomycin and colistin/polymyxin ear drops

62
Q

What happens to stored blood over time?

A

becomes acidotic and hyperkalaemia

63
Q

What is the function of LH in males?

A

secretion of testosterone

64
Q

what is the function of FSH in males?

A

generation of spermatozoa

65
Q

What cells in males respond to LH?

A

leydig cells

66
Q

What is difficult about the innervation of flexor pollicis brevis?

A

may be innervated by the median or ulnar nerve

67
Q

What level does the SMA originate from the aorta?

A

L1

68
Q

what is the blood supply of the middle part of the rectum?

A

2 middle rectal arteries arising from the inferior vesical arteries

69
Q

What si the blood supply of hte inferior part of hte rectum?

A

inferior rectal arteries- internal pudendal

70
Q

What is the anastamoses between the SMA and IMA?

A

marginal artery of Drummond

71
Q

When is calcitonin releasewd?

A

in response to hypercalcaemia

72
Q

What type of haematological malignancy is associatedi wht EBV?

A

Hodgkins

73
Q

What is the function of nipple stimulation postpartum?

A

prvokes oxytocin release and causes uterine contractions and reduces haemorrhage

74
Q

What are anti-prostaglandins parcticularly useful in the treatment of DUB?

A

if there is concurrent dysmenorrhea

75
Q

When can delayed puberty be diagnosed in terms of breast development?

A

if has not commenced by 14

76
Q

In which tissue is glycolyssi the main source of ATP?

A

erythrocytes

77
Q

Whcih hormones are involved in releasing insluin?

A

GLP-1; glucogon

78
Q

What are cytochromes?

A

haem-containing metalloproteins

79
Q

What is the function of cytochromes in the elctron transport chain?

A

act within enzyme complexes to accept and donate electrons

80
Q

what is axon varicosity?

A

series of swelllings along the length of an axon from which certain types of neurones can release neurotransmitters

81
Q

Where are M2 receptors found?

A

cardiac muscle

82
Q

Where are M3 muscles found?

A

smooth muscle

83
Q

What is seen with hormones in post-menopause?

A

raised FSH, LH and low oestrogen

84
Q

What are the problems with atenolol in pregnancy?

A

fetal bradycardia and neonatal apnoea

85
Q

How long should babies born to diabetic mothers be observed in hospital?

A

24 hours

86
Q

What is the risk to diabetic mothers during breastfeeding?

A

increased risk of hypoglycaemia

87
Q

What is the stimulus for closure of the umbilical vein?

A

reduced blood flow

88
Q

What causes contraction of the ductus arteriosus?

A

raised arterial oxygen tension results in lower PG production

89
Q

What is the stimulus for surfactant poduction?

A

rise in fetal cortisol levels

90
Q

What is the management of bacteriuria in an asymptomatic pregnant woman?

A

need 2 urine samples before treating with antibiotics

91
Q

With what antibiotic is additional barriers of contraception with the pill mandatory?

A

metronidazole- for 4 weeks after discontinuing

92
Q

When is a classic overshoot of plasma glucose to below basal levels in OGTT seen?

A

in normal individuals as aresult of a pulse of insulin secretion

93
Q

What are the treatments for chorea?

A

phenothiazines and tetrabenazine

94
Q

What can be used to treat tardive kinesia?

A

tetrabenazine

95
Q

What chromosome is the Hungtingtons gene found on?

A

short arm of chromosome 4

96
Q

What is seen pathologically with Huntington’s?

A

loss of GABA and ACh within the corpus stratum; loss of ACE and metenkephalin in the substantia nigra

97
Q

Waht drugs are associated iwth chorea?

A

neurolpetics; anticonvulsants; alcohol

98
Q

What is the treatment for benign intracranial hypertension?

A

duiretics; weight loss and stopping the pill

99
Q

What is the level of the transpyloric plane?

A

L1

100
Q

What feature of kidneys lies in the transpyloric plane?

A

hila of both kidneys

101
Q

What are teh features of alpha-1-antitrypsyin deficiency?

A

early-onset COPD and hepatic dysfunction

102
Q

Waht is alpha-1-antitrypsin?

A

glycoprotein

103
Q

What is the first line diuretic in treating ascites secondary to liver cirrhosis?

A

spironolactone

104
Q

What is the best measure of the rate a drug is elimintaed fro mthe body?

A

rate of clearance

105
Q

How can haemolytic disease of the newborn be predicted?

A

measuring the optical density of hte amniotic fluid - increased bilirubin

106
Q

When can haemolytic disease of hte newborn occur without prior sensitisation?

A

ABO incompatilbility

107
Q

What contraception improves the quality of breast milk postpartum?

A

depo-provera infections

108
Q

What common drug should be stopped whilst on clarithromycin?

A

statin- and for 5 days post treatment

109
Q

What is the cardiac SE of clarithromycin?

A

prolongs the QT

110
Q

Aside from the leg where else can erythema nodosum appear?

A

forearm

111
Q

What does an apple core stricture in the colon suggest?

A

colorectal carcinoma

112
Q

How is colorectal carcinoma staged?

A

CT chest, abdo and pelvis

113
Q

What is the mechanism of etoposide?

A

topoisomerase II inhibitor

114
Q

What neurotransmitter is the priamry regulator of REM sleep?

A

noradrenaline

115
Q

What are the causes of sialolithaisis?

A

Sjogrens; pleomrphic adenoma; chronic sialadenitis

116
Q

What is the treatment for salivary calculi?

A

hydration compression and masssage; antibiotcis

117
Q

What artery lies on the infreior aspect of the heart?

A

posterior interventricular branch

118
Q

What drugs are used to induce multiple ovulations in IVF?

A

clomiphene citrate; human gonadotrophin and FSH

119
Q

What is th efunction of inhibin?

A

blocks FSH production

120
Q

Waht drug should not be mixed with allopruinol?

A

azathioprine

121
Q

What follicular diameter does ovulation usually occur at?

A

18-35mm

122
Q

What is Reye’s syndrome?

A

fatty necrosis of the liver which can lead to fulminant liver failure and ecepalopathy

123
Q

What are Montgomery tubercles?

A

sebaceous glands in the areola surrounding the nipple

124
Q

What is the mode of action of trimethoprim?

A

folate antagonist

125
Q

What is the first line empirical therapy for UTI in pregnancy?

A

nitrofurantoin

126
Q

What is the investigation for Cushing’s?

A

dexamthasone suppression test

127
Q

What is the difference between Cushing’s disease and Cushing’s syndrome?

A

disease: specifically pituitary; syndrome- anything else causing it

128
Q

What is regression?

A

revert to immature behaviour in the setting of stress

129
Q

When does red degeneration usually occur?

A

middle trimester of pregnancy

130
Q

What is breakthrough bleeding in younr pill users often assocaited iwth?

A

PID

131
Q

What effect does chronic alcohol use have on heptic enzymes?

A

potentiates enzyme action

132
Q

What causes condyloma lata?

A

cutaneous manifestation of secondary syphilis

133
Q

What type of matter is affected in subacute combined degeneration of the cord?

A

white amtter

134
Q

Which gender is hodgkins disease more common in?

A

males

135
Q

What is the bimodal age presentation of hodgkins?

A

20-30 eyars and over 50s

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