09/04/18 Flashcards

1
Q

How should respiratory function be monitored in patients with Guillain Barre syndrome?

A

regular spirometry

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2
Q

What is the landmark for L3/4?

A

line draw across the superior aspect of hte posterior iliac crests

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3
Q

What space is reached in an LP?

A

subarachnoid apce

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4
Q

What types of vasculitis can cause eosinophilia?

A

espeically Churg-Strauss syndrome but any vasculitis e.g RA

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5
Q

What is hemiparesis in migraine caused by?

A

vasoconstrictive ischaemia

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6
Q

Waht is the MOA of sumatriptan?

A

5HT1 agonst- receptor present in cranial and basilar arteries

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7
Q

Waht position do children with epiglotits typically sit in?

A

tripod position

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8
Q

what age is epiglotitis most common in?

A

children aged 2-3 years

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9
Q

Can PCOS be diagnosed in a psotmenopasual woman?

A

No

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10
Q

What is seen in ovarian stromal hyperthecosis?

A

hyperplasia of the ovarian stroma and clusters of luteinising cells distributed throughout the ovarian stroma

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11
Q

What is seen on hormones with ovarian stromal hyperthecosis?

A

increased androstenedione and testosterone secretion

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12
Q

What is the action of cyclizine?

A

H1 receptor antagonist

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13
Q

What is the action of ondansetron?

A

5-HT3 receptor antagonist

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14
Q

Waht is a partial seizure evolving to generalised called?

A

secondary partial

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15
Q

What are the side effects of valproate ?

A
Vomiting
Alopecia
Liver toxicity
Pancreatitis and pancytopenia
Retained fat
Oedema
Appetitie
Tremor/teratogenic
Enzyme inhibitor
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16
Q

What are the carbamzepine side effects?

A

HA
Ataxia
Rash
Dizziness

Sexual dysfunction
Aanaemia,agranulocytosis
Nausea
Diplopia

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17
Q

How long are total cholesterol levels falsly lowered for after an MI?

A

24 hours to 6 weeks

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18
Q

What is augmentin?

A

co-amoxiclav

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19
Q

What type of antibiotic cover is needed for abdominal hysterectomy?

A

broad-spectrum e.g co-amox

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20
Q

Which artery is hte most common cause of GI bleeding from peptic ulcer disease?

A

gastroduodenal artery

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21
Q

what is the gastroduodenal artery a branch of?

A

common hepatic artery

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22
Q

Where does the gastroduodenal artery run?

A

psoteiror to hte first part of hte duodenum

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23
Q

why is liver implicated in problems with warfarin?

A

rich natural source of vitamin K- reduces INR

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24
Q

What happens to the platelet count in splenic dysfunction

A

high

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25
Q

What is the significance of median raphe nucleus?

A

centre for serotonin containing cell bodies

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26
Q

What is found in teh locus caerulus?

A

adrenergic cell bodies

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27
Q

What is the function of plasmin?

A

degradatino of fibrin and fibrinogen

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28
Q

What immunodeficiency is assocaited iwth aggressive aspergillus infections?

A

CGD

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29
Q

Waht type of infection is hyper-IgE syndrome assocaited iwth?

A

S. aureus

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30
Q

What is the mnemonic for hyper-IgE syndrome?

A
F-coarse facies
Abscesses(staph)
Teeth- retained primary
E-increased IgE
Dermatological problems - severe eczema
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31
Q

What gestation does the uterus reach the umbilicus?

A

week 20

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32
Q

What should be excluded first in an old patient with back pain; abdo pain and anaemia?

A

AAA

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33
Q

What does turtling of the babies head indicate?

A

shoulder dystocia

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34
Q

What is the liekly diagnosis in a mother in shock and can;t feel the uterine fundus?

A

uterine inversion

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35
Q

What are satellite cells in muscle?

A

stem cells for regeneration of traumatised SK muscle tissue

36
Q

What disease are anti-microsomal antibodies associated with?

A

Grave;s

37
Q

What complement pathway is the hydrolysis of C3 the activation step?

A

alternative pathway

38
Q

What CCB is used in the treament of SAH?

A

nimodipine

39
Q

Why are fT3 levels no value in the diagnosis of hypothyroidism?

A

increaed T4 to T3 conversion can maintian fT3 levels

40
Q

what tumour markers are used in medullary thyroid cancer?

A

CEA and calcitonin

41
Q

What is hte major presenting symptosm in medullary thyroid carcinoma?

A

diarrhoea and flushing

42
Q

Why is Addison’s a cause of preamture menopause?

A

steroid cell autoantibodies cross react iwth theca interna/granulosa layers of the ovary

43
Q

What is the risk of uterine perforation with an IUD?

A

1 in 1000

44
Q

What is the nervous innervation to supraspinous and infraspinatus?

A

suprascpular nerve

45
Q

When would pre-eclampsia be more common in a multigravidae?

A

changed partner or had pre-edlampsia in a prevp regnancy

46
Q

What are the cardiac problems in myotonic dystorphy?

A

cardiac conduction abnormalities and/or cardiomyopathy

47
Q

What is a pimrary delusion?

A

arises out of blue without any precedetn

48
Q

What is folie a deux?

A

two people are very close and share a delusion

49
Q

What are the treatments for beta-blocker overdose?

A

glucagon and cardiac pacing

50
Q

Where is a cystic hygroma found?

A

posterior triangle of hte neck

51
Q

What investigations are used to look at a patients alcohol intake?

A

MCV; LFTs and gamma GT

52
Q

How does phenytoin toxicity present?

A

cerebellar syndrome

53
Q

What bone diseases are associated iwth popcorn or cotton wool calcification?

A

chondrosarcoma and PAgets

54
Q

Which diuretics can cause hyperglycaemia?

A

thiazides

55
Q

What is the treatebt for methaemoglobinaemia?

A

methylene blue

56
Q

What is membrane sweeping?

A

exmining finger passing through the cervix to rotate against the wall of the uterus to separate the chorionic memrbaen from the decidua or amssing cervix aroudn fornices

57
Q

What Bishops score indicates the cervix is favourable?

A

> 8

58
Q

Who should be offered memrbaen sweeping?

A

prior to formal induction of labour

59
Q

What is the preferred method of induction of labour?

A

vaginal PGE2

60
Q

What are the options for PGE2?

A

pessary- one dose over 24 hours; tablets or gel- have upto 2 doses 6 hours apart

61
Q

Whati s the risk with PGE2?

A

uterine hyperstimulation

62
Q

What patients can have misoprostol to induce labout?

A

IUD

63
Q

What should be done before induction of labour?

A

Bishops score and normal fetal HR pattern

64
Q

When is membrane sweep offered?

A

at 40 and 41 week checks for nulliparous and 41 week chekc for mulitparous

65
Q

Which ribs does the breast sit on?

A

2nd-6th ribs

66
Q

Whati s a clue cell?

A

epithelial cell covered in gardenerellla

67
Q

What are the crystals in gout?

A

negative birefrignence

68
Q

What disease are Aschoff bodies found in?

A

Rheumatic fever- muscle

69
Q

When are Curschmann spirals seen?

A

sputum of asthmatic patients

70
Q

When are Call-exner bodies seen?

A

granulosa cell tumours

71
Q

What is breslow thickness

A

from granulosa cell layer to deepest tumour cell

72
Q

What is the appearance histologicall in phyllodes tumour?

A

leaf like

73
Q

Whati s the guidance for 2 or more pills missed generally?

A

take most recent pill ASAP; condoms for next week

74
Q

What is the guidance for 2 or more pills missed in the first week?

A

EC should be considered if unprotected sex occurred in the pill-free interval or first week of pill-taking

75
Q

What is the guidance for pille missed in the second week?

A

no need for EC if in preceding 7 days, pills have been taken correctly)

76
Q

What is the guidance for pills missed in the third week?

A

omit the pill-free interval

77
Q

What is the lifetime prevalence of an episode of SZ?

A

1%

78
Q

What drug increases the plasma levels of therophylline and can cause cardiac arrhythmias?

A

cipro

79
Q

What conditions are myeloblasts seen in?

A

myeloid leukaemia; leucoerythroblastic syndromes and myelodysplasia

80
Q

What age group gets acute myeloblastic leukaemia?

A

elderly

81
Q

What is diagnostic on peripheral film of AML?

A

auer rods in circulating myeloblasts

82
Q

Why would there be an isolated alk phos in pregnancy?

A

produced by the placenta

83
Q

What conditions are associated iwth HLA-DR3?

A

coeliac disease; SLE; sjogrens; myasthenia gravis

84
Q

What are prions?

A

proteinaceous beta sheets

85
Q

Who is continuous HRT suitable for?

A

post-menopausal

86
Q

Who is suitable for sequential HRT?

A

perimenopausal

87
Q

does the iliac crest form part of the pelvic inlet?

A

no