Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Transition Block > 11/04/18 > Flashcards

11/04/18 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the diagnosis with a non-painful flexion contracture which isn’t correctable?

A

Dupuytren’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is seen with flexor tendinitis?

A

pain and clicking or trigger signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is proliferative diabetic retinopathy characterised by?

A

growth or proliferation of new vessels at the discs or elsewhere at the retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What age typically gets bronchiolitis?

A

<2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What infectious diarrhoea are patients on PPIs more at risk of?

A

C.diff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What causes a neurogenic pruritis?

A

effect on CNS receptors e.g renal, liver fialure, thyroid disease or assocaited with malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the mechanism of pruritis in shingles?

A

neuropathic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the mechanism of pruritis in insect bites and eczema?

A

pruritoceptive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What intracompartmental pressure is diagnostic of compartment syndrome

A

> 30mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Waht is the most reliable symptom of compartment syndrome?

A

pain out of proportion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the treatment for bronchiolitis?

A

admit, supportive therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is heard on the chest with bronchiolitis?

A

good air entry with widely scattered high pitch ronchi and fine creps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is Charcot arthropathy also known as?

A

neuropathic arthropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Who gets Charcot arthropathy?

A

diabetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What colour of vomit in children is always abnormal?

A

bile coloured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is first line ix for bile coloured vomit?

A

plain abdo xray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is suggested by a 2 day infant with non-projectile green vomiting?

A

volvulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is average age of pyloric stenosis?

A

2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the investigation for pyloric stenosis?

A

ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is suggested by small, effortless vomiting after every feed, with a well baby?

A

GORD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is seen histologically with dermatitis herpetiformis?

A

granular IgA at dermal papillae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is seen with linear IgA disease?

A

linear IgA and basemenet membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is diagnostic test for gout?

A

negatively birefringent urate crystals on polarising exam of synovial fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What drugs are associated with urticarial eruptions?

A

codeine; aspirin; ACEi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What drugs are assocaited with photosensitivity?

A

doxycyline; bendroflumethiazide and some NSAIDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the best imaging for the paranasal sinuses?

A

CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What HPV protein target p53?

A

E6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What happens in wet macular degeneration?

A

neovascularisation causes haemorrhage with eventual sccarring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What may precede haemorrhage in we macular degeneration?

A

distortion of vision due to swellling at the macula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Are glass foreign bodies normall visible on xray?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which pathway is responsible for ketone development in insulin depletion?

A

lipolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the most biologically active form of thyroid hormone?

A

T3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is the main transporter of thyroxine in the plasma?

A

thyroxine binding globulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the cause of a DM vomiting after large meals?

A

gastroparesis- autonomic neuropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Where are hemi-desmosomes found?

A

DEJ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Why is there a decrease in circulating blood volume in sepsis?

A

endotoxins causing vasodilatation and intravascular fluid leaking into adjacent tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is disorganised attachemnt?

A

child appears stressed, exhibiting tension movemetns, activated by departure and return of caregiver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is ambivalent?

A

child will typically explore little and is often wary of strangers even when parent is present, when mother departs of reunite child is highly distressed or uncertain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

For respiratory distress in an infant which is acute what is the most likely diagnosis?

A

croup- epiglottitis has longer prodromal symptoms than a few hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How does the ICA enter/exit the skull?

A

foramen lacerum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How does the middle meningeal artery enter/ exit the skull?

A

spinosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How does the facial nerve enter/exit the skll

A

stylomastoid foramen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are hte crystals in pseudogout?

A

calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

When does dislocation as a complication of a hip replacement usually occur?

A

early (can be late)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the first line genetic test for chromosomal imbalance?

A

array CGH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What type of hand washing should be done before inserting an IV cannula?

A

soap and water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is presbyopia?

A

defect of vision where there is difficulty focussing on near objects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is assocaited with highly virulent strains of S.aureus causing necrotising fasciits?

A

PVL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

A bone with a tuberosity and a malleolus?

A

tibia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Flat bone with an attachemnt for abdo wall muscles and forms part of the acetabulum?

A

ilium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Bone which has a proximal head, tuberosity for biceps tendon and sulci for several tendons on distal dorsal aspect

A

radius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Where is the biceps distal attachemtn?

A

radial tuberosity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is hyphaema?

A

bleeding into the anterior chamber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what does hyphaema indicate?

A

a significant injury that has damaged ocular structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Why does increased ACTH cause increased MSH?

A

come from same pro-hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the energy source for 4 seconds?

A

ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the main energy source for 15 second?

A

phophocreatinine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the main energy source for 4 minutes?

A

free circulating glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the main energy source ofr 77 mins?

A

glycogen stores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the main energy source for 4 days?

A

fat stores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What parts of the colon are intraperitonieal?

A

caecum; transverse and sigmoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the active contractile phase of Dupuytrens?

A

second stage which starts with development of nodules and continues with the appearance of myofibroblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What type of lens do myopic eyes need?

A

concave- to diverge the rays

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What cells make up the periphery of follicles?

A

follicular cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What virus causes oropharyngela tumours in the young?

A

HPV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the treatment for anteiror shoulder dislocation?

A

closed reduction; application of sling and movilisation after 4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is scirrhous carcinoma?

A

subtype of ductal carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

How does scirrhous carcinoma present?

A

hard lump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is significant about scirrhous tumours in elderly?

A

slow growing and slow to metastasise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What happens when alpha-1 receptors are stimulated?

A

vasconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What Tourette’s syndrome?

A

multiple motor tics and one or more vocal tics - dont need to occur concurrently

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

which type of tic usually develops first in Tourette’s?

A

motor tics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

When is the typical onset of Tourette’s?

A

childhood and adolesence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is conduct disorder?

A

persistent and repeitits pattern of behaviour that violates the basic rights of otehrs or goes against age-developmental norms

75
Q

what is childhood onset conduct disorder linked to?

A

ADHD

76
Q

When can antisocial personality disorder be diagnosed?

A

when patient reaches age 18 and has disotry of conduct disorder

77
Q

What forms the right heart border of the CXR?

A

SVC; RA and IVC

78
Q

Where does the normal RV lie in the heart?

A

anteriorly

79
Q

What is the most posteiror structure in the heart?

A

LA

80
Q

What is see with the central and peripheral pulmonary arteries in pulmonary hypertension?

A

central- enalrged but peripheral pruning

81
Q

How is amyloid related to medullary carcinoma of the thyroid?

A

local production of amyloid- preicipated clacintonin

82
Q

Where is the genetic defect associated with medullary thyroid cancer?

A

10

83
Q

What is the shape of parafollicular cells?

A

polygonal cells

84
Q

What is the effect of amiodarone on liver enzymes?

A

inhibitor

85
Q

What does tqachycardia; increased RR and right axis deviation on ECG suggest?

A

PE

86
Q

What is often the presentation of testicular tumours?

A

following minor trauma and some discofort

87
Q

Why should testicular tumours never be biopsied?

A

may seed tumour to scrotal skin

88
Q

What is trachelectomy?

A

removal of uterine cervix

89
Q

What is the inheritance of leber hereidatry optic neuropathy?

A

mitochondrial

90
Q

What is the inheritance of duchennes?

A

x-inked recessive

91
Q

What is the inheritance of vitamin-D resistance rickets?

A

x-linked dominant

92
Q

Which chormosome is CF gene on?

A

7

93
Q

What are typical antipsychotics mostly derived from>

A

phenothiazines

94
Q

which patietns are at a higher risk of SJS?

A

HIV postive

95
Q

What is the prodromal phase of SJS?

A

fever; cough and sore throat

96
Q

What other vein does the left renal vein receive?

A

left adrenal vein and left gonadal vein

97
Q

What 2 veins create the portal vein?

A

splenic vein and SMV

98
Q

Where does the IMV drain?

A

splenic vein

99
Q

What are the signs of an acute cavernous sinus thrombosis?

A

retro-orbital pain; ophthalmolplegia; loss of sensation over the ophthalmic divions of the trigeminal nerve

100
Q

How does a carotid cavernous fistula present?

A

acutely painful visual loss; proptosis, conjunctival injection and a firm, tender and pulsatile eyeball

101
Q

What is the malignant form of Guillain-barre syndrome linked to?

A

HIV

102
Q

How is familial hypercholesterolamia inherited?

A

AD

103
Q

What is the most common issue in familial hypercholesterolaemia?

A

LDL receptor

104
Q

What is the amino acid cahnge in sickle cell anaemia?

A

glutamic acid to valine

105
Q

What is type 2 HS?

A

antibodies are directed against antigens on the surface of cells or other tissue compoenets

106
Q

What happens in type III HS?

A

excess of antigen leading to immune complexes which fix complemetn

107
Q

What type of HS is post-strep glomerulonephritis

A

HS III

108
Q

Where is the compartment syndrome if pain is maximal on testing the tibial nerve?

A

anterior compartment

109
Q

How is diagnosis of trichomoniasis made?

A

wet saline mount or after 48 hours of anaerobic culture

110
Q

What does a high RDW mean?

A

large variation in the size of RBCs

111
Q

What is a lrge variation in the size of RBCs called?

A

anizocytosis

112
Q

Why might MCV be normal with anisocytosis?

A

mixture of large and small RBCs

113
Q

When might anisocytosis occur?

A

haemolytic anaemia; IDA; after blood transufusion and in malabsorption syndromes

114
Q

What is the function of inhibin?

A

inhibits FSH

115
Q

Which cells produce inhibin?

A

Sertoli cells

116
Q

What can failure of testosterone production in the first trimester of gestation result in?

A

pseudohermaphoditism

117
Q

What is pseudohermaphroditism?

A

gonads are consistent with chromosomal sex but has genitalia of the opposite sex

118
Q

What is an example of pseudohermaphroditism?

A

androgen insensitivity syndrome

119
Q

Who gets fungal meninigtis ?

A

immunocompromised patients

120
Q

What is the most common gynae problem pre-pubertally?

A

vulvovaginitis

121
Q

What is CD40?

A

co-stimulatory protein found on APCs required for their activation

122
Q

How is vitamin B12 administered?

A

IM

123
Q

What is syringomyelia?

A

cyst forms in spinal cord which compresses and damaged spinal cord from centre outwards

124
Q

What is the most common complciation of untreated subdural?

A

recurrent heamorrhgae

125
Q

What is cerebellar speech like?

A

slurred or staccato in nature

126
Q

What is the cause of pseudohypoparathyroidism?

A

target cell failure to respond to PTH appropriately

127
Q

What antibody is assocaited with neonatal heart block?

A

anti-ro

128
Q

What do babies born to mothers with Anti-ro have?

A

neonatal SLE wtih permanaent heart block

129
Q

What antibodies are positive with drug-induced lupus?

A

ana but not dsDNA- homogenous staining of ANA

130
Q

What type of staining is seen with CREST syndrome?

A

centromere staining pattern of antinuclear antibodies

131
Q

Where is a branchial cyst typically found?

A

near angle of mandible

132
Q

What does mosaic Down’s syndrome result from?

A

abnormal cell division after fertilisation

133
Q

what do echogenic foci in an ovarian cyst mean?

A

always pathological

134
Q

Why is the bCG vaccine CI in HIV?

A

HIV eliminates the protective quality of BCG against TB

135
Q

What is the most common fetal anomaly?

A

cardiac problems

136
Q

What is the acute medical treatment for cluster headache?

A

100% oxygen and sumatriptan

137
Q

What fissure separates the right middle lobe from the right lower lobe?

A

oblique fissure

138
Q

What is the level of the horizontal fissure?

A

4th costal cartilage

139
Q

What is the best surface alndmark for the boundary between right middle and lower lobes?

A

6th rib

140
Q

What is craniosynostosis?

A

preamture fusion of the coronoal suture

141
Q

What are nucleated RBCs known as?

A

normoblasts

142
Q

What is unique about NK cells?

A

recognised cells in the absence of MHC molecules

143
Q

What happens to the aortic arch during pregnnacy?

A

unfolds

144
Q

What type of tissue is used in a deep inferior epigastric perforator flap reconstruction?

A

fat, skin and blood vessels

145
Q

What is the most common type of primary lung cnacer?

A

adenocarinoma

146
Q

What type of lung cancer is most likely to cavitate?

A

SCC

147
Q

Why is an upper abdo CT required for staging of lung cancer?

A

liver and adrenal mets are common

148
Q

What condition are periungal fibromas seen in?

A

tuberous sclerosis

149
Q

What can cause obstructing hydrocephalus?

A

tumours of the posterior fossa; SAH; tuberculous meningitis; colloid cyst of third ventricle

150
Q

What is lochia?

A

vaginal discharge after giving birth containing blood; mucus and uterine tissue

151
Q

What is the type of hypersensitivity in extrinsic allergic alveolitis?

A

type III

152
Q

What is the most common SE of verapamil?

A

constipation

153
Q

Whati s the effect on the AP with class III anti-arrhythmics?

A

prolong

154
Q

What is an Argyll-Robertson pupil?

A

small, irregular pupil in which the accomodation reflex is rpesent but the light reflex is lost

155
Q

What is osteonecrosis a SE of?

A

bisphisphonate therapy

156
Q

What is found at the cerebellopontine angle?

A

cerebellar tracts; Vth; VIIth and VIIIth

157
Q

What differentiates anaemia of chronic disease and IDA?

A

increased ferritin level and decreased TIBC

158
Q

What causes anaemia of chronic disease?

A

poor use of iron in erythropoeisis; cytokein-induced shortening of RBC survival and decreased production or and response to erythropoietin

159
Q

What does the heart produce under stretched conditions?

A

B-type natruiretic peptide

160
Q

Why is subcut absorption slower than IM?

A

blood perfusion is poor

161
Q

How does C1 initiate the classical pathway of complemetn activation?

A

binds to the Fc portion of 2 adjacent IgG molecules

162
Q

What happens to the CSF pressure in bacetrial vs viral meningitis?

A

bacteria- raised; viral- normal

163
Q

What is the rate of new mutation with Huntington’s ?

A

very rare

164
Q

What is opisthotonos

A

spasm of muscles causing backward arching of the head, neck and spine

165
Q

What is the most common inheritance of nephrogenic DI?

A

X-linked recessive

166
Q

What is splitting?

A

only able to see people as all good or all abd

167
Q

What produced by gram-negative organisms plays a key role in the induction of the monocyte-macrophage system?

A

lipopolysaccharide

168
Q

What is the function of lipoproetin lipase?

A

hydrolyses chylomicrons and VLDLs

169
Q

Waht type of AIHA does SLE typically cause?

A

warm AIHA

170
Q

What is dysfunctional uterine bleeding defined as?

A

abnormal bleeding from the uterus in the absence of tumour; foreign body or inglammation

171
Q

Who is DUB more common in ?

A

obese and diabetic women due to anovulation

172
Q

When does the first trimester end?

A

12 weeks

173
Q

When does the 2nd trimester end?

A

27 weeks

174
Q

When should women with a risk factor GDM be offered an OGTT?

A

24-28 weeks

175
Q

What is the priamry regulator of REM sleep?

A

NA

176
Q

Where is the acrosome derived from?

A

golgi apparatus

177
Q

What are the actions of the copper IUD?

A

creates hostile environment and inhibits capacitation

178
Q

What is the function of centrioles in the sperm?

A

contribute to hte flagellum or tail of the sperm

179
Q

What disease can impair the function of the centrioles in the sperm?

A

Kartageners

180
Q

What lobe is dyscalculia associated iwth?

A

parietal

181
Q

What are the nerve roots fo the superior gluteal nerve?

A

L4,5 S1

182
Q

What are the nerve roots for the inferior gluteal nerve?

A

L5, S1,2

183
Q

What are primitive reflexes in dementia a sign of?

A

frontal lobe

Transition Block (35 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions