08/04/18 Flashcards

1
Q

What is gold standard investigation of PMB?

A

hysteroscopy and D&C

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2
Q

What is the antibiotic of choice against Group A strep?

A

penicillin

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3
Q

Give an example of a GAS?

A

strep. pyogenes

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4
Q

How long should you wait before reintroduction of tablets after NMS?

A

2 weeks

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5
Q

How long should you wait before reintroduction for depot injection forms?

A

6 weeks

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6
Q

Waht type of urine does carbonic anhydrase inhibitors create?

A

alkaline urine- rick in HCO3

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7
Q

What is the function of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors?

A

inhibits bicarb resorption in the proximal convoluted tubule

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8
Q

What is the MOA of colchicine?

A

inhibbts monosodium urate-induced activation of neutrophils- inihibts polymerisation of beta tubulin

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9
Q

What is Cheynes-Stokes respiration?

A

periods of apnoea alternating with a series of incresing then decreasing amplitude

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10
Q

What usually causes Cheyne-Stokes repiration?

A

bran stem compression wtih increased ICP

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11
Q

When does secondary syphilis typically develop following the chancre?

A

6- 8 weeks

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12
Q

What are complications of CCBs?

A

cutaneous flushing; increased HA and fluid retension

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13
Q

What is seen with the muscles in furosemide treatment?

A

muscle cramps

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14
Q

What is the triad seen in Menieres disease?

A

episodic vertigo; tinnitus and hearing loss

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15
Q

What is the investigation for BBPV?

A

Hallpikes test

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16
Q

what is the treatment for BPPV?

A

Epley manouevre

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17
Q

What are complications of acute lithium poisoning?

A

diarrhoea; hypokalaemia and hypotension; nystagmus; cardiac arrthmyias

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18
Q

What is neurosis?

A

inappropriate emotional or behavioural reponse to a perceived stressor

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19
Q

what happens to the toal iron binding capacity in iron deficiency?

A

riased

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20
Q

What genes has essential thrombocytosis assocaited iwth?

A

JAK2; calreticulin and myeloproliferative leukaemia virus oncogene

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21
Q

What is the first line treatment in essential thrombocytosis?

A

hydroxyurea

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22
Q

What is the MOA of hydroxyurea?

A

inhibts an enzyme involved in DNA synthesis

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23
Q

What coniditions are associated with JAK2 mutation?

A

Crohn disease; essetnial thrombocythaemia; polycythaemia vera; primary myelofibrosis

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24
Q

What is ECT used for?

A

severe depression; catatonia; prolonged/severe mania

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25
Which antibiotics are associated with aplastic anaemia?
chloramphenicol; penicillin; cephalosporins and sulfonamides
26
What is seen on gram stain with chlaymida?
hard to stain but classed as gram negative
27
What is StLouis encephalitis?
viral encephalitis transmitted by mosquitoes
28
What gene is mutated in MEN2b?
RET proto-oncogene
29
What indicates a good prognosis in SZ with affetive and catatonic symmptoms?
affective- prominent and presence of catatonic symptoms are good
30
What is the investigation of choice for Wilsons?
24 hours urine collection to quantify copper excretion
31
What is the RBC defect in paroxysmal nocturnal haemolginuria?
phosphatidylinositol glycan A
32
What is found in the fluid of branchial cysts?
fluid with characteristic birefringent cholesterol crystals
33
What is the most likley cause of intermenstrual bleeding in patient on combined-HRT?
endometrial polyp
34
What is the most common antibody in Sjogren's?
RF
35
What antibody is seen in many chronic liver diseases?
smooth muscle sntibody
36
What other cells are often elevated in polycythaemia vera?
WBCs and platelts
37
What is polycythaemia with reduced plasma volume?
stress/relative polycythaemia
38
What variants of haemoglobin may cause polycythaemia?
high affinity
39
What type of biopsy should be done for pelomorphic adenoma?
excision biopsy
40
What overdose is associated with tinnitus and hyperventilation?
salicylate overdose
41
What are the causes of a painless ulcer?
syphilis and lymphogranuloma venereum
42
What is the vertebral level of the subcostal plane?
L2
43
What is the lifespan of sickle cell RBCs?
10-20 days
44
What type of lesions in MS have a poor prognosis?
motor involvement or coordination problems
45
What is the blood supply of the upper parts of hte nose?
ICA via the ethmoidal arteries
46
what is the blood supply of the lower partsof the nose?
external carotid via the greater palatine, sphnopalatine and superior labial arteries
47
Why should antibiotic cover be given with posterior packing?
risk of eustachain tube infection
48
when would oral anitibiotcs with otitis externa be indicated?
cellulitis extending beyond the external ear canal; when ear canal is occluded; DM or compromised immunity
49
What is the self-care advice for otitis externa?
avoid damage to external ear canal; keep ears clean and dry
50
How long should people with acute otitis externa avoid water sports?
7-10 days
51
What is self-care advice for epistaxis?
avoid for 24 hours: blowing or picking nose; heavy lifting; strenuous exercise; lying flat or drinking alcohol or hot drinks
52
What is a carneous mole?
organising or organised mole usually from a missed abortion
53
What ages is a hydatiform mole commoner in?
below 20 and above 40
54
Where are lesions in cerebral toxoplasmosis most commonly found?
basal ganglia
55
what is the treatment for cerebral toxoplasmosis?
pyrmiethamine and sulphadiazine
56
What is the treatment for intestinal cyclosporiasis?
cotrimoxazole
57
What si teh treatment for cryptococcal meningitis?
amphotericin B and fluctosine
58
What is the treatment for babesia microti parasitaemia?
clindamycin and quinine
59
What are the CNS side effects of donepezil?
hallucination; agitation; seizures and insomnia
60
What is teh treatment for heparin overdose?
protamine
61
When would Roberstonian translocations cause miscarriage?
first trimester
62
What is a stomatocyte?
RBC with central slit
63
Whati s a personality disorder?
exaggeration of personality tratis which lead to suffering by the individual or others
64
When is dementia pre-senile?
before age 65
65
What is identification?
unconscious adoption of hte charactersitic or activaities of another person
66
What is required with a forceps delivery?
episiotomy
67
What should be performed as babies head is crowning with fetal distress?
episiotomy
68
What is first lien for shoulder dystocia?
McRoberts manouevre
69
Why is gestation often prolonged in an anencephalic pregnancies?
pituitar-adrenal axis is poorly formed
70
What is Tietze syndrome?
costochondritis
71
Waht other structure in the trigeminal nerve close to?
middle cerebellar peduncle
72
What is the only CN to emerge from teh psoterior aspect of hte brainstem?
trochlear
73
What nerve supplies the angle of the mandible?
greater auricular nerve
74
What hormone is produced by the theca?
androstenedione
75
Waht granulomas do allopurinol and sulphonamdies cause?
hepatic granulomas
76
What blood cells are stored in the spleen?
monocytes; platelets
77
What receptor is involved in constipation in opioids?
u
78
What happens to the oxy-haemoglobin curve in chronic iron deficiency anaemia?
right shift
79
Whati s the most common cause of stroke?
emboli
80
What nerve supplies the external anal sphincter?
inferior rectal branch of the pudendal nerve
81
What is the differential diagnosis with neuro signs and abdo pain?
intermitten porphyria or lead poisoning
82
Is abdominal pain typical of hyperemeesis gravidarum?
no
83
What nerve is closely related tot the middle meningeal artery?
auroculotemporal nerve
84
What is the auroculotempral nerve a branch of?
mandibular nerve
85
What is a ketogenic diet?
high fat and low carb
86
what condition can a ketogenic diet be useful in the treatment of?
control of epiletpci seziures in children
87
What nerve is reponsible for the cremasteric reflex?
genitofemoral nerve
88
what receptors are found on theca cells ?
LH
89
What is often the cause of early onset Alzhemiers in Downs patietns ?
APP- located on chromosome 21
90
What are the common triggers of migraine?
``` Chocolate Hangovers Orgasms Cheese OCPs lie-ins alcohol travel exercise ```
91
Which type of autoimmune haemolysis causes intravascaulr haemolysis?
cold IgM
92
Where are fibroids causing difficulty conceiving likely to be located?
submucosal
93
What effect does phenytoin have on folate?
anti-folate- macrocytic anaemia
94
Which area of the brain is concerned with thermoregulation?
hypothalamus
95
What is the gold standard in daignosis of PNH?
flow cytometry
96
What is seen on flow cytometry with PNH?
deficiency of CD55 and CD59
97
Which clotting factors are particularly sensitivie to temperature?
V and VIII
98
What foramen does the inferior petrosal sinus pass through?
jugular foramen
99
What level is the cardioesophageal junction?
T11
100
What cell is implicated in graft vs host disease?
donor lmphocytes
101
What is the cause of tardive dyskinesia?
long term dopamine receptor blokcade causing hypersensitivity of dopamine receptors in the nigrostriatal pathway