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Transition Block > 08/04/18 > Flashcards

08/04/18 Flashcards

1
Q

What is gold standard investigation of PMB?

A

hysteroscopy and D&C

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2
Q

What is the antibiotic of choice against Group A strep?

A

penicillin

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3
Q

Give an example of a GAS?

A

strep. pyogenes

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4
Q

How long should you wait before reintroduction of tablets after NMS?

A

2 weeks

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5
Q

How long should you wait before reintroduction for depot injection forms?

A

6 weeks

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6
Q

Waht type of urine does carbonic anhydrase inhibitors create?

A

alkaline urine- rick in HCO3

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7
Q

What is the function of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors?

A

inhibits bicarb resorption in the proximal convoluted tubule

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8
Q

What is the MOA of colchicine?

A

inhibbts monosodium urate-induced activation of neutrophils- inihibts polymerisation of beta tubulin

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9
Q

What is Cheynes-Stokes respiration?

A

periods of apnoea alternating with a series of incresing then decreasing amplitude

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10
Q

What usually causes Cheyne-Stokes repiration?

A

bran stem compression wtih increased ICP

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11
Q

When does secondary syphilis typically develop following the chancre?

A

6- 8 weeks

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12
Q

What are complications of CCBs?

A

cutaneous flushing; increased HA and fluid retension

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13
Q

What is seen with the muscles in furosemide treatment?

A

muscle cramps

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14
Q

What is the triad seen in Menieres disease?

A

episodic vertigo; tinnitus and hearing loss

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15
Q

What is the investigation for BBPV?

A

Hallpikes test

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16
Q

what is the treatment for BPPV?

A

Epley manouevre

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17
Q

What are complications of acute lithium poisoning?

A

diarrhoea; hypokalaemia and hypotension; nystagmus; cardiac arrthmyias

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18
Q

What is neurosis?

A

inappropriate emotional or behavioural reponse to a perceived stressor

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19
Q

what happens to the toal iron binding capacity in iron deficiency?

A

riased

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20
Q

What genes has essential thrombocytosis assocaited iwth?

A

JAK2; calreticulin and myeloproliferative leukaemia virus oncogene

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21
Q

What is the first line treatment in essential thrombocytosis?

A

hydroxyurea

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22
Q

What is the MOA of hydroxyurea?

A

inhibts an enzyme involved in DNA synthesis

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23
Q

What coniditions are associated with JAK2 mutation?

A

Crohn disease; essetnial thrombocythaemia; polycythaemia vera; primary myelofibrosis

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24
Q

What is ECT used for?

A

severe depression; catatonia; prolonged/severe mania

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25
Q

Which antibiotics are associated with aplastic anaemia?

A

chloramphenicol; penicillin; cephalosporins and sulfonamides

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26
Q

What is seen on gram stain with chlaymida?

A

hard to stain but classed as gram negative

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27
Q

What is StLouis encephalitis?

A

viral encephalitis transmitted by mosquitoes

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28
Q

What gene is mutated in MEN2b?

A

RET proto-oncogene

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29
Q

What indicates a good prognosis in SZ with affetive and catatonic symmptoms?

A

affective- prominent and presence of catatonic symptoms are good

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30
Q

What is the investigation of choice for Wilsons?

A

24 hours urine collection to quantify copper excretion

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31
Q

What is the RBC defect in paroxysmal nocturnal haemolginuria?

A

phosphatidylinositol glycan A

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32
Q

What is found in the fluid of branchial cysts?

A

fluid with characteristic birefringent cholesterol crystals

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33
Q

What is the most likley cause of intermenstrual bleeding in patient on combined-HRT?

A

endometrial polyp

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34
Q

What is the most common antibody in Sjogren’s?

A

RF

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35
Q

What antibody is seen in many chronic liver diseases?

A

smooth muscle sntibody

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36
Q

What other cells are often elevated in polycythaemia vera?

A

WBCs and platelts

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37
Q

What is polycythaemia with reduced plasma volume?

A

stress/relative polycythaemia

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38
Q

What variants of haemoglobin may cause polycythaemia?

A

high affinity

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39
Q

What type of biopsy should be done for pelomorphic adenoma?

A

excision biopsy

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40
Q

What overdose is associated with tinnitus and hyperventilation?

A

salicylate overdose

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41
Q

What are the causes of a painless ulcer?

A

syphilis and lymphogranuloma venereum

42
Q

What is the vertebral level of the subcostal plane?

A

L2

43
Q

What is the lifespan of sickle cell RBCs?

A

10-20 days

44
Q

What type of lesions in MS have a poor prognosis?

A

motor involvement or coordination problems

45
Q

What is the blood supply of the upper parts of hte nose?

A

ICA via the ethmoidal arteries

46
Q

what is the blood supply of the lower partsof the nose?

A

external carotid via the greater palatine, sphnopalatine and superior labial arteries

47
Q

Why should antibiotic cover be given with posterior packing?

A

risk of eustachain tube infection

48
Q

when would oral anitibiotcs with otitis externa be indicated?

A

cellulitis extending beyond the external ear canal; when ear canal is occluded; DM or compromised immunity

49
Q

What is the self-care advice for otitis externa?

A

avoid damage to external ear canal; keep ears clean and dry

50
Q

How long should people with acute otitis externa avoid water sports?

A

7-10 days

51
Q

What is self-care advice for epistaxis?

A

avoid for 24 hours: blowing or picking nose; heavy lifting; strenuous exercise; lying flat or drinking alcohol or hot drinks

52
Q

What is a carneous mole?

A

organising or organised mole usually from a missed abortion

53
Q

What ages is a hydatiform mole commoner in?

A

below 20 and above 40

54
Q

Where are lesions in cerebral toxoplasmosis most commonly found?

A

basal ganglia

55
Q

what is the treatment for cerebral toxoplasmosis?

A

pyrmiethamine and sulphadiazine

56
Q

What is the treatment for intestinal cyclosporiasis?

A

cotrimoxazole

57
Q

What si teh treatment for cryptococcal meningitis?

A

amphotericin B and fluctosine

58
Q

What is the treatment for babesia microti parasitaemia?

A

clindamycin and quinine

59
Q

What are the CNS side effects of donepezil?

A

hallucination; agitation; seizures and insomnia

60
Q

What is teh treatment for heparin overdose?

A

protamine

61
Q

When would Roberstonian translocations cause miscarriage?

A

first trimester

62
Q

What is a stomatocyte?

A

RBC with central slit

63
Q

Whati s a personality disorder?

A

exaggeration of personality tratis which lead to suffering by the individual or others

64
Q

When is dementia pre-senile?

A

before age 65

65
Q

What is identification?

A

unconscious adoption of hte charactersitic or activaities of another person

66
Q

What is required with a forceps delivery?

A

episiotomy

67
Q

What should be performed as babies head is crowning with fetal distress?

A

episiotomy

68
Q

What is first lien for shoulder dystocia?

A

McRoberts manouevre

69
Q

Why is gestation often prolonged in an anencephalic pregnancies?

A

pituitar-adrenal axis is poorly formed

70
Q

What is Tietze syndrome?

A

costochondritis

71
Q

Waht other structure in the trigeminal nerve close to?

A

middle cerebellar peduncle

72
Q

What is the only CN to emerge from teh psoterior aspect of hte brainstem?

A

trochlear

73
Q

What nerve supplies the angle of the mandible?

A

greater auricular nerve

74
Q

What hormone is produced by the theca?

A

androstenedione

75
Q

Waht granulomas do allopurinol and sulphonamdies cause?

A

hepatic granulomas

76
Q

What blood cells are stored in the spleen?

A

monocytes; platelets

77
Q

What receptor is involved in constipation in opioids?

A

u

78
Q

What happens to the oxy-haemoglobin curve in chronic iron deficiency anaemia?

A

right shift

79
Q

Whati s the most common cause of stroke?

A

emboli

80
Q

What nerve supplies the external anal sphincter?

A

inferior rectal branch of the pudendal nerve

81
Q

What is the differential diagnosis with neuro signs and abdo pain?

A

intermitten porphyria or lead poisoning

82
Q

Is abdominal pain typical of hyperemeesis gravidarum?

A

no

83
Q

What nerve is closely related tot the middle meningeal artery?

A

auroculotemporal nerve

84
Q

What is the auroculotempral nerve a branch of?

A

mandibular nerve

85
Q

What is a ketogenic diet?

A

high fat and low carb

86
Q

what condition can a ketogenic diet be useful in the treatment of?

A

control of epiletpci seziures in children

87
Q

What nerve is reponsible for the cremasteric reflex?

A

genitofemoral nerve

88
Q

what receptors are found on theca cells ?

A

LH

89
Q

What is often the cause of early onset Alzhemiers in Downs patietns ?

A

APP- located on chromosome 21

90
Q

What are the common triggers of migraine?

A 
Chocolate
Hangovers
Orgasms
Cheese
OCPs
lie-ins
alcohol
travel
exercise
91
Q

Which type of autoimmune haemolysis causes intravascaulr haemolysis?

A

cold IgM

92
Q

Where are fibroids causing difficulty conceiving likely to be located?

A

submucosal

93
Q

What effect does phenytoin have on folate?

A

anti-folate- macrocytic anaemia

94
Q

Which area of the brain is concerned with thermoregulation?

A

hypothalamus

95
Q

What is the gold standard in daignosis of PNH?

A

flow cytometry

96
Q

What is seen on flow cytometry with PNH?

A

deficiency of CD55 and CD59

97
Q

Which clotting factors are particularly sensitivie to temperature?

A

V and VIII

98
Q

What foramen does the inferior petrosal sinus pass through?

A

jugular foramen

99
Q

What level is the cardioesophageal junction?

A

T11

100
Q

What cell is implicated in graft vs host disease?

A

donor lmphocytes

101
Q

What is the cause of tardive dyskinesia?

A

long term dopamine receptor blokcade causing hypersensitivity of dopamine receptors in the nigrostriatal pathway

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