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Transition Block > 06/04/18 > Flashcards

06/04/18 Flashcards

1
Q

What cytokines are involved in cachexia and fever?

A

TNF-alpha and IL1- cockexia

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2
Q

What cytokine is invovled in T-cell activation?

A

IL2- 2 cell activation

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3
Q

What cytokine is the bone marrow stimulant?

A

IL3- 3-some if you wanna bone

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4
Q

What cytokine is the eosinophil activator?

A

IL5- JZs hands look like an eosinohpil- 5 fingers on a hand

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5
Q

What is the leukotriene neutrophil chemotactic agent?

A

IL8- on side is an infinity sign (neutrophils are most common WBC in body)

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6
Q

Which cytokine is the granuloma activator?

A

IFN-gamma (activates macrophages to become granulomas)- Gamma= granuloma

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7
Q

What is the treatment for mild hyperparathyroidism?

A

increased fluid intake; avoid thaizides and a high calcium/vitD intake- see every 6 months

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8
Q

What are the indications for surgical tx of hyperparathyroidism?

A

high serum/urianry Ca; osteoporosis; renal calculi; bone disease; decreased renal function; <50

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9
Q

What physical problems are more commonly seen in vascular dementia compared with Alzhemiers?

A

urinary incontinence; decreased mobility; balance problems

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10
Q

What dementia is found more commonly in patients under 65?

A

fronto-temporal dementia

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11
Q

What non-cognitive symptoms should be asked about in dementia history?

A

behavioural disturbance; hallucinations and delusions

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12
Q

What can be used in the diagnosis of dementia that involves a close relation to the patietn?

A

informant questionnaire on cognitive decline in the elderly

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13
Q

What can help distinguish dementia from depression on CT?

A

measures of hte medial temporal lobe

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14
Q

What is the difference between the memory loss in FTD compared to AD?

A

FTD has deficits in semantic memory and attention/executive function compared with loss of episodic memory in AD

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15
Q

What forms of dementia is rivastigmine used for?

A

Alzhemeirs and Lew body dementia

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16
Q

Why are NMDA-antagonists useful in Alzhemiers?

A

enhancement of the excitatory action of L-glutamate may play a role in the pathogenesis of Alzheimers

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17
Q

What is the problem with Ginkgo and warfarin/aspirin?

A

causes bleeding

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18
Q

What is the problem with Ginkgo and thiazides?

A

raises blood pressure

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19
Q

What are the causes of hyperandrogenism?

A

adrenogenital syndromes (congenital adrenal hyperplasia); androgen-secreting tumours; other causes- Cushing’s; drug-induced

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20
Q

What is the effect of raised insulin in PCOS?

A

works synergistically with LH to enhance androgen production by theca cells and inhibits sex-binding globulin production by the liver- increased free testosterone

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21
Q

What other causes should be looked for in a patient with suspected PCOS?

A

simple obesity; primary hypothyroidism; hyperprolactinaemia; premature ovarian failure; non-classic congential adrenal hyperplasia; cusghins; androgen-secreitng neoplasm; acromegaly

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22
Q

What investigations should be done for PCOS?

A

testosterone; sex-hormone binding globulin; calculate the free androgen index; TVUS

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23
Q

Waht investigations should be done to rule out other causes of PCOS?

A

LH and FSH; PRL; TSH

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24
Q

What should be offered in patients with oligomennorhea or amenorrhea?

A

regular withdrawal bleeding at least once every 3 months- COC or IUS

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25
Q

Which patients with PCOS shoudl have an annual OGTT?

A

strong FHx of DM; obesity; hx of GDM

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26
Q

How should women over 35 with PCOS be screened for CVS RFs?

A

BP; waist circumference; BMI and lipids

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27
Q

Waht is the action of clomiphene?

A

oestrogen receptor antagonist

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28
Q

What is the severest form of spina bifida?

A

meningomyelocoele

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29
Q

What is seen in the mouth with vitamin C deficiency?

A

gingivitis; gum recession; ;dental disease; bleeding gums

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30
Q

What drug during breastfeeding can cause hypotonia and cyanosis?

A

lithium

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31
Q

What drug in breastfeeding may cause prolonged jaundice?

A

sulphonamides

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32
Q

what drug during breastfeeding may cause platelet dysfunction?

A

aspirin

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33
Q

What is Reye’s syndrome?

A

rapidly progressive encephalopathy

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34
Q

When does crossing over occur in meiosis?

A

prophase I

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35
Q

What are the secondary causes of polycythaemia?

A

hypoxia; smoking ; excess alcohol; erythropoietin excess-renal cell carcinoam

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36
Q

What is a bronchocele?

A

dilater segment of bronchus and has completely filled with mucus and occluded

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37
Q

How do metastases appear on imagine?

A

discrete round masses

38
Q

What are the triggers of rosacea?

A

stree/blushing; alcohol and spices

39
Q

What are the signs og rosacea?

A

erythemato-telangiectasies; papulopustules and inflammatory nodules

40
Q

What may occur in men with rosacea?

A

rhinophyma- swelling and soft tissue overgrowht of the nose

41
Q

What is the treatment for rosacea?

A

azelaic acid and metronidazole gel or doxycycline

42
Q

What bug is thought to play a role in rosacea?

A

chlamydia pneumoniae

43
Q

What conditions is blue sclera seen in?

A

turners; pagets; osteopetrosis; osteogenesis imperfecta

44
Q

What is seen with osteopetrosis?

A

lack of differentiation between cortex and medulla- failure of osteoclastic bone resorption

45
Q

How is carbon dioxide primarily transported in the arterial blood?

A

bicarbonate

46
Q

What is the insulin stress test used in the diagnosis of ?

A

panhypopituitarism

47
Q

How can statorrhea with pancreatic disease be evaluated?

A

faecal elastase

48
Q

What is the first line for susepcted pancreatic cancer?

A

CT

49
Q

What causes slit-like retraction in duct ectasia?

A

chornic inflammation leading to fibrosis

50
Q

What type of refractive problem predisposes to glaucoma?

A

long-sighted- hypermetropia

51
Q

What is the use of sumatriptan and ergotamine in migraine?

A

acute episodes

52
Q

What are the options for migraine prophylaxis?

A

topiramate; propanolol

53
Q

What type of cancer is assocaited iwth parathyroid hormone production?

A

SCC

54
Q

What type of lung cancer is associatedi with ectopic ACTH?

A

small cell

55
Q

Why does radial nerve compression usually result in minimal sensory loss?

A

overlap with median and ulnar nerves

56
Q

What are the potassium sparing diuretics?

A

spironolactone; trimaterene and amiloride

57
Q

What neurological disorder is assocaited with Dupuytrens?

A

epilepsy

58
Q

What is glossopharyngeal neuralgia?

A

severe; sharp and episodic pain during swallowing

59
Q

What are hte features of benign epilepsy of childhood with centrotempral spikes?

A

occur whilst asleep or shortly after waking; seizures are partial and often only affect the face, may have secondaary generalisation

60
Q

What is the prognosis of benign epilepsy of childhood with centrotemporal spikes?

A

resolves by 13

61
Q

Who tends to get absence seizures?

A

children

62
Q

What is the commonest focal epilepsy?

A

temporal lobe epilepsy

63
Q

What are the common symptoms of temporal lobe epislepsy?

A

speech; taste; small and memory- often repetitive vocalisations and lip smacking

64
Q

What happens in simple partial seizures?

A

contralateral movement of hte face and limbs

65
Q

What is Jacksonian epilepsy?

A

partial epileptic seizure that occcurs due to a lesion of priamry motor area- starts and then progressively spreads

66
Q

Why does a posterior communicating artery cause a third nerve palsy?

A

aneurysm compresses

67
Q

What is perinatal death equal to?

A

sum of stillbirths and early neonatal deaths

68
Q

Waht is the most common cause of hypocalcaemia

?

A

renal failure

69
Q

What diseases have an associated iwth SAH?

A

PCKD; ehlers-danlos; coarctation of the aorta

70
Q

What disease is a flu-like illness followed by a maculopapular rash?

A

rubella

71
Q

What is a bleeding diathesis?

A

tendency to bleeding

72
Q

What is a high stepping gait associated iwth?

A

peripheral motor neuropathy

73
Q

Where is the sensory loss with common fibular neurpathy?

A

dorsum of the goot and lateral part of the leg

74
Q

Which lobe of the brain is affected with anosmia?

A

frontal

75
Q

What do Q waves on ECG suggest?

A

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

76
Q

What is the treatment for BZD overdose?

A

flumazenil

77
Q

What cancer syndrome is associatedi wth a defect in DNA gyrase

A

xeroderma pigmentosum

78
Q

What DMARD is associatedi wth oligospermia?

A

sulfasalazine

79
Q

What drug is associated with increased risk of lymphoma with prolonged use?

A

azathioprine

80
Q

What condition has microphthalmia; scalp defects and polydactyly?

A

pataus syndrome

81
Q

What are breast SE of ranitidine?

A

galactorrhea and gynaecomastia

82
Q

What is the difference in the effect on calcium between thiazides and loops?

A

loops promote calcium excretion whilst thiazides promote hypercalcaemia

83
Q

What is seen on biopsy with transplant glomerulonephropathy?

A

double contouring of hte glomerular capillary basement membrane

84
Q

What must be given with oestrogen patch therapy in patients with no surgical history?

A

progesterone tablets

85
Q

How does heamodialysis remove solutes?

A

by diffusion

86
Q

How does haemofiltration removes solutes?

A

convection

87
Q

Why is tamoxifen use limited to 5 years?

A

reduce risk of endometrial cancer

88
Q

What is the name for the proportion of drug which reaches systemic circulation?

A

bioavailability

89
Q

What is drug-induced dysphagia assocaited with?

A

potassium supplements and NSAIDs

90
Q

What are symptoms in fibrocystic disease associated with?

A

menstrual periods- peak before

91
Q

How does the breast feel on palpation with fibrocystic changes?

A

cobblestone feel

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