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Transition Block > 06/04/18 > Flashcards

06/04/18 Flashcards

1
Q

What cytokines are involved in cachexia and fever?

A

TNF-alpha and IL1- cockexia

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2
Q

What cytokine is invovled in T-cell activation?

A

IL2- 2 cell activation

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3
Q

What cytokine is the bone marrow stimulant?

A

IL3- 3-some if you wanna bone

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4
Q

What cytokine is the eosinophil activator?

A

IL5- JZs hands look like an eosinohpil- 5 fingers on a hand

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5
Q

What is the leukotriene neutrophil chemotactic agent?

A

IL8- on side is an infinity sign (neutrophils are most common WBC in body)

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6
Q

Which cytokine is the granuloma activator?

A

IFN-gamma (activates macrophages to become granulomas)- Gamma= granuloma

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7
Q

What is the treatment for mild hyperparathyroidism?

A

increased fluid intake; avoid thaizides and a high calcium/vitD intake- see every 6 months

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8
Q

What are the indications for surgical tx of hyperparathyroidism?

A

high serum/urianry Ca; osteoporosis; renal calculi; bone disease; decreased renal function; <50

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9
Q

What physical problems are more commonly seen in vascular dementia compared with Alzhemiers?

A

urinary incontinence; decreased mobility; balance problems

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10
Q

What dementia is found more commonly in patients under 65?

A

fronto-temporal dementia

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11
Q

What non-cognitive symptoms should be asked about in dementia history?

A

behavioural disturbance; hallucinations and delusions

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12
Q

What can be used in the diagnosis of dementia that involves a close relation to the patietn?

A

informant questionnaire on cognitive decline in the elderly

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13
Q

What can help distinguish dementia from depression on CT?

A

measures of hte medial temporal lobe

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14
Q

What is the difference between the memory loss in FTD compared to AD?

A

FTD has deficits in semantic memory and attention/executive function compared with loss of episodic memory in AD

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15
Q

What forms of dementia is rivastigmine used for?

A

Alzhemeirs and Lew body dementia

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16
Q

Why are NMDA-antagonists useful in Alzhemiers?

A

enhancement of the excitatory action of L-glutamate may play a role in the pathogenesis of Alzheimers

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17
Q

What is the problem with Ginkgo and warfarin/aspirin?

A

causes bleeding

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18
Q

What is the problem with Ginkgo and thiazides?

A

raises blood pressure

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19
Q

What are the causes of hyperandrogenism?

A

adrenogenital syndromes (congenital adrenal hyperplasia); androgen-secreting tumours; other causes- Cushing’s; drug-induced

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20
Q

What is the effect of raised insulin in PCOS?

A

works synergistically with LH to enhance androgen production by theca cells and inhibits sex-binding globulin production by the liver- increased free testosterone

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21
Q

What other causes should be looked for in a patient with suspected PCOS?

A

simple obesity; primary hypothyroidism; hyperprolactinaemia; premature ovarian failure; non-classic congential adrenal hyperplasia; cusghins; androgen-secreitng neoplasm; acromegaly

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22
Q

What investigations should be done for PCOS?

A

testosterone; sex-hormone binding globulin; calculate the free androgen index; TVUS

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23
Q

Waht investigations should be done to rule out other causes of PCOS?

A

LH and FSH; PRL; TSH

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24
Q

What should be offered in patients with oligomennorhea or amenorrhea?

A

regular withdrawal bleeding at least once every 3 months- COC or IUS

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25
Which patients with PCOS shoudl have an annual OGTT?
strong FHx of DM; obesity; hx of GDM
26
How should women over 35 with PCOS be screened for CVS RFs?
BP; waist circumference; BMI and lipids
27
Waht is the action of clomiphene?
oestrogen receptor antagonist
28
What is the severest form of spina bifida?
meningomyelocoele
29
What is seen in the mouth with vitamin C deficiency?
gingivitis; gum recession; ;dental disease; bleeding gums
30
What drug during breastfeeding can cause hypotonia and cyanosis?
lithium
31
What drug in breastfeeding may cause prolonged jaundice?
sulphonamides
32
what drug during breastfeeding may cause platelet dysfunction?
aspirin
33
What is Reye's syndrome?
rapidly progressive encephalopathy
34
When does crossing over occur in meiosis?
prophase I
35
What are the secondary causes of polycythaemia?
hypoxia; smoking ; excess alcohol; erythropoietin excess-renal cell carcinoam
36
What is a bronchocele?
dilater segment of bronchus and has completely filled with mucus and occluded
37
How do metastases appear on imagine?
discrete round masses
38
What are the triggers of rosacea?
stree/blushing; alcohol and spices
39
What are the signs og rosacea?
erythemato-telangiectasies; papulopustules and inflammatory nodules
40
What may occur in men with rosacea?
rhinophyma- swelling and soft tissue overgrowht of the nose
41
What is the treatment for rosacea?
azelaic acid and metronidazole gel or doxycycline
42
What bug is thought to play a role in rosacea?
chlamydia pneumoniae
43
What conditions is blue sclera seen in?
turners; pagets; osteopetrosis; osteogenesis imperfecta
44
What is seen with osteopetrosis?
lack of differentiation between cortex and medulla- failure of osteoclastic bone resorption
45
How is carbon dioxide primarily transported in the arterial blood?
bicarbonate
46
What is the insulin stress test used in the diagnosis of ?
panhypopituitarism
47
How can statorrhea with pancreatic disease be evaluated?
faecal elastase
48
What is the first line for susepcted pancreatic cancer?
CT
49
What causes slit-like retraction in duct ectasia?
chornic inflammation leading to fibrosis
50
What type of refractive problem predisposes to glaucoma?
long-sighted- hypermetropia
51
What is the use of sumatriptan and ergotamine in migraine?
acute episodes
52
What are the options for migraine prophylaxis?
topiramate; propanolol
53
What type of cancer is assocaited iwth parathyroid hormone production?
SCC
54
What type of lung cancer is associatedi with ectopic ACTH?
small cell
55
Why does radial nerve compression usually result in minimal sensory loss?
overlap with median and ulnar nerves
56
What are the potassium sparing diuretics?
spironolactone; trimaterene and amiloride
57
What neurological disorder is assocaited with Dupuytrens?
epilepsy
58
What is glossopharyngeal neuralgia?
severe; sharp and episodic pain during swallowing
59
What are hte features of benign epilepsy of childhood with centrotempral spikes?
occur whilst asleep or shortly after waking; seizures are partial and often only affect the face, may have secondaary generalisation
60
What is the prognosis of benign epilepsy of childhood with centrotemporal spikes?
resolves by 13
61
Who tends to get absence seizures?
children
62
What is the commonest focal epilepsy?
temporal lobe epilepsy
63
What are the common symptoms of temporal lobe epislepsy?
speech; taste; small and memory- often repetitive vocalisations and lip smacking
64
What happens in simple partial seizures?
contralateral movement of hte face and limbs
65
What is Jacksonian epilepsy?
partial epileptic seizure that occcurs due to a lesion of priamry motor area- starts and then progressively spreads
66
Why does a posterior communicating artery cause a third nerve palsy?
aneurysm compresses
67
What is perinatal death equal to?
sum of stillbirths and early neonatal deaths
68
Waht is the most common cause of hypocalcaemia | ?
renal failure
69
What diseases have an associated iwth SAH?
PCKD; ehlers-danlos; coarctation of the aorta
70
What disease is a flu-like illness followed by a maculopapular rash?
rubella
71
What is a bleeding diathesis?
tendency to bleeding
72
What is a high stepping gait associated iwth?
peripheral motor neuropathy
73
Where is the sensory loss with common fibular neurpathy?
dorsum of the goot and lateral part of the leg
74
Which lobe of the brain is affected with anosmia?
frontal
75
What do Q waves on ECG suggest?
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
76
What is the treatment for BZD overdose?
flumazenil
77
What cancer syndrome is associatedi wth a defect in DNA gyrase
xeroderma pigmentosum
78
What DMARD is associatedi wth oligospermia?
sulfasalazine
79
What drug is associated with increased risk of lymphoma with prolonged use?
azathioprine
80
What condition has microphthalmia; scalp defects and polydactyly?
pataus syndrome
81
What are breast SE of ranitidine?
galactorrhea and gynaecomastia
82
What is the difference in the effect on calcium between thiazides and loops?
loops promote calcium excretion whilst thiazides promote hypercalcaemia
83
What is seen on biopsy with transplant glomerulonephropathy?
double contouring of hte glomerular capillary basement membrane
84
What must be given with oestrogen patch therapy in patients with no surgical history?
progesterone tablets
85
How does heamodialysis remove solutes?
by diffusion
86
How does haemofiltration removes solutes?
convection
87
Why is tamoxifen use limited to 5 years?
reduce risk of endometrial cancer
88
What is the name for the proportion of drug which reaches systemic circulation?
bioavailability
89
What is drug-induced dysphagia assocaited with?
potassium supplements and NSAIDs
90
What are symptoms in fibrocystic disease associated with?
menstrual periods- peak before
91
How does the breast feel on palpation with fibrocystic changes?
cobblestone feel

Transition Block (35 decks)

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