10/04/18 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the relation of the pudendal nerve to the internal pudendal artery as it pases the ischial spine?

A

medial

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2
Q

What nerve is the anterior labial nerve a division of?

A

ilioinguinal nerve

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3
Q

What are the 2 terminal branches of the pudendal nerve?

A

dorsal nerve of penis/clitoris and perineal nerve

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4
Q

Where does the internal pudendal vein drain?

A

internal iliac vein

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5
Q

What lines the upper 2/3rds of the anal canal?

A

cuboidal epithelium

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6
Q

What lines the lower 1/3rd of hte anal canal?

A

non-keratinisedsquamous epithelium

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7
Q

What is Hilton’s line?

A

junction of the keratinised and non-keratinised epithelium

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8
Q

What is the pectinate line?

A

junction of the upper 2/3rds and lower 1/3rd

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9
Q

What muscle of the pelvic floor blends with the internal anal sphincter?

A

pubococcygeus

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10
Q

Where does pyramidalis lie?

A

anterior to rectus abdominus within the rectus sheath

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11
Q

What is found in the pudendal canal?

A

pudendal nerve, artery and vein

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12
Q

How does the pudendal nerve pass the ischial spine?

A

just lateral to

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13
Q

Where is the lylmphatic drainage of hte bladder?

A

internal iliac nodes

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14
Q

What is found below the tunica vaginalis?

A

fibrous layer-tunica albuginea

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15
Q

What does the tunica albuginea form?

A

septa that divide the testis to form lobules where the seminifierous tubules are located

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16
Q

What is the hydatid of morgani?

A

remnant of the mullerian ducts

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17
Q

What is the relation of the ureters to the peritoneum?

A

retroperitoneal

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18
Q

What do the ureters derive from embryogically?

A

ureteric buds

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19
Q

Waht provides lubrication to the vagina?

A

Bartholin’s glands

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20
Q

What is the emrbyological origin of the vagina?

A

mesoderm- paramesonephric duct and urogential sinus

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21
Q

What is the lymphatic drainage of the superior part of hte vagina?

A

internal iliac nodes

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22
Q

What is the lymphatic drainage of the lwoer part of the vagina?

A

superficial inguinal nodes

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23
Q

What are the 3 muscular layers of the uterus?

A

endometrium; myometrium and epimetrium

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24
Q

What is the blood supply to the bladder?

A

superior and inferior vesical arteries derived from teh pudendal artery

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25
What pelvic organ is found intraperitoneallu?
uterine tubes
26
Where does lymph from the superior part of hte bladder travel?
external iliac
27
Where does lymph from inferior bladder drain?
internal iliac
28
Where does the clitoris drain?
deep inguinal nodes
29
What antivonculsant can cause hyperammonaemia?
valproate- encephalopathy
30
What muscle is classically wasted in diabetic amyotrophy?
quadriceps
31
What types of leuakaemia might have raised RBCs and platelets?
myeloid leuakemia
32
What are cells going to stain positive for in ALL?
TdT
33
What are cells going to stain for in CML?
philidelphia chromosome (9;22)
34
What are cells going to stain for in AML?
myeloperoxide; auer rods
35
What is a drug that is an tyrosine kinase inhibitor?
imatinib
36
What is the treatment for the M3 variant of AML?
all-trans retinoic acid (vitamin A)
37
What will the M3 variant of AML stain for?
myeloperoxidase and auer rods
38
When do you treat CLL?
only if symptomatic
39
In order of age what are the leukaemias?
ALL--CML--AML--CLL
40
How do auer rods look?
flat crystals in the cytoplasm
41
What can CML progress to?
AML- blast crisis
42
Waht is a blast crisis?
>20% blast cells in smear
43
What is the baby able to do at 6 months?
six= S's- sit; switches (transfers between hands); shmooze (babbles); stranger anxiety
44
What is the baby able to do at 12 months?
Twelve = T's : two-legs; track (object permanence); two-words; two-of us( separation and anxiety)
45
What is the baby able to do at 9 months?
9 = P's (9 inch penis) : pull (to stand); pincer grasp ; papa (and mamma) ; play
46
Waht is the baby able to do at 3 months?
before everything else- roll; laugh; smile
47
What does a cohort study give you?
relative risk: relatives are the same (two O's in cohort)
48
What is the direction of study in cohort?
prospective: two O's are eyes- looking forward
49
What statistic does a case control study give you?
odds ratio (a and an o- at odds with one another)
50
What is the direction of study in a case control study?
backwards- A forms a backwards arrow
51
What are the most common bacterial groups to cause cerebral abscesses?
staphylococcus; streptococcus; bacteroides; enterbacteria
52
What are hte side effects of carbimazole/PTU?
agranulocytosis; rash; pruritis; nausea; alopecia; headache
53
What is the treatment for agrnulocytosis with carbimazole?
stop thioamide therpay and treat with radioactive iodein
54
Which DMARDs can cause pancytopenia?
methotrexate; sulfasalzein; penicillamine; gold
55
What is a common cause of cervical stenosis?
cone biosy
56
What is faceal soiling in children most commonly caused by?
constipation with secondary overflow
57
What bone do the cavernous sinuses lie on either side of?
sella turcica
58
What is the spleen derived from embryologically
mesoderm
59
Where do the ureters open into the bladder?
fundus
60
What are the most common causes of basophilic stippling?
alpha or bet a thalassaemia
61
What are Howell-Jolly bodies?
residual nuclear fragments
62
What are pappenheimer bodies?
violet staining granules in the periphery of RBCs
63
When are pappenheimer bodies found?
sideroblastic anaemia; lead posioning; thalassaemias; asplenic patietns
64
When are schistocytes seen?
intravascular haemolysis
65
What cardiac abnormalitiy is see n in ADPKD
mitral valve prolapse
66
What is relative risk?
measure of how much a particular ris kfactor influences the risk of a specified outcome
67
Why should elderly patients with hypothermia be gradually rewardmed?
rapid rewarming may precipiatate heart failure/organ failure
68
What does lymphcyte reciruclation refer to?
cells leaving the blood; crossing tissues and returning back to the blood via efferent lymph
69
What type of enzyme is alph-1 antitrypsin?
serine protease inhibitor
70
What is the function of alpha-1 antitrypsin?
prevents breakdown of elastin by elastase
71
What happens in renal osteodystrpohy?
reduced 1 hydroxylation of vitamin D
72
What other name is Wilson's disease known as?
hepatolenticular degeneration
73
What part of the brain is affected first in Huntington;s?
striatum- caudate nucleus and putamen
74
Whcih sulcus separates the parietal and frontal lobes?
central sulcus
75
Where is Broca's area?
inferiorfrontal gyrus
76
What part of the brain is affected in asterognosis?
superiorparietal lobule
77
Where is Wernicke's area?
superior temporal gyrus
78
The middle cranial fossa contains which lobe?
temporal lobe
79
What leuakemia has smear cells on blood film?
CLL
80
Which antipsychotic is the most potent dopamine antagonist?
haloperidol
81
How long should blood counts be monitored weekly after starting clozapine?
18 weeks
82
Which drug is the most common cause of NMS?
haloperidol
83
What interleukin causes B cells to differentitae?
IL4
84
What is the function of reverse transcriptase?
enzyme producing cDNA
85
What is reverse transcripatse assocaited with ?
retroviruses
86
What is HbA2?
alpha globin chains and delta chains
87
How does sarcoid affect T cells?
low CD4+ and peripheral blood T cell coutn
88
What happens in XLA?
failure of proliferation of pre-B cells in the marrow
89
How do the anterior vertebral ascend in the neck in relation to the anterior rami of the cervical nerves?
anteiror
90
How do the vertebral arteries pass behind the materal mass of atlas?
medially
91
What is prominent abnormal dilatation of bronchi filled with mucous and neutrophils?
bronchiectasis
92
What is hyperplasia of bronchial submucosal glands. An increased ratio of the thickenss of hte gland layer to that of the bronchial wall?
chronic bronchitis
93
What is infiltration of smaller bronchioles and alveolar walls with neutrophils, lymphocytes and macrophages with deposition of immune complexes?
hypersensitivity penumonitis
94
Where does the femoral vein become the external iliac vein ?
inguinal lig
95
What layer of fascia are the great and small saphenous vein found in?
superficial fascia
96
Waht is the difference between the functions of gluteus maximus and medius/minimus?
gluteus maximus extends the hip and laterally rotates whereas medius/minimus abduct and medially rotates
97
What is Hunter's syndrome?
mucopolysaccharidosis - accumulation
98
What are the symptosm of Hunter's syndrome?
progressive heraing loss; hepatomeglay; CVS involvemetn and death in early childhood
99
What is restitution?
rotation of the head into line with the fetal shoulders
100
When does restitution occur?
once the head has been delivered
101
What is the best policy to eradicate MRSA spread?
swab all elective patients pre-admission to detect MRSA carraige
102
What is the most important investigation for CLL?
flow cytomtery showing a specific pattern of monoclonal B cell prolieration
103
What is a side effect of quinolones?
achilles tendon rupture
104
Where is the level of the carina?
T4/5
105
Which bronchus is more likely to have foreign bodies?
right main bronchus
106
why is the right main bronchus ofte n the site of foreign bodies?
wider, shorter and more vertical
107
Waht is the most likely cause of projectile vomiting in an infant?
pyloric stenosis
108
What is the function of the carotid body?
partial pressure of oxygen and CO2; pH and temp
109
What is engagmenet ?
biparietal diameter has entered the pelvic brim
110
What happens to iron in pregnnacy?
reduction in iron conc. and increase in iron binding capacity
111
When should the body be delivered after delivery of the head?
3 minutes
112
How does cholesterol enter the HDL?
scavenger receptor
113
What is VLDL digested into?
LDL and free fatty acids
114
What does widespread ST elevation suggest?
not an MI- pericarditis or something else
115
What is the mechanism of cyclophosphamide?
causes DNA cross-linking
116
What is the most common biochemical abnormality with co-trimoxazole?
hyperkalaemia
117
What monoclonal antibody causes autoimmune thyroid disease?
alemtuzumab
118
What is the risk of recurring pre-eclampsia if it has been severe or had complications?
1 in 4 if delivery before 34 weeks ; 1 in 2 if delivery before 28 weeks
119
Why are many patients with CAH diagnosed at puberty?
girls experience virilisation as androgens are made while cortisol is defieicnt
120
What gender is more likely to get renal artery stenosis?
females
121
What is the function of citrate in the urine?
inhibits the formation of renal stones esp. calcium oxalate stones
122
What is the most common cause of low urinary citrate?
high dietary intake of animal protein
123
Where does the most growth occur during the growth spurt of puberty?
spine
124
What is the function of ACE?
converts angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2
125
What converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin1?
renin
126
What else converts angiotensin 1 -2?
lung
127
What is the disability score used in MS?
Kurtzke scale
128
Where is the primary visual cortex?
calcarine sulcus