12/04/18 Flashcards

1
Q

What is agnosia?

A

inability to interpret sensations

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2
Q

What may be seen with prosthetic heart valves on blood film?

A

fragment cells

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3
Q

What is Felty’s syndrome?

A

RA with hypersplenism and neutropenia

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4
Q

what is seen on blood film with Felty’s syndrome?

A

neutropenia with myeloid hyperplasia

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5
Q

What is the most common infective cause of IDA worldwide?

A

hookworm infestation

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6
Q

Why is there partial ptosis in Horner’s syndrome?

A

loss of the msucle of Muller- sympathetic innervation

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7
Q

What is anisocoria?

A

unequal pupil size

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8
Q

What is the cause if a patient presentas with pancytopenia and neuro deficit?

A

B12 deficiency

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9
Q

What are Heinz bodies?

A

RBC inclusions of denatured Hb

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10
Q

Why do Heinz bodies arise?

A

oxidant damage to RBCs

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11
Q

When should an event recorder ECG be done to diagnose AF?

A

symptomatic episodes are more than 24 hours apart

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12
Q

What is the HASBLED score?

A
HT
Abnormal liver/renal function
Stroke
Bleeding tendency
Labile INR
Age >65
Drugs (aspirin/NSAIDs) or alcoho
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13
Q

Who should be offered apixaban?

A

nonvalvular AF wtih 1 or more RF e.g: prior stroke/TIA; age >75; HT; DM; symptomatic HF

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14
Q

Who shouldn’t be offered rate control as a first line for Af?

A

AF has reversible cause; heart failure caused by AF; new onset; atrial flutter who is suitable for ablation

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15
Q

What is first line for rate control?

A

beta-blocker or rate-limiting CCB

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16
Q

Who should get digoxin?

A

non-paroxysmal AF and are sedentary

17
Q

What shoudl be offered if monotherapy rate control isn’t adequate?

A

combination of 2 of: beta blocker; diltiazem; digoxin

18
Q

Who should get pharma/eletrical rhythym control?

A

symptoms continue after HR controlled or not been successful

19
Q

What is used for pharma conversion?

A

flecainide or amiodarone

20
Q

When is thrombolysis with alteplase recommended?

A

wihtin 4.5 horus of onset of stroke symptosm and CT has excluded haemorrhage

21
Q

How long should warfarin be continued for people with distal DVT?

A

6 weeks (calf vein)

22
Q

How long should warfarin be continued in people wiht proximal DVT or PE with temporary RFs?

A

3 monhts

23
Q

How long should warfarin be continued in people with proximal DVT due to unkonw cause?

A

6 months

24
Q

What should patietns be counselled on when starting warfarin?

A

should be taken at same time everyday; dose; when appointments are; adverse effects- and whwat to do; factors that can effect INR- medicine; food; alcohol; acute illness

25
Q

When should patients on warfarin seek immediate medial advice?

A

spontaneous bleeding occurs and doesn’t stop or recurs; sudden severe back pain; difficulty breathing; chest pain

26
Q

What score should anticoagulation be offered to patietns?

A

score of 2 or more

27
Q

When should men be offered anticoag treatment?

A

score of 1

28
Q

What is the CHA2DS2VASc score?

A
CHF
HT
Age >75
DM
Stroke/TIA/VTE
Vascular disease
Age 65-74
Sex-female
29
Q

What is the treatment for Turner’s?

A

GH injections in childhood and oestrogen replacement therapy at age of 12, oestrogen and progesterone combo to maintain menses

30
Q

What is the ingeritance of haemophilia?

A

x-ilnked recessive

31
Q

What isthe major indication for carbonic anhydrase inhibitors?

A

acute open angle closure glaucoma

32
Q

What disease is linked to type I collagen defect?

A

osteogenesis imperfecta

33
Q

What disease is linked to type III collagen defects?

A

Ehlers-Danlos

34
Q

What disease is linked to mutations in type IV collagen?

A

Alport disease

35
Q

What type of connective tissue is affected in MArfans?

A

fibrillin-1

36
Q

What is the problem with amitryptyline and epilepsy?

A

aggravates epilepsy

37
Q

What CCB cannot be used to treat AF?

A

amlodipine- has no antiarrhythmic activity

38
Q

What is the inheritance of CGD?

A

x-linked

39
Q

What type of infectiosn do CGD pateitns typically get?

A

recurrent staph.