Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Transition Block > 04/04/18 > Flashcards

04/04/18 Flashcards

1
Q

Why might a serous cystadenoma appear solid?

A

papillary growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What type of ovarian tumour may cause pseudomyxoma peritonei?

A

mucinous cystadenoma/carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What causes endometrial polyps?

A

inappropriate rseponse to oestrogenic stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what other name is atypical endometrial hyperplasia known as?

A

endometrial intra-epithelial neoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the zona pellucida?

A

mucopolysaccharide layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What other name is a benign transitional cells tumour known as ?

A

Brenner tumour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which chromosome is BRCA1 found on?

A

17

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is seen histologically with dysgerminoma?

A

germ cells mixed with lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the effective treatment for dysgerminoma

A

radiotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a monodermal teratoma?

A

tissue derived from one germ cell layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Who gets yolk sac tumours?

A

below age 30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Waht is the most common sex cord tumour?

A

thecoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What can be used as a tumour marker in granulosa cell tumours?

A

inhibin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How may Leydig cells be identified?

A

Reinke’s crystals wtihin the cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How are clear cell carcinoma and endometrioid cancers related?

A

clear cell is a variant of endometrioid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is seen histologically with erythema nodosum?

A

vasculitis or small venules and panniculitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Aside from wasting of the lower limbs in Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease, what other muscles are affected?

A

small muscles of the hands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How is the diagnosis of acromegaly confirmed?

A

OGTT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is seen on OGTT with acromegaly?

A

non-suppression of growth hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are common triggers of psoriasis?

A

stress; infection; skin trauma; drugs; alcohol; obesity; smoking and climate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What drugs are triggers of psoriasis?

A

lithium; NSAIDs; beta-blockers; antimalarials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is first line mx of psoriasis?

A

topical vit D analogue e.g calcipotriol; emollients ; coal tar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is second line mx fo psoriasis?

A

topical steroids; retinoids or dithranol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What should you be careful about with dithranol?

A

avoid on normal skin and sensitive areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which patients are most likely to get intraventricular haemorrhages?

A

premature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How does hyperparathyroidism cause peptic ulcers?

A

increased calcium increased gastrin and ACh release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Waht is the effect on clotting and platelets with henoch schonelien purpura?

A

normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the visual defect with retinitis pigementosa?

A

tunnel vission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the visual field defect seen with internal capsular infarction?

A

homonymous hemianopia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is the mechanism of atropine?

A

anticholinergic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What ANCA is associated with Wegeners

A

cANCA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What ANCA is assocaited with EGPA and microscopic polyangiits?

A

pANCA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What other inflamatory condition is assocaited with pANCA?

A

UC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What drugs can be used in the mx of delirium tremens?

A

diazepam; beta-blockers; clonidine; carbamazepine and neuroleptics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What type of epithelium is seen at the transformation zone of the cervix?

A

non-keratinising stratified squamous epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the epithelium in the uterus?

A

simple columnar epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Waht is the effect of ciprofloxacin on warfarin?

A

prolongs the INR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What hormone produced by the placenta is lactogenic; regulates glucose metabolism and promotes fat breakdown?

A

human placental lactogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

When is puncate basophilia seen?

A

lead poisoning and beta thal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What causes pseudobulbar palsy?

A

bilateral UMN lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Waht is seen with Patterson-Kelly-Brown syndrome?

A

post-cricoid web

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is a SE of alpha-methyl dopa?

A

haemolytic anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which complement deficiencies are assocaited iwht HSP?

A

C1-4 deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the prognosis of FSGS

?

A

chronic renal failure in 50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the viral causes of FSGS?

A

HIV; parvovirus B19; CMV; EBV

46
Q

What drugs can cause FSGS?

A

heroin; IFN; lithium; pamidronate; anabolic steroids; calcineurin inhibitors

47
Q

What is the treatment for glucocorticoid resistant FSGS?

A

calcineurin inhibitor

48
Q

Is FSGS nephrotic or nephritic?

A

nephrotic

49
Q

What is seen in the limb O/E with neck of femur #?

A

short, externally rotated limb

50
Q

What level is the angle of Louis?

A

T4/5

51
Q

At what level does the carotid artery bifurcate?

A

C4

52
Q

When should extra precautions with the COC with antibiotic use be taken?

A

3 weeks

53
Q

What drug for thyrotoxicosis should be used in the first trimester?

A

PTU

54
Q

What drug should be used for hyperthyroidism in the 2nd and 3rd trimesters?

A

carbimazole

55
Q

What is cheiropopholyx?

A

form of eczema that affects the palms and soles and presents with blistering

56
Q

Is the diagnosis pemphigus or pemphigoid if there are intact blisters>

A

pemphigoid

57
Q

Why is there increased PT and APTT in DIC>

A

consumption of caogulation factors

58
Q

What i first line invesigation for renal carcinoma?

A

ultrasound

59
Q

What is the investigation for renal artery stenosis?

A

doppler US

60
Q

what temp are platelets stored at?

A

room-22 degrees

61
Q

what temp are red cells stored at?

A

4 degrees

62
Q

What temp is FFP and cryoprecipitate stored at?

A

-20

63
Q

What is Jervell-Lange-Neilson syndrome?

A

deafness and long QT syndrome

64
Q

What is the cause of white breath holding?

A

extreme vagal response

65
Q

What is the final stage of electron transport chain?

A

reduction of oxygen to water

66
Q

When does tubulointerstitial nephritis tend to occur?

A

within the first few days to months of taking a drug

67
Q

What other name is drug induced TIN known as?

A

allergic interstitial nephritis

68
Q

What is seen on bloods with allergic interstitial nephritis?

A

raised IgE and eosinophilia

69
Q

How can drug induced and other causes of TIN be differentiated on bloods?

A

drug induced- eosinophilia whereas other causes don’t

70
Q

What is misoprostol?

A

PG analogue

71
Q

What are the actions of misoprostol?

A

induction of labour; dilatation of the cervix; expulsion of products of conception

72
Q

What is hte maximum time since the LMP for mifepristone?

A

49 days

73
Q

What is the function of mifepristone?

A

partial agonist of progesterone; inhibits ovulation; sensitises endometrium to action of PGs

74
Q

What is the primary mode of action of dianette?

A

testosterone receptor antagonist

75
Q

What is seen on imaging with fibromuscular dysplasia?

A

string of beads with multiple obstructions and dilatations

76
Q

What is fibromuscular dysplasia associatedi wht?

A

carotid artery abnormalities; ehler-danlos syndrome and marfans syndrome

77
Q

When do calcium phosphate stones form?

A

in resposne to hypercalciuria

78
Q

What solute is used to monitor dialysis adequacy?

A

urea

79
Q

What is the mechanism of clomiphene citrate?

A

selective oestrogen receptor modulator

80
Q

What is the function of clomiphene citrate in PCOS infertility?

A

inhibits negative feedback on the hypothalamus

81
Q

Why is spironolactone used in PCOS?

A

potent antagonist at androgen receptors and reduces secondary virilisation

82
Q

What is volume of distritbution equal to?

A

amount of drug in body/plasma conc.

83
Q

What is hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia caharacterised by?

A

small dilated blood vessels on the oral and nasal mucosa

84
Q

Why does cyanosis occur in hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia?

A

pulmonary AVM

85
Q

What is alogia?

A

lack of spontaneous speech

86
Q

What is Asherman’s syndrome?

A

intrauterine adhesions/scarring or synechiae

87
Q

What is the end of the nerve fibre at the NMJ called?

A

motor end palte

88
Q

What neurotransmitter is found at the NMJ?

A

ACh

89
Q

Which muscles are typically affected first in myasthenia gravis?

A

eyes; mouth and throat

90
Q

What is a cause of spontaneous hypoglycaemia?

A

SU and insulinoma

91
Q

How is spontanoues hypoglycaemia proved?

A

prolonged fast

92
Q

What is Anton’s syndrome?

A

patient denies blind despite evidence to the contrary

93
Q

What is the effect on premenstrual syndrome with progesterone contraception?

A

exacerabtes

94
Q

How long is amenorrhea needded before pramture menopause diagnosis can be made?

A

12 months

95
Q

What does SAC in yolk sac stand for?

A

Schiller-duval bodies; increased AFP; children

96
Q

What do schiller duval bodies look like?

A

glomerulus or fried egg

97
Q

What does dysGERMANoma mean?

A

increased LDH and hcg- flag has 3 colours

98
Q

In a young patient with signs of both ovarian cancer adn hyperthyroidism what should ou think of?

A

teratoma- can produce thryoid tissue

99
Q

What is Meigs triad?

A

fibroma; ascites and pleural effusion

100
Q

How can fibroma and meigs triad be remembered?

A

fiBROma- who drinks loads of beer–beer belly looks like ascites

101
Q

Sertoli-LeyDIG tumours are associated iwth what histologically?

A

leyDIG for crystals (Reinke) (also virilisation cause of androgens)

102
Q

What is the mnemonic for granulosa theca cell tumours?

A

call Granny Exner- granulosa associated iwth call-exner bodies

103
Q

What hormone is increased in granulosa cell tumours?

A

oestrogen

104
Q

What is Brenner tumour?

A

=bladder-like

105
Q

What often precedes ITP?

A

recent infection

106
Q

What is the function of ADAMTS13?

A

inhibits vWF

107
Q

What is the classic cell with TTP?

A

shistiocytes

108
Q

Waht is the mnemonic for TTP

A

the terrible pentad

109
Q

What is the terrible pentad of TTP?

A

fever; neurologic; renal; anaemia; platelets

110
Q

What is the problem in TTP?

A

reduced ADAMTS13 resulting in reduced vWF

111
Q

What is the mnemonic for E.coli HUS?

A

Haemolysis; Uraemia; Stomach virus

112
Q

What is seen on peripheral smear with ITP?

A

large platelets

Transition Block (35 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions