16/04/18 Flashcards

1
Q

What attaches to the crista galli?

A

falx cerebri

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2
Q

What lies superior to the corpus callosum?

A

cingulate gyrus

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3
Q

What is the net yield of glycolysis?

A

2NADH and 2 ATP

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4
Q

What is the first step of glycolysis?

A

glucose to glucose-6-phosphate

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5
Q

What enzyme carries out the first step of glycolysis?

A

hexokinase

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6
Q

where is the isoenzyme of hexokinase, glucokinase found?

A

in thel iver

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7
Q

What enzyme does ATP allosterically inhibit?

A

phosphofuctokinase

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8
Q

Where is glycogen mainly stored in the body?

A

liver, to a lesser extent, muscles

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9
Q

What enzyme breaks down gylcogen?

A

glycogen phosphorylase

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10
Q

How many molecules of ATP does one hydrogen molecule produce?

A

3- each hydrogen pair reduces one atom of oxygen releasing 3 molecules of ATP

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11
Q

What gives the brain energy ?

A

glucose

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12
Q

Where does oxidation of fatty acids take place in the cell?

A

mitochondria

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13
Q

What coenzyme is produced by the beta-oxidation of fatty acids?

A

acetyl coA

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14
Q

Where is arachiodonic acid foudn in the cell?

A

attached to the cell membrane phospholipids by esterification

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15
Q

What enzyme can release arachiodonic acid from the cell membrane?

A

phospholipase A2

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16
Q

Give an example of a double stranded RNA virus?

A

rotavirus

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17
Q

What is BRCA2?

A

DNA repair protein

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18
Q

What is the function of pRb?

A

tumour suppressor proetin that inhibits cells from entering the S phase

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19
Q

What type of protein are Ras proteins?

A

proto-oncogenes- regulatino of cell signalling

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20
Q

What is the function of Myc?

A

transcription factor which facilitates the progression of the cell cyle- proto-oncogene

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21
Q

What is the precursor of oestrodiol?

A

testosterone

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22
Q

What is seen on serum biochemistry with osetopetrosis?

A

all normal

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23
Q

What enzyme is the rate-limiting factor in glycolysis?

A

phosphofructokinase

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24
Q

What does the trilaminar disc consist of?

A

ectoderm; endoderm; mesoderm

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25
When does the trilaminar disc form?
3rd week of development
26
How many pharyngeal arches are ther?
6 but the 5th arch regresses
27
What germ cell layer do the pharyngeal arches dervide from?
mesoderm
28
What germ cell layer does the urogenital system develop from?
mesoderm
29
What does the renal system develop from?
nephrogenic cord- metanephros
30
What is amniotic fluid formed from before keratinisation?
fluid passing across fetal skin
31
When do the kidneys start functioning the fetus?
week 12
32
What is hte main protein in amniotic fluid?
albumin
33
What is a low sperm count defined as?
<15 million/ml
34
What is compaction in emrbyology?
stage of cell diviosn wehn the cell flattens out and it becomes impossible to determine cell outlines- leads to formation of the morula
35
What is produced from the ectoderm?
nervous system and skin epidermis
36
What germ cell layer does the GI tract derive from?
endoderm
37
What cells give rise to the chorionic villi?
extraembyronic mesoderm
38
Apart from the nervous system, whwat else does the neural crest give rise to?
melanocytes
39
What is the function of hte primitive streak?
determiens symmetry of the developing embryo
40
What is clitoris formed from?
genital tubercle
41
Which sex do the gonads form from the paramesonephric ducts?
female
42
What is the ligamentum venosum a remnant of?
ductus venosus
43
What is the function of hte vitelline veins?
take blood away form the yolk sac
44
What is the correlation between the thyroid and hyperemesis gravidarum?
associated with high levels of free T3 and T4 and reduced TSH
45
What may there be a decrease in TSH in the first trimester?
beta-HCG has thyrotrophic activty leading to increase thyroid activity and negative feedback on hypiothalamus
46
What cells produce PTH?
chief cells of the parathyroid glands
47
Why may prolactin be increase in priamry hypothyroidism?
release in reposne to TRH- which is increase in hypothyroidism
48
What is seen with PRL levels following an epileptic seizure?
can be raised
49
Where does the isthmus lie in realtion to the tracheal rings?
anterior the tracheal rings 2-4
50
What is the majority of cortisol bound to in plasma?
cortisol-binding globulin
51
Where is renin secreted from?
juxtaglomerular cells of the macuka densa of the kidney
52
What is Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome?
haemorrhage into the adrenal cortex as a result of fulminant meningococcaemia
53
What is the main oestrogen postmenopause?
oestrone
54
What are the 3 types of oestrogen?
oestrone; oestriol; oestradiol
55
Whcih cells in the ovary produce testosterone?
theca cells
56
Whicch cells produce oestradiol?
granulosa cells
57
What stimualtes the completion of the first meiotic divison in the oocytes?
LH surge
58
What type of hormone are FSH and LH?
glyoprotein
59
What is thelarche?
breast development
60
What is adrenarche?
pubic hair growth
61
What is Tanner staging?
grading of pubertal developmetn
62
What does the term climacteric mean?
time from woman experiencing classic menopausal symptoms up until cessation of periods
63
Where is oxytocin stored?
posterior pituitary
64
What type of hormone are oxytocin and vasopressin?
nonapeptide
65
What produces human placental lactogen?
placenta syncytiotrophoblast
66
What type of hormone is hCG?
peptide
67
What is the function of hCG early on in pregnancy?
maintains the corpus luteum and stimulates it to produce progesterone
68
What other name is the posterior pituitary known as?
neurohypophysis
69
What does GH release stimulate the relase of ?
insulin like growth factors
70
What is the effect of insulin on lipolysis?
suppresses
71
What is the function of 21 hydroxlase?
production of glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids
72
What is the first step of steroid synthesis?
conversion of cholesterol to pregnelone
73
What does complete or partial suppression indicate in the high dose dexamethasone test?
Cushing's disease- pituitary
74
What is the first step in the production of catecholamines?
conversion of tyrosine to L-dopa
75
What is the effect of progesterone on the respiratory system?
increases respiratory drive
76
How is fragile X syndrome inherited?
X-linked dominant
77
What is a microdeletion?
loss of a small subset of genes which are found adjacent to each otehr on a chromosome
78
What does reduced PAPP-A mean?
suggests a fetus with aneuploidy or IUGR
79
How are the BRCA genes inherited?
autosomal dominant
80
What is familial Down's syndrome caused by?
Robertsonian translocation
81
What is the problem with Hb Bart's?
high affinity for oxygen and so little oxygen delivery capacity
82
what is Hb Barts?
gamma tetramer
83
What is HbH?
beta tetramer
84
What is the function of sertoli cells?
spermatogenesis
85
Where is ACE produced?
lungs and kidneys
86
What is luteoplacental shift?
placenta takes over progesterone production from the aging corpus luteum
87
What does the corpus luteum become?
corpus albicans
88
Why is oxytocin associated with hyponatraemia?
similar structure to vasopressin
89
What are the actions of ergometrine?
serotonin, dopaminergic and alpha-adrenergic agonist
90
What is syntometrine?
ergometrine and oxytocin
91
Why is ergometrine CI in preeclampsia?
causes vasconstriction and hypertension
92
Why is left-axis deviation on ECG in pregnnacy?
increased stroke volume and CO leads to hypertrophy of the left side of the heart and displacement to the left due to uterus pushing on diaphragm
93
Aside from left-axis deviation, what other changes happen in the ECG in pregnnacy
T wave inversion/falttening in lead III; Q waves in aVF and III
94
What is pulmonary surfactant primarily composed of?
lipids
95
What nerves supply the intrathoracic muscles?
T1-T11
96
What nerve supplies the aortic arch receptors?
vagus
97
What is main lipoprotein manufactured in the liver?
VLDL
98
What is the mainmechanism of the progesteron-only pill?
thickens cervical mucous
99
What clotting factors are increased in pregnancy?
VII; VIII and X
100
How is stroke volume calculated?
end diastolic volume-end systolic volume
101
What is Mittelschmerz thought to be caused by?
release of follicular fluid at ovulation leading to peritoneal irritation
102
Why does HbF have a higher affinity for oxygen than HbA?
doesn't bind 2,3 DPG
103
What is cavitation in imaging?
formation of gas cavities wtihin tissues secondary to ultrasound
104
What is the normal QT length?
0.35-0.42s
105
When should HSG be performed?
during the follicular phase and within 10 days of menstruation to prevent radiation to an early embryo
106
What are the main concerns surrounding US?
thermal effects related to the heating of local tissue
107
What is assessed in biophysical assessment of a fetus?
fetal tone, breathing, movement, HR and amniotic fluid index
108
At what crown-rump length should the fetal heart be visible?
>2mm
109
What is acoustic impedence?
opposition to the passage of sound waves and is a function of density and elasticity
110
When should external cephalic version be offered?
breech at 36 weeks
111
What contraceptive is CI in patietns with a BMI >35 with no other RF?
OCP
112
What is the best way for auscultation of the fetal heart between 24 and 28 weeks?
doppler
113
Whabt is the best way to assess fetal well-being after 28 weeks?
CTG
114
What syndrome is associated with osteoma?
Gardner's syndrome/ FAP- sitting in the garden saying om (osteoma)
115
What feature is shared by both osteoid osteom and osteoblastoma?
central nidus
116
Why is an osteoid osteoma painful?
produces prostaglandins
117
What tumour is associated with relief with NSAIDs?
osteoid osteoma
118
Where does an osteoid osetoma typically occur?
distal end of the femur (kick someone in the knee- oo (pain)
119
What other name is a giant cell tumour called?
osteoclastoma
120
what is seen on xray with giant cell tumour?
soap bubble (if in prison and drop the soap, get a giant surprise)
121
where are giant cell tumours found?
long bone epiphyses
122
What is the most common bone tumour?
most common benign tumour
123
Why must osteochondromas be removed?
risk of malignant transformation to chondrosarcoma
124
What is the translocation associated with Ewing's sacroma?
11/22 ( basketball player- 33); Ew an onion- onion skin sign
125
What disease may give rise to osteosarcoma?
Paget's disease of the bone
126
Where are osteosarcomas found?
metaphysis
127
What are the 3 phases of Paget's disease of the bone?
osteolytic; mixed and osteosclerotic
128
What is the pattern seen on histology with Paget's?
mosaic pattern
129
What tumours are related to familial reintoblastoma (Rb mutation)
eye and bone-osteosarcoma
130
What is seen on osteosarcoma?
sunburst pattern/sunray spiculation
131
Which epicondyle does the radial nerve pass in front of?
lateral epicondyle
132
What nerve is affected in saturday night palsy?
radial nerve
133
What nerve passes over the supracondylar process?
median
134
What are hte features of a CAMS assessment?
acute onset and fluctuating course; inattention; disorganised thinking; altered level of consicousness