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Transition Block > 16/04/18 > Flashcards

16/04/18 Flashcards

1
Q

What attaches to the crista galli?

A

falx cerebri

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2
Q

What lies superior to the corpus callosum?

A

cingulate gyrus

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3
Q

What is the net yield of glycolysis?

A

2NADH and 2 ATP

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4
Q

What is the first step of glycolysis?

A

glucose to glucose-6-phosphate

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5
Q

What enzyme carries out the first step of glycolysis?

A

hexokinase

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6
Q

where is the isoenzyme of hexokinase, glucokinase found?

A

in thel iver

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7
Q

What enzyme does ATP allosterically inhibit?

A

phosphofuctokinase

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8
Q

Where is glycogen mainly stored in the body?

A

liver, to a lesser extent, muscles

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9
Q

What enzyme breaks down gylcogen?

A

glycogen phosphorylase

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10
Q

How many molecules of ATP does one hydrogen molecule produce?

A

3- each hydrogen pair reduces one atom of oxygen releasing 3 molecules of ATP

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11
Q

What gives the brain energy ?

A

glucose

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12
Q

Where does oxidation of fatty acids take place in the cell?

A

mitochondria

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13
Q

What coenzyme is produced by the beta-oxidation of fatty acids?

A

acetyl coA

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14
Q

Where is arachiodonic acid foudn in the cell?

A

attached to the cell membrane phospholipids by esterification

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15
Q

What enzyme can release arachiodonic acid from the cell membrane?

A

phospholipase A2

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16
Q

Give an example of a double stranded RNA virus?

A

rotavirus

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17
Q

What is BRCA2?

A

DNA repair protein

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18
Q

What is the function of pRb?

A

tumour suppressor proetin that inhibits cells from entering the S phase

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19
Q

What type of protein are Ras proteins?

A

proto-oncogenes- regulatino of cell signalling

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20
Q

What is the function of Myc?

A

transcription factor which facilitates the progression of the cell cyle- proto-oncogene

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21
Q

What is the precursor of oestrodiol?

A

testosterone

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22
Q

What is seen on serum biochemistry with osetopetrosis?

A

all normal

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23
Q

What enzyme is the rate-limiting factor in glycolysis?

A

phosphofructokinase

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24
Q

What does the trilaminar disc consist of?

A

ectoderm; endoderm; mesoderm

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25
Q

When does the trilaminar disc form?

A

3rd week of development

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26
Q

How many pharyngeal arches are ther?

A

6 but the 5th arch regresses

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27
Q

What germ cell layer do the pharyngeal arches dervide from?

A

mesoderm

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28
Q

What germ cell layer does the urogenital system develop from?

A

mesoderm

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29
Q

What does the renal system develop from?

A

nephrogenic cord- metanephros

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30
Q

What is amniotic fluid formed from before keratinisation?

A

fluid passing across fetal skin

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31
Q

When do the kidneys start functioning the fetus?

A

week 12

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32
Q

What is hte main protein in amniotic fluid?

A

albumin

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33
Q

What is a low sperm count defined as?

A

<15 million/ml

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34
Q

What is compaction in emrbyology?

A

stage of cell diviosn wehn the cell flattens out and it becomes impossible to determine cell outlines- leads to formation of the morula

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35
Q

What is produced from the ectoderm?

A

nervous system and skin epidermis

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36
Q

What germ cell layer does the GI tract derive from?

A

endoderm

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37
Q

What cells give rise to the chorionic villi?

A

extraembyronic mesoderm

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38
Q

Apart from the nervous system, whwat else does the neural crest give rise to?

A

melanocytes

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39
Q

What is the function of hte primitive streak?

A

determiens symmetry of the developing embryo

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40
Q

What is clitoris formed from?

A

genital tubercle

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41
Q

Which sex do the gonads form from the paramesonephric ducts?

A

female

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42
Q

What is the ligamentum venosum a remnant of?

A

ductus venosus

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43
Q

What is the function of hte vitelline veins?

A

take blood away form the yolk sac

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44
Q

What is the correlation between the thyroid and hyperemesis gravidarum?

A

associated with high levels of free T3 and T4 and reduced TSH

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45
Q

What may there be a decrease in TSH in the first trimester?

A

beta-HCG has thyrotrophic activty leading to increase thyroid activity and negative feedback on hypiothalamus

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46
Q

What cells produce PTH?

A

chief cells of the parathyroid glands

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47
Q

Why may prolactin be increase in priamry hypothyroidism?

A

release in reposne to TRH- which is increase in hypothyroidism

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48
Q

What is seen with PRL levels following an epileptic seizure?

A

can be raised

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49
Q

Where does the isthmus lie in realtion to the tracheal rings?

A

anterior the tracheal rings 2-4

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50
Q

What is the majority of cortisol bound to in plasma?

A

cortisol-binding globulin

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51
Q

Where is renin secreted from?

A

juxtaglomerular cells of the macuka densa of the kidney

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52
Q

What is Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome?

A

haemorrhage into the adrenal cortex as a result of fulminant meningococcaemia

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53
Q

What is the main oestrogen postmenopause?

A

oestrone

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54
Q

What are the 3 types of oestrogen?

A

oestrone; oestriol; oestradiol

55
Q

Whcih cells in the ovary produce testosterone?

A

theca cells

56
Q

Whicch cells produce oestradiol?

A

granulosa cells

57
Q

What stimualtes the completion of the first meiotic divison in the oocytes?

A

LH surge

58
Q

What type of hormone are FSH and LH?

A

glyoprotein

59
Q

What is thelarche?

A

breast development

60
Q

What is adrenarche?

A

pubic hair growth

61
Q

What is Tanner staging?

A

grading of pubertal developmetn

62
Q

What does the term climacteric mean?

A

time from woman experiencing classic menopausal symptoms up until cessation of periods

63
Q

Where is oxytocin stored?

A

posterior pituitary

64
Q

What type of hormone are oxytocin and vasopressin?

A

nonapeptide

65
Q

What produces human placental lactogen?

A

placenta syncytiotrophoblast

66
Q

What type of hormone is hCG?

A

peptide

67
Q

What is the function of hCG early on in pregnancy?

A

maintains the corpus luteum and stimulates it to produce progesterone

68
Q

What other name is the posterior pituitary known as?

A

neurohypophysis

69
Q

What does GH release stimulate the relase of ?

A

insulin like growth factors

70
Q

What is the effect of insulin on lipolysis?

A

suppresses

71
Q

What is the function of 21 hydroxlase?

A

production of glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids

72
Q

What is the first step of steroid synthesis?

A

conversion of cholesterol to pregnelone

73
Q

What does complete or partial suppression indicate in the high dose dexamethasone test?

A

Cushing’s disease- pituitary

74
Q

What is the first step in the production of catecholamines?

A

conversion of tyrosine to L-dopa

75
Q

What is the effect of progesterone on the respiratory system?

A

increases respiratory drive

76
Q

How is fragile X syndrome inherited?

A

X-linked dominant

77
Q

What is a microdeletion?

A

loss of a small subset of genes which are found adjacent to each otehr on a chromosome

78
Q

What does reduced PAPP-A mean?

A

suggests a fetus with aneuploidy or IUGR

79
Q

How are the BRCA genes inherited?

A

autosomal dominant

80
Q

What is familial Down’s syndrome caused by?

A

Robertsonian translocation

81
Q

What is the problem with Hb Bart’s?

A

high affinity for oxygen and so little oxygen delivery capacity

82
Q

what is Hb Barts?

A

gamma tetramer

83
Q

What is HbH?

A

beta tetramer

84
Q

What is the function of sertoli cells?

A

spermatogenesis

85
Q

Where is ACE produced?

A

lungs and kidneys

86
Q

What is luteoplacental shift?

A

placenta takes over progesterone production from the aging corpus luteum

87
Q

What does the corpus luteum become?

A

corpus albicans

88
Q

Why is oxytocin associated with hyponatraemia?

A

similar structure to vasopressin

89
Q

What are the actions of ergometrine?

A

serotonin, dopaminergic and alpha-adrenergic agonist

90
Q

What is syntometrine?

A

ergometrine and oxytocin

91
Q

Why is ergometrine CI in preeclampsia?

A

causes vasconstriction and hypertension

92
Q

Why is left-axis deviation on ECG in pregnnacy?

A

increased stroke volume and CO leads to hypertrophy of the left side of the heart and displacement to the left due to uterus pushing on diaphragm

93
Q

Aside from left-axis deviation, what other changes happen in the ECG in pregnnacy

A

T wave inversion/falttening in lead III; Q waves in aVF and III

94
Q

What is pulmonary surfactant primarily composed of?

A

lipids

95
Q

What nerves supply the intrathoracic muscles?

A

T1-T11

96
Q

What nerve supplies the aortic arch receptors?

A

vagus

97
Q

What is main lipoprotein manufactured in the liver?

A

VLDL

98
Q

What is the mainmechanism of the progesteron-only pill?

A

thickens cervical mucous

99
Q

What clotting factors are increased in pregnancy?

A

VII; VIII and X

100
Q

How is stroke volume calculated?

A

end diastolic volume-end systolic volume

101
Q

What is Mittelschmerz thought to be caused by?

A

release of follicular fluid at ovulation leading to peritoneal irritation

102
Q

Why does HbF have a higher affinity for oxygen than HbA?

A

doesn’t bind 2,3 DPG

103
Q

What is cavitation in imaging?

A

formation of gas cavities wtihin tissues secondary to ultrasound

104
Q

What is the normal QT length?

A

0.35-0.42s

105
Q

When should HSG be performed?

A

during the follicular phase and within 10 days of menstruation to prevent radiation to an early embryo

106
Q

What are the main concerns surrounding US?

A

thermal effects related to the heating of local tissue

107
Q

What is assessed in biophysical assessment of a fetus?

A

fetal tone, breathing, movement, HR and amniotic fluid index

108
Q

At what crown-rump length should the fetal heart be visible?

A

> 2mm

109
Q

What is acoustic impedence?

A

opposition to the passage of sound waves and is a function of density and elasticity

110
Q

When should external cephalic version be offered?

A

breech at 36 weeks

111
Q

What contraceptive is CI in patietns with a BMI >35 with no other RF?

A

OCP

112
Q

What is the best way for auscultation of the fetal heart between 24 and 28 weeks?

A

doppler

113
Q

Whabt is the best way to assess fetal well-being after 28 weeks?

A

CTG

114
Q

What syndrome is associated with osteoma?

A

Gardner’s syndrome/ FAP- sitting in the garden saying om (osteoma)

115
Q

What feature is shared by both osteoid osteom and osteoblastoma?

A

central nidus

116
Q

Why is an osteoid osteoma painful?

A

produces prostaglandins

117
Q

What tumour is associated with relief with NSAIDs?

A

osteoid osteoma

118
Q

Where does an osteoid osetoma typically occur?

A

distal end of the femur (kick someone in the knee- oo (pain)

119
Q

What other name is a giant cell tumour called?

A

osteoclastoma

120
Q

what is seen on xray with giant cell tumour?

A

soap bubble (if in prison and drop the soap, get a giant surprise)

121
Q

where are giant cell tumours found?

A

long bone epiphyses

122
Q

What is the most common bone tumour?

A

most common benign tumour

123
Q

Why must osteochondromas be removed?

A

risk of malignant transformation to chondrosarcoma

124
Q

What is the translocation associated with Ewing’s sacroma?

A

11/22 ( basketball player- 33); Ew an onion- onion skin sign

125
Q

What disease may give rise to osteosarcoma?

A

Paget’s disease of the bone

126
Q

Where are osteosarcomas found?

A

metaphysis

127
Q

What are the 3 phases of Paget’s disease of the bone?

A

osteolytic; mixed and osteosclerotic

128
Q

What is the pattern seen on histology with Paget’s?

A

mosaic pattern

129
Q

What tumours are related to familial reintoblastoma (Rb mutation)

A

eye and bone-osteosarcoma

130
Q

What is seen on osteosarcoma?

A

sunburst pattern/sunray spiculation

131
Q

Which epicondyle does the radial nerve pass in front of?

A

lateral epicondyle

132
Q

What nerve is affected in saturday night palsy?

A

radial nerve

133
Q

What nerve passes over the supracondylar process?

A

median

134
Q

What are hte features of a CAMS assessment?

A

acute onset and fluctuating course; inattention; disorganised thinking; altered level of consicousness

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