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Transition Block > 15/04/18 > Flashcards

15/04/18 Flashcards

1
Q

What is typically seen with the vertebral bodies in Paget’s disease?

A

picture frame appearance (thickening of the cortex)

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2
Q

What are the common causes of ivory vertebra- uniformly dense vertebral bodies?

A

breast cancer in females or prostate cancer in male

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3
Q

What is seen in the vertebral bodies with renal osteodystrophy?

A

alternating black and white stripes- rugger jersey spine

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4
Q

What is Boerhaave’s syndrome?

A

pneumomediastinum from ruptured eosophagus

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5
Q

What is the bat-wing appearance?

A

bilateral diffuse airspace disease more marekdly central than at periphery

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6
Q

What does a linear lucency in the contrast-filled aorta indicate?

A

intimal flap of an aortic dissection

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7
Q

What is seen on CXR with aortic dissection?

A

widened mediastinum; left pleural effusion and chest pain

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8
Q

What is the most common cervical spine fracture?

A

hangmans #- C2

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9
Q

When would measurement of SFH be inaccurate?

A

BMI >35; large fibroids; hydramnios

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10
Q

What should be done if a baby plaots below 10th centile in SFH?

A

ultrasound measurement of fetal size

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11
Q

How can a SGA fetus be diagnosed?

A

fetal abdo circumefrence or esteimated fetal weight <10th centil

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12
Q

What is the management of SGA fetus?

A

serial assessment of fetal size and umbilical artery doppler

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13
Q

What is management of severe SGA if identified at the 18-20 week scan?

A

detailed fetal anatomical survey and uterine artery doppler

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14
Q

What is schizoaffective disorder?

A

features of bipolar disorder and schizophrenia in same episode

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15
Q

What do you ask in a 4AT?

A

alertness; age; DOB; place; current year; attention; acute change

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16
Q

How is self-digestion in the pancreas prevented?

A

enzymes are stored as pro-enzymes required activation by trypsin; intracelllular pH and calcium keeps enzymes inactive

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17
Q

What is typically seen with alcoholic hepatitis in LFTs?

A

AST:ALT ratio >1.5

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18
Q

What are Mallory bodies?

A

cytoplasmic acculumation of cytoskeletal materal

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19
Q

What does delayed passage of meconium in a newborn suggest?

A

CF; hypothyroidism; Hirschprungs

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20
Q

What is the most common type of prostate cancer?

A

adenocarcinoma

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21
Q

What scale is used to grade prostate cancers?

A

Gleason score

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22
Q

What hormonal drugs are used in prostate cancer?

A

LHRH agonists; anti-androgens eg cyproterone acetate

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23
Q

What are the tumour markers for seminoma?

A

PLAP and LDH; betaHCG (a little)

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24
Q

What tumour marker would indicate a yolk sac tumour?

A

AFP

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25
What would really high beta HCG mean in testicular tumours?
choriocarcinoma
26
What are the tumour markers for teratoma?
aren't any
27
What is the most common type of testicular cancer?
seminoma
28
What is the treatment for seminomas?
very radiosensitive
29
What is the typical shape of nuclei in fibroids?
cigar shapewd
30
What is the mechanism of valproate?
decrease Na channels; increase GABA
31
What are the important SE of valproate?
ALL PRO- anaemia; liver; pancreatitis; rO- neural tube defect
32
What is the imagine investigation in epilepsy?
MRI
33
What is first line for focal seizures?
carbamazepine or lamotrigine
34
What is the mechanism of phenytoin?
decrease voltage gated sodium channels - if they dont salt the roads, your car will need a toin
35
What is fetal hydantoin syndrome
cleft palate; hypoplasia of head ; heart defects; neurological deficits
36
Waht drug causes fetal hydantoin syndrome?
phenytoin
37
What is the mecahnism of ethosuximide?
decreased T-type calcium
38
What is first line for absence seizure?
valproate or ethosuximide
39
Waht is the main SE of ethosuximide?
SJS
40
What anti-epileptics drugs cause SJS?
ethosuximide; carbamazepine; lamotrigine (ethan; carl; larry; steven and johnson
41
What is the mechanism of carbamazepine?
increase the refractory period of voltage gated sodium channels
42
What is the treatment for trigeminal neuralgia?
carbamazepine- chew carbs with your cheek
43
What are the SE of carbamazepine?
blurred vision; dpilopia; SIADh; leucopenia; ataxia; SJS
44
What is the mechanism of lamotrigine?
inhibits voltage gated sodium channels and glutamate- lame-o
45
What drug should be avoided in absence seizures?
carbamazepine
46
What is the mechanism of BZDs?
increase frequency of chloride channel opening by increasing GABAs
47
What is the mechanism of barbiturates?
increase GABA by icnreasing duration of chloride - barbiDURate
48
Where is the lesion in global weakness in stroke?
brainstem
49
Where are CNs that divide evenly into 12 found generally in the brainstem?
midline
50
Where are CNs that don't divide evenly into 12 found generally in the brainstem?
lateral
51
Where are the brainstem motor syndromes?
midline
52
Where are sensory syndromes?
side
53
What is the function of the solitary nucleus?
baroreceptors and chemoreceptors (solitary guy thinking of love-heart)
54
Waht is the function of the ambiguus?
muscles of hte pharynx etc
55
What usually causes variable decelerations?
umbilical cord compression
56
What is a reassuring amount of variability on a CTG?
5-25bpm fo r30 mins
57
What is fetal bradycardia defined as?
baseline HR <100bpm for 3 mins
58
What is a deceleration on CTG?
abrupt decrease in baseline HR for >15bpm for >15s
59
When do late decels begin and end?
begin at the peak of uterine contraction and recover after the contractio n ends
60
What does a late decl mean?
insufficient blood flow to the uterus nad placenta
61
What are the causes of reduced uteroplacental blood flow?
materanl hypotension; pre-eclampsia; uterine hyperstimulation
62
What is a prolonged decelation?
lasts more tohan 2 minutes
63
What is the most common cause of reduced variability?
fetal sleeping
64
what is the maximum length of fetal sleeping?
40 minutes
65
What are hte risk factors for uterine rupture?
previous CS; high parity; uterine abnormalities; induction of labour
66
What drains into the superior meatus?
posteiror ethmoid sinuses
67
What drains into the sphenoethmoidal recess
sphenoid sinus
68
What drains in to the ethmoidal bulla?
middle ethmoidal air cells
69
Waht is a delusional mood?
patient fells there is something going on aroudn them but cannot describe what
70
Waht nerve innervates the supinator muscle?
radial nerve
71
What is the most appropriate initial mx of rhabdomyloysis?
IV fluids
72
How do beta-blockers cause hyperkalaemia?
similar to how beta-agonist cause potassium to move intracellularly , beta blockers top this
73
How does heparin cause hyperkalaemia?
inhibiting aldosterone synthesis
74
What is mallet finger?
closed avulasion injury of the extensor tendon of the distal phalanx
75
What are pendular reflexes?
less brisk and slower in rise and fall
76
What is the mode of action of vasopressin?
V1 receptor activity in vascular smooth muscle increasing intracellular calcium
77
What type of environment is needed for osteoclasts to reomve clacium from bone?
acidic
78
What are the CI for sumatriptan?
coronary artery disease
79
What are the main anion and cations of the intracellular compartment?
potassium and phosphate
80
What is pareidolia?
individual perceives a visual picture in an otherwise vague or obscure stimulus
81
What contraception is CI in obstetric cholestasis?
anything with oestrogen -COC
82
What is the pathogeneis of pemphgus vulgairs?
IgG against desmoglein
83
Where are desmosomes located in the epidermis?
stratum spinosum
84
What is the MOA of carbidopa?
inhibits DOPA decarboxylase
85
What feeling do patients with borderline personality disorder tend to have?
chronic feeling of emptiness
86
What is in the history of patients with borderline perrsonality?
emotional instaibilty and impulsive behaviour- intensve and unstable short relationships leading to emtioanl crises
87
What is a histrionic personality disorder?
shallow and labile affectivity; self-dramatisation; continual seeking of appreciation
88
What is the most common cause of PPH?
uterine atony
89
What drug causes darkening nad lengthening of the eyelashes?
prostaglandins
90
What does the absence of reintal venous pulsations suggest?
raised ICP
91
What is Pirfenidone used for?
IPF
92
What days of a 28 day cycle are most fertile?
days 9-16
93
What is Uhthoff's phnoemenon?
heat sensitivity
94
What is 1st line treatment for TTP?
oral steroid for 3 weeks
95
What is MOA of atropine?
anticholinergic
96
What is found in Calot's triangle?
cystic artery and cytic duct
97
What are the 3 boundaries of Calot's triangle?
cystic duct; common hepatic duct; inferior surface of the liver
98
Where do the trunks of the brachial plexus form?
posteiror triangle of the neck
99
what part of hte brachial plexus is found deep to the clavicle?
divisions
100
What is the most common nerve to be affected in trigeminal neuralgia?
V3 >V2 > V1
101
What nerve passes through the superficial inguinal ring?
ilioinguinal nerve
102
What does the ilioinguinal nerve supply?
mons pubis and labia majora
103
What muscle makes up the bulk of levator ani?
pubococcygeus
104
What is formed from the posterior division of L2-4?
femoral artery
105
What is formed from the anteiror divison of L2-4?
obturator nerve
106
Where do ureters cross the iliac vessels?
close to the bifurcation of the common iliacs
107
What nerve supplies the vagina?
perineal nerve- a branch of the pudendal
108
What are the 3 terminal branches of the abdominal aorta?
common iliacs and middle sacral artery
109
What vertebral level does the abdo aorta bifurcate?
L4
110
What muscle in females does not insert into the perineal body?
ischiocavernous

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