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Transition Block > 15/04/18 > Flashcards

15/04/18 Flashcards

1
Q

What is typically seen with the vertebral bodies in Paget’s disease?

A

picture frame appearance (thickening of the cortex)

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2
Q

What are the common causes of ivory vertebra- uniformly dense vertebral bodies?

A

breast cancer in females or prostate cancer in male

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3
Q

What is seen in the vertebral bodies with renal osteodystrophy?

A

alternating black and white stripes- rugger jersey spine

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4
Q

What is Boerhaave’s syndrome?

A

pneumomediastinum from ruptured eosophagus

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5
Q

What is the bat-wing appearance?

A

bilateral diffuse airspace disease more marekdly central than at periphery

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6
Q

What does a linear lucency in the contrast-filled aorta indicate?

A

intimal flap of an aortic dissection

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7
Q

What is seen on CXR with aortic dissection?

A

widened mediastinum; left pleural effusion and chest pain

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8
Q

What is the most common cervical spine fracture?

A

hangmans #- C2

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9
Q

When would measurement of SFH be inaccurate?

A

BMI >35; large fibroids; hydramnios

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10
Q

What should be done if a baby plaots below 10th centile in SFH?

A

ultrasound measurement of fetal size

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11
Q

How can a SGA fetus be diagnosed?

A

fetal abdo circumefrence or esteimated fetal weight <10th centil

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12
Q

What is the management of SGA fetus?

A

serial assessment of fetal size and umbilical artery doppler

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13
Q

What is management of severe SGA if identified at the 18-20 week scan?

A

detailed fetal anatomical survey and uterine artery doppler

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14
Q

What is schizoaffective disorder?

A

features of bipolar disorder and schizophrenia in same episode

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15
Q

What do you ask in a 4AT?

A

alertness; age; DOB; place; current year; attention; acute change

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16
Q

How is self-digestion in the pancreas prevented?

A

enzymes are stored as pro-enzymes required activation by trypsin; intracelllular pH and calcium keeps enzymes inactive

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17
Q

What is typically seen with alcoholic hepatitis in LFTs?

A

AST:ALT ratio >1.5

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18
Q

What are Mallory bodies?

A

cytoplasmic acculumation of cytoskeletal materal

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19
Q

What does delayed passage of meconium in a newborn suggest?

A

CF; hypothyroidism; Hirschprungs

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20
Q

What is the most common type of prostate cancer?

A

adenocarcinoma

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21
Q

What scale is used to grade prostate cancers?

A

Gleason score

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22
Q

What hormonal drugs are used in prostate cancer?

A

LHRH agonists; anti-androgens eg cyproterone acetate

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23
Q

What are the tumour markers for seminoma?

A

PLAP and LDH; betaHCG (a little)

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24
Q

What tumour marker would indicate a yolk sac tumour?

A

AFP

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25
Q

What would really high beta HCG mean in testicular tumours?

A

choriocarcinoma

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26
Q

What are the tumour markers for teratoma?

A

aren’t any

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27
Q

What is the most common type of testicular cancer?

A

seminoma

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28
Q

What is the treatment for seminomas?

A

very radiosensitive

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29
Q

What is the typical shape of nuclei in fibroids?

A

cigar shapewd

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30
Q

What is the mechanism of valproate?

A

decrease Na channels; increase GABA

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31
Q

What are the important SE of valproate?

A

ALL PRO- anaemia; liver; pancreatitis; rO- neural tube defect

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32
Q

What is the imagine investigation in epilepsy?

A

MRI

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33
Q

What is first line for focal seizures?

A

carbamazepine or lamotrigine

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34
Q

What is the mechanism of phenytoin?

A

decrease voltage gated sodium channels - if they dont salt the roads, your car will need a toin

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35
Q

What is fetal hydantoin syndrome

A

cleft palate; hypoplasia of head ; heart defects; neurological deficits

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36
Q

Waht drug causes fetal hydantoin syndrome?

A

phenytoin

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37
Q

What is the mecahnism of ethosuximide?

A

decreased T-type calcium

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38
Q

What is first line for absence seizure?

A

valproate or ethosuximide

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39
Q

Waht is the main SE of ethosuximide?

A

SJS

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40
Q

What anti-epileptics drugs cause SJS?

A

ethosuximide; carbamazepine; lamotrigine (ethan; carl; larry; steven and johnson

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41
Q

What is the mechanism of carbamazepine?

A

increase the refractory period of voltage gated sodium channels

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42
Q

What is the treatment for trigeminal neuralgia?

A

carbamazepine- chew carbs with your cheek

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43
Q

What are the SE of carbamazepine?

A

blurred vision; dpilopia; SIADh; leucopenia; ataxia; SJS

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44
Q

What is the mechanism of lamotrigine?

A

inhibits voltage gated sodium channels and glutamate- lame-o

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45
Q

What drug should be avoided in absence seizures?

A

carbamazepine

46
Q

What is the mechanism of BZDs?

A

increase frequency of chloride channel opening by increasing GABAs

47
Q

What is the mechanism of barbiturates?

A

increase GABA by icnreasing duration of chloride - barbiDURate

48
Q

Where is the lesion in global weakness in stroke?

A

brainstem

49
Q

Where are CNs that divide evenly into 12 found generally in the brainstem?

A

midline

50
Q

Where are CNs that don’t divide evenly into 12 found generally in the brainstem?

A

lateral

51
Q

Where are the brainstem motor syndromes?

A

midline

52
Q

Where are sensory syndromes?

A

side

53
Q

What is the function of the solitary nucleus?

A

baroreceptors and chemoreceptors (solitary guy thinking of love-heart)

54
Q

Waht is the function of the ambiguus?

A

muscles of hte pharynx etc

55
Q

What usually causes variable decelerations?

A

umbilical cord compression

56
Q

What is a reassuring amount of variability on a CTG?

A

5-25bpm fo r30 mins

57
Q

What is fetal bradycardia defined as?

A

baseline HR <100bpm for 3 mins

58
Q

What is a deceleration on CTG?

A

abrupt decrease in baseline HR for >15bpm for >15s

59
Q

When do late decels begin and end?

A

begin at the peak of uterine contraction and recover after the contractio n ends

60
Q

What does a late decl mean?

A

insufficient blood flow to the uterus nad placenta

61
Q

What are the causes of reduced uteroplacental blood flow?

A

materanl hypotension; pre-eclampsia; uterine hyperstimulation

62
Q

What is a prolonged decelation?

A

lasts more tohan 2 minutes

63
Q

What is the most common cause of reduced variability?

A

fetal sleeping

64
Q

what is the maximum length of fetal sleeping?

A

40 minutes

65
Q

What are hte risk factors for uterine rupture?

A

previous CS; high parity; uterine abnormalities; induction of labour

66
Q

What drains into the superior meatus?

A

posteiror ethmoid sinuses

67
Q

What drains into the sphenoethmoidal recess

A

sphenoid sinus

68
Q

What drains in to the ethmoidal bulla?

A

middle ethmoidal air cells

69
Q

Waht is a delusional mood?

A

patient fells there is something going on aroudn them but cannot describe what

70
Q

Waht nerve innervates the supinator muscle?

A

radial nerve

71
Q

What is the most appropriate initial mx of rhabdomyloysis?

A

IV fluids

72
Q

How do beta-blockers cause hyperkalaemia?

A

similar to how beta-agonist cause potassium to move intracellularly , beta blockers top this

73
Q

How does heparin cause hyperkalaemia?

A

inhibiting aldosterone synthesis

74
Q

What is mallet finger?

A

closed avulasion injury of the extensor tendon of the distal phalanx

75
Q

What are pendular reflexes?

A

less brisk and slower in rise and fall

76
Q

What is the mode of action of vasopressin?

A

V1 receptor activity in vascular smooth muscle increasing intracellular calcium

77
Q

What type of environment is needed for osteoclasts to reomve clacium from bone?

A

acidic

78
Q

What are the CI for sumatriptan?

A

coronary artery disease

79
Q

What are the main anion and cations of the intracellular compartment?

A

potassium and phosphate

80
Q

What is pareidolia?

A

individual perceives a visual picture in an otherwise vague or obscure stimulus

81
Q

What contraception is CI in obstetric cholestasis?

A

anything with oestrogen -COC

82
Q

What is the pathogeneis of pemphgus vulgairs?

A

IgG against desmoglein

83
Q

Where are desmosomes located in the epidermis?

A

stratum spinosum

84
Q

What is the MOA of carbidopa?

A

inhibits DOPA decarboxylase

85
Q

What feeling do patients with borderline personality disorder tend to have?

A

chronic feeling of emptiness

86
Q

What is in the history of patients with borderline perrsonality?

A

emotional instaibilty and impulsive behaviour- intensve and unstable short relationships leading to emtioanl crises

87
Q

What is a histrionic personality disorder?

A

shallow and labile affectivity; self-dramatisation; continual seeking of appreciation

88
Q

What is the most common cause of PPH?

A

uterine atony

89
Q

What drug causes darkening nad lengthening of the eyelashes?

A

prostaglandins

90
Q

What does the absence of reintal venous pulsations suggest?

A

raised ICP

91
Q

What is Pirfenidone used for?

A

IPF

92
Q

What days of a 28 day cycle are most fertile?

A

days 9-16

93
Q

What is Uhthoff’s phnoemenon?

A

heat sensitivity

94
Q

What is 1st line treatment for TTP?

A

oral steroid for 3 weeks

95
Q

What is MOA of atropine?

A

anticholinergic

96
Q

What is found in Calot’s triangle?

A

cystic artery and cytic duct

97
Q

What are the 3 boundaries of Calot’s triangle?

A

cystic duct; common hepatic duct; inferior surface of the liver

98
Q

Where do the trunks of the brachial plexus form?

A

posteiror triangle of the neck

99
Q

what part of hte brachial plexus is found deep to the clavicle?

A

divisions

100
Q

What is the most common nerve to be affected in trigeminal neuralgia?

A

V3 >V2 > V1

101
Q

What nerve passes through the superficial inguinal ring?

A

ilioinguinal nerve

102
Q

What does the ilioinguinal nerve supply?

A

mons pubis and labia majora

103
Q

What muscle makes up the bulk of levator ani?

A

pubococcygeus

104
Q

What is formed from the posterior division of L2-4?

A

femoral artery

105
Q

What is formed from the anteiror divison of L2-4?

A

obturator nerve

106
Q

Where do ureters cross the iliac vessels?

A

close to the bifurcation of the common iliacs

107
Q

What nerve supplies the vagina?

A

perineal nerve- a branch of the pudendal

108
Q

What are the 3 terminal branches of the abdominal aorta?

A

common iliacs and middle sacral artery

109
Q

What vertebral level does the abdo aorta bifurcate?

A

L4

110
Q

What muscle in females does not insert into the perineal body?

A

ischiocavernous

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