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Transition Block > 21/04/18 > Flashcards

21/04/18 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the managemetn for children with recurrent or atypical UTIs?

A

US of abdomen during acute illness to rule out anatomical anomalies

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2
Q

Who gets intussesception?

A

3 months and 3 years

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3
Q

Where does intussessception commonly occur?

A

ileocaecal junction

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4
Q

Where is McBurney’s point?

A

1/3rd of the way between ASIS and umbilicus

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5
Q

What is Rovsing’s sign?

A

palpation over the LIF causes RIF pain

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6
Q

What is mesenteric adenitis?

A

inflammation of the mesenteric lymph nodes that occurs following a viral URTI

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7
Q

What is the difference between mesenteric adenitis and appendicitis in presentation?

A

mesenteric adenitis has a high fever and evidence of viral infection

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8
Q

What is the common reason for GORD in children?

A

transient functional immaturity of the lwoer oesophgeal sphincter

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9
Q

What is Sandifer’s syndrome?

A

dystonic movements of hte head and neck that resemble seizures

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10
Q

What is Sandifer’s syundrome assocaited iwth?

A

GORD

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11
Q

why has the live polio vaccine been replaced by inactivated polio vaccine (IPV)

A

remove risk of vaccine-associated paralytic polio

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12
Q

What is the pertussis vaccine?

A

suspension of killed organisms

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13
Q

What is the vaccine given IM protecting against gram-positive anaerobic bacterial organism?

A

diphtheria

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14
Q

When do children get their first MMR?

A

12-13 months

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15
Q

When do children get their rotavirus vaccine?

A

2 and 3 months

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16
Q

What boosters are given at 13-18 years?

A

tetanus; diphtheria; IPV; men C

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17
Q

What is given pre-school?

A

DTaP/IPV; MMR

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18
Q

What age are children able to roll from stomach to back?

A

4 months

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19
Q

Waht age are children able to roll from back to stomach?

A

6 months

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20
Q

What are Wormian bones?

A

irregular isolated bones found within sutures

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21
Q

What do Wormian bones suggest?

A

osteogenesis imperfecta

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22
Q

What are the warning signs of encephalitis?

A

focal neuro sings; focal seizures and a decreased level of consciousness

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23
Q

How does congential hypothyroidism present?

A

coarse facial features; large tongue; hoarse cry; constipation; prolonged jaundice; hypotonia; lethargy and umbilical hernia

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24
Q

Where is a VSD best heard in the chest?

A

5th intercostal space; left adjacent to sternum

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25
What is the murmur in patent ductus arteriosus?
systolic and diastolic- inferior to left clavicle
26
How does toddlers diarrhoea present?
food in the diarrhoea- normal and doesn't need any maangemetn
27
When are target cells seen?
obstructive liver disease; sickle cell; asplenism ; thalassaemia and IDA
28
What can signet ring cells in the blood film indicate?
malaria
29
What is basophilic stippling?
RNA inclusion bodes in the cytoplasm
30
What do helmet cells in the blood film indicate?
red cell fragments indicating HUS
31
What is another name for helmet cells?
schistocytes
32
Which gender most commonly gets pyloric stenosis?
males (esp. first born)
33
What is felt in the abdomen with pyloric stenosis?
olive-shaped mass in the upper abdomen
34
What is the difference between gastrocshisis and exomphalos?
exomphalos- abdo contents are covered by sac, associated with other congential malformations whereas gastroshisis isnt'
35
Which hip is most likely to be affected in DDH?
left
36
What perennial rhinitis?
allergic rhinitis which occurs all year roudn
37
What is seen with Klinefelter's syndrome?
small firm testes; tall; behavioural problems; delayed speech and gynaecomastia
38
What is hand-foot syndrome?
affects sickle cell children- tender swelling of hands and wrists or feet precipitated by stress of cold
39
What rash is seen in rheumatic fever?
erythema marginatum
40
What is the most important diagnosis to rule out with prolonged jaundice in a child with white stool?
abdo US
41
What are the TORCH infections?
toxoplasma; other (syphilis); Rubella; CMV; Herpes simplex
42
Which is the most common of the TORCH infections ?
CMV
43
What is the next step in treating GORD in children after medical mx?
fundoplication
44
What does abdo pain and vomiting with red urine after starting the OCP suggest?
acute intermittent porphyria
45
What would red urine after long surgery suggest?
rhabdomyolysis
46
What is typically seen with rectal examination with Hirshprungs?
removal of exmining finger is followed by gush of stools anf flatus
47
What is the managemetn for meconium ileus?
gastrograffin enema
48
What antibody is most specific for pernicious anaemia?
anti-IF antibodies
49
What is HbA2?
a2, delta2
50
What is HbF?
a2, gamma2
51
What Hb is seen in alpha thal with 3 lost genes?
HbH- beta tetramers
52
what Hb in alpha thal with 4 lost genes?
Hb Barts- gamma tetramers
53
What might be seen in the gums with lead poisoning?
blue lines
54
What is the treatment for lead poisoning?
EDTA
55
What is the most common cause of croup?
parainfluenza virus
56
What causes the webbed neck in Turner's?
in utero oedema
57
What may be seen on CXR with coarctation of the aorta?
rib notching- large intercostal collateral arteries trying to bypass the stenosis
58
What is seen on CXR with transposition of the great vessels?
egg on side appearnace of the heart shadow
59
What is the apprance of campylobacter on gram staining?
gram neg comma shaped bacteria
60
What is the gram stain of clostriudium?
gram positive
61
When does the primary set of teeth usually erupt?
6 months
62
What is Prehn's sign?
relief of pain on elevation of the testes
63
what does a positive prehn's sign suggest?
epididmyo-orchitis
64
What is the treatment for epididymo-orchitis?
6 weeks of oral cipro
65
What is phimosis?
inability to retract the prepuce
66
What is the inheritance of Fanconi's anaemia?
AR
67
what is the presentation of Fanconi's anaemia?
short stature; aplastic anaemia; skeletal anomalies; prediposition to haem malignancies
68
what is the initial rash in HSP?
urticarial
69
What other name is Bartholin's glan/d
greater vestibular gland
70
What ligament are the ovarian vessels found in?
suspensory ligament
71
What is the blood supply to the dura?
middle meningeal artery
72
What is the shape of the nuclei in eosinophils?
spectacle- bi-lobed
73
What is the appearance of monocytes on blood film?
horse shaped nucleus, steel grey cytoplasm and vaculoules
74
What type of thrombophilia is APS?
aquired
75
What does an isolated prolonged APTT indicate?
problem with the intrinsic pathway or APS
76
What are hte common pathway factors?
II, V and X
77
What is the cause of transfusion related lung injury?
anti-leucocyte antibodies present in donor serum which bind to patietn WBCs and cause degranulation of neutrophils in the lung
78
What is the mechanism of action of rivaroxiban?
competitively inhibits factor Xa
79
How are protein C and S activated?
binding of thrombin to thrombomodulin
80
What do protein C and S inhibit?
V/Xa and VIII/IXa
81
What is the function of heparin?
potentiates antithrombin when bound to thrombin or V/Xa
82
How can LMWH be monitored?
anti-Xa assay
83
Why should FBC be monitored in patients on heparin?
heparin induced thrombocytopenia
84
What is the family of drugs taht warfarin belongs to?
coumarin
85
what is vitamin k soluble in?
fat
86
What does vitamin K require for absorption?
bile salts
87
What is the equation for INR?
PT/mean normal PT to the power of ISI (international sensitivity index)
88
Why is INR needed?
mathematical correction for differences in the sensitivity of t hromboplastin reagnets
89
How long does it take vitamin K to work in antagonising warfarin?
6 hours
90
What is the MOA of dabigatram?
inhibits thrombin
91
what is the MOA of apixaban?
Xa inhibitor
92
What is the mutation in polycythaemia ruba vera?
JAK2
93
What are the common causes of pseudopolycythaemia?
dehydration; diuretic therapy; obesity
94
What are the causes of reactive thrombocytosis?
blood loss; inflammation; malignancy; iron deficiency
95
What are the genes seen with essential thrombocytosis?
JAK2; calreticulin; MPL
96
What mutations are seen in myelofibrosis?
JAK2 or CALR
97
What is typically seen on blood film with myelofibrosis?
tear drop poikilocytes
98
What are the causes of a leucoerythroblastic film?
reactive -sepsis' marrow infiltration; meylofibrosis
99
What is a JAK2 inhibitor?
ruxolitinib
100
What is the first line treatment for autoimmune haemolytic anaemia?
steroids and folic acid
101
What are the 3 components of erector spinae?
iliocostalis; longissimus and spinalis
102
What is the terminal filum?
extension of pia mater from the conus medullaris which attaches to the dorum of hte coccyx

Transition Block (35 decks)

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