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Transition Block > 21/04/18 > Flashcards

21/04/18 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the managemetn for children with recurrent or atypical UTIs?

A

US of abdomen during acute illness to rule out anatomical anomalies

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2
Q

Who gets intussesception?

A

3 months and 3 years

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3
Q

Where does intussessception commonly occur?

A

ileocaecal junction

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4
Q

Where is McBurney’s point?

A

1/3rd of the way between ASIS and umbilicus

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5
Q

What is Rovsing’s sign?

A

palpation over the LIF causes RIF pain

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6
Q

What is mesenteric adenitis?

A

inflammation of the mesenteric lymph nodes that occurs following a viral URTI

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7
Q

What is the difference between mesenteric adenitis and appendicitis in presentation?

A

mesenteric adenitis has a high fever and evidence of viral infection

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8
Q

What is the common reason for GORD in children?

A

transient functional immaturity of the lwoer oesophgeal sphincter

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9
Q

What is Sandifer’s syndrome?

A

dystonic movements of hte head and neck that resemble seizures

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10
Q

What is Sandifer’s syundrome assocaited iwth?

A

GORD

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11
Q

why has the live polio vaccine been replaced by inactivated polio vaccine (IPV)

A

remove risk of vaccine-associated paralytic polio

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12
Q

What is the pertussis vaccine?

A

suspension of killed organisms

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13
Q

What is the vaccine given IM protecting against gram-positive anaerobic bacterial organism?

A

diphtheria

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14
Q

When do children get their first MMR?

A

12-13 months

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15
Q

When do children get their rotavirus vaccine?

A

2 and 3 months

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16
Q

What boosters are given at 13-18 years?

A

tetanus; diphtheria; IPV; men C

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17
Q

What is given pre-school?

A

DTaP/IPV; MMR

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18
Q

What age are children able to roll from stomach to back?

A

4 months

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19
Q

Waht age are children able to roll from back to stomach?

A

6 months

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20
Q

What are Wormian bones?

A

irregular isolated bones found within sutures

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21
Q

What do Wormian bones suggest?

A

osteogenesis imperfecta

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22
Q

What are the warning signs of encephalitis?

A

focal neuro sings; focal seizures and a decreased level of consciousness

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23
Q

How does congential hypothyroidism present?

A

coarse facial features; large tongue; hoarse cry; constipation; prolonged jaundice; hypotonia; lethargy and umbilical hernia

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24
Q

Where is a VSD best heard in the chest?

A

5th intercostal space; left adjacent to sternum

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25
Q

What is the murmur in patent ductus arteriosus?

A

systolic and diastolic- inferior to left clavicle

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26
Q

How does toddlers diarrhoea present?

A

food in the diarrhoea- normal and doesn’t need any maangemetn

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27
Q

When are target cells seen?

A

obstructive liver disease; sickle cell; asplenism ; thalassaemia and IDA

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28
Q

What can signet ring cells in the blood film indicate?

A

malaria

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29
Q

What is basophilic stippling?

A

RNA inclusion bodes in the cytoplasm

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30
Q

What do helmet cells in the blood film indicate?

A

red cell fragments indicating HUS

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31
Q

What is another name for helmet cells?

A

schistocytes

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32
Q

Which gender most commonly gets pyloric stenosis?

A

males (esp. first born)

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33
Q

What is felt in the abdomen with pyloric stenosis?

A

olive-shaped mass in the upper abdomen

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34
Q

What is the difference between gastrocshisis and exomphalos?

A

exomphalos- abdo contents are covered by sac, associated with other congential malformations whereas gastroshisis isnt’

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35
Q

Which hip is most likely to be affected in DDH?

A

left

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36
Q

What perennial rhinitis?

A

allergic rhinitis which occurs all year roudn

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37
Q

What is seen with Klinefelter’s syndrome?

A

small firm testes; tall; behavioural problems; delayed speech and gynaecomastia

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38
Q

What is hand-foot syndrome?

A

affects sickle cell children- tender swelling of hands and wrists or feet precipitated by stress of cold

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39
Q

What rash is seen in rheumatic fever?

A

erythema marginatum

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40
Q

What is the most important diagnosis to rule out with prolonged jaundice in a child with white stool?

A

abdo US

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41
Q

What are the TORCH infections?

A

toxoplasma; other (syphilis); Rubella; CMV; Herpes simplex

42
Q

Which is the most common of the TORCH infections ?

A

CMV

43
Q

What is the next step in treating GORD in children after medical mx?

A

fundoplication

44
Q

What does abdo pain and vomiting with red urine after starting the OCP suggest?

A

acute intermittent porphyria

45
Q

What would red urine after long surgery suggest?

A

rhabdomyolysis

46
Q

What is typically seen with rectal examination with Hirshprungs?

A

removal of exmining finger is followed by gush of stools anf flatus

47
Q

What is the managemetn for meconium ileus?

A

gastrograffin enema

48
Q

What antibody is most specific for pernicious anaemia?

A

anti-IF antibodies

49
Q

What is HbA2?

A

a2, delta2

50
Q

What is HbF?

A

a2, gamma2

51
Q

What Hb is seen in alpha thal with 3 lost genes?

A

HbH- beta tetramers

52
Q

what Hb in alpha thal with 4 lost genes?

A

Hb Barts- gamma tetramers

53
Q

What might be seen in the gums with lead poisoning?

A

blue lines

54
Q

What is the treatment for lead poisoning?

A

EDTA

55
Q

What is the most common cause of croup?

A

parainfluenza virus

56
Q

What causes the webbed neck in Turner’s?

A

in utero oedema

57
Q

What may be seen on CXR with coarctation of the aorta?

A

rib notching- large intercostal collateral arteries trying to bypass the stenosis

58
Q

What is seen on CXR with transposition of the great vessels?

A

egg on side appearnace of the heart shadow

59
Q

What is the apprance of campylobacter on gram staining?

A

gram neg comma shaped bacteria

60
Q

What is the gram stain of clostriudium?

A

gram positive

61
Q

When does the primary set of teeth usually erupt?

A

6 months

62
Q

What is Prehn’s sign?

A

relief of pain on elevation of the testes

63
Q

what does a positive prehn’s sign suggest?

A

epididmyo-orchitis

64
Q

What is the treatment for epididymo-orchitis?

A

6 weeks of oral cipro

65
Q

What is phimosis?

A

inability to retract the prepuce

66
Q

What is the inheritance of Fanconi’s anaemia?

A

AR

67
Q

what is the presentation of Fanconi’s anaemia?

A

short stature; aplastic anaemia; skeletal anomalies; prediposition to haem malignancies

68
Q

what is the initial rash in HSP?

A

urticarial

69
Q

What other name is Bartholin’s glan/d

A

greater vestibular gland

70
Q

What ligament are the ovarian vessels found in?

A

suspensory ligament

71
Q

What is the blood supply to the dura?

A

middle meningeal artery

72
Q

What is the shape of the nuclei in eosinophils?

A

spectacle- bi-lobed

73
Q

What is the appearance of monocytes on blood film?

A

horse shaped nucleus, steel grey cytoplasm and vaculoules

74
Q

What type of thrombophilia is APS?

A

aquired

75
Q

What does an isolated prolonged APTT indicate?

A

problem with the intrinsic pathway or APS

76
Q

What are hte common pathway factors?

A

II, V and X

77
Q

What is the cause of transfusion related lung injury?

A

anti-leucocyte antibodies present in donor serum which bind to patietn WBCs and cause degranulation of neutrophils in the lung

78
Q

What is the mechanism of action of rivaroxiban?

A

competitively inhibits factor Xa

79
Q

How are protein C and S activated?

A

binding of thrombin to thrombomodulin

80
Q

What do protein C and S inhibit?

A

V/Xa and VIII/IXa

81
Q

What is the function of heparin?

A

potentiates antithrombin when bound to thrombin or V/Xa

82
Q

How can LMWH be monitored?

A

anti-Xa assay

83
Q

Why should FBC be monitored in patients on heparin?

A

heparin induced thrombocytopenia

84
Q

What is the family of drugs taht warfarin belongs to?

A

coumarin

85
Q

what is vitamin k soluble in?

A

fat

86
Q

What does vitamin K require for absorption?

A

bile salts

87
Q

What is the equation for INR?

A

PT/mean normal PT to the power of ISI (international sensitivity index)

88
Q

Why is INR needed?

A

mathematical correction for differences in the sensitivity of t hromboplastin reagnets

89
Q

How long does it take vitamin K to work in antagonising warfarin?

A

6 hours

90
Q

What is the MOA of dabigatram?

A

inhibits thrombin

91
Q

what is the MOA of apixaban?

A

Xa inhibitor

92
Q

What is the mutation in polycythaemia ruba vera?

A

JAK2

93
Q

What are the common causes of pseudopolycythaemia?

A

dehydration; diuretic therapy; obesity

94
Q

What are the causes of reactive thrombocytosis?

A

blood loss; inflammation; malignancy; iron deficiency

95
Q

What are the genes seen with essential thrombocytosis?

A

JAK2; calreticulin; MPL

96
Q

What mutations are seen in myelofibrosis?

A

JAK2 or CALR

97
Q

What is typically seen on blood film with myelofibrosis?

A

tear drop poikilocytes

98
Q

What are the causes of a leucoerythroblastic film?

A

reactive -sepsis’ marrow infiltration; meylofibrosis

99
Q

What is a JAK2 inhibitor?

A

ruxolitinib

100
Q

What is the first line treatment for autoimmune haemolytic anaemia?

A

steroids and folic acid

101
Q

What are the 3 components of erector spinae?

A

iliocostalis; longissimus and spinalis

102
Q

What is the terminal filum?

A

extension of pia mater from the conus medullaris which attaches to the dorum of hte coccyx

Transition Block (35 decks)

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