Week 2 - Staphylococcus Flashcards

1
Q

Staphylococcus is a gram ______ cocci arranged in _____-_____ clusters.

A

positive, grape-like

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2
Q
A

Staphylococcus

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3
Q

Staphylococcus is a _________ anaerobe.

A

facultative
Do not require oxygen

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4
Q

Staphylococcus is _____-motile (______-_________).

A

non, non-flagellated

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5
Q

Staphylococcus is ______-spore forming.

A

non

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6
Q

Staphylococcus is _______ positive (detoxify ______).

A

catalase, H2O2
Normally MQ and neutrophils release reactive oxygen species such as hydrogen peroxide. Bacteria have a bullet? against HP = catalase which destroys ROS.

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7
Q

Staphylococcus grows on media containing?
Give an example media.

A

High salt (>or= to 6.5-10%).
Mannitol SALT agar.

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8
Q

What are the two widely used culture media for growth?

A

Mannitol salt agar containing high salt (NaCl) concentration (6.5-10%) & Blood agar

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9
Q
A

Beta

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10
Q
A

alpha

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11
Q
A

Gamma

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12
Q
A

Mannitol salt agar

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13
Q

Mannitol salt agar selectively supports growth of which Gram-positive bacteria?

A
  1. Staphlococcus
  2. Enterococcus
  3. Listeria
  4. Micrococcaceae
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14
Q

Mannitol salt agar inhibits the growth of most?

A
  1. Gram-negative bacteria
  2. Streptococcus (gram positive)
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15
Q
A

S. aureus ferments mannitol and changes the agar color from red to yellow.

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16
Q
A

S. epidermidis does not ferment manitol and no agar color color change (remains red).

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17
Q
A

Purple agar base containing 1% of maltose:
1. S. intermedius (left)
2. S. aureus (right; yellow)
3. S. hyicus (bottom)

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18
Q

Staphylococcal spp. classification using unique pigment production on mannitol salt agar and purple agar base with 1% maltose.

A
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19
Q

Blood agar allows determination of the _____ of _______ toxin produced by the isolates.

A

type, hemolysin
In addition to growing in the blood media, they are destroying the RBCs.

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20
Q

Alpha = incomplete
Hemolysis = green

A
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21
Q

Beta = complete
Hemolysis = clear

A
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22
Q

Gamma = no
Hemolysis = no change in media

A
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23
Q

Describe what is occurring in the top arrow of this image.

A

Yellow/golden colony due to a golden
colored carotenoid pigment
staphyloxanthin (it is antioxidant)

any staph with staphy = highly pathogenic

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24
Q

Describe what is going on in the bottom right of this image

A

Non-hemolysis (gamma) by Staph. epidermidis

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25
Q

Yellow colored Staph. aureus are more ________.

A

pathogenic

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26
Q

List the methods for diagnosis of Staphylococcus
isolates from suspected cases.

A
  1. Gram stain: shape/stain color
  2. Biochemical tests (biotyping) e.g. hemolysis, catalase, coagulase, and other typing methods
  3. Molecular biology e.g. PCR of nuc gene
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27
Q

Notes from this slide
1. Put a drop of hydrogen peroxide on glass slide
2. Pick colony
3. Mix
4. If catalase positive, immediately detach hydrogen and oxygen from each other –> bubbles; if bacteria is catalase negative, it simply looks like fluid –> nothing happens, no bubbles.

A
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28
Q

How do you diagnose staphylococcus by biochemical testing?

A

Gram stain, catalase are tests that assure you you are dealing with staph.
do blood agar to see if alpha, beta, gamma and coagulase test (e..g serum + colony –> incubate over night; if they are coagulase + = solidify serum; if coagulase - = serum is still in liquid form

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29
Q

_______ ______ strains are more pathogenic particularly strains with _______ _______.

A

Coagulase positive, beta-hemolysis

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30
Q

How do you classify major pathogenic Staphylococcus species using different tests?

A

By doing catalase test, you divide staph species into two groups: coag positive and negative

bacteria that coagulate your blood is pathogenic
Blood that hemolyze RBC with beta toxin is pathogenic

coag positive divided into two groups: gamma hemo and beta hemo.

schleiferi pseudo in pets ; know names

coag neg are less pathogenic; know names

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31
Q

notes from this slide

A

Many in humans that are Coag neg ones that do not clot serum.

Felis, caprae, carnosus = animals

aureus is famous in humans

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32
Q

Staphylococcus sp. is a normal commensal of _____ of mammals and birds, as well as?

A

skin, reptiles, fish

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33
Q

Staphylococcus normally lives in the ________ orifices of an animal’s body, including:

A

tubular, Nasal cavity: e.g. 20-40% of the population carry it, Buccal cavity, Naso-pharynx, Mammary gland, Groin region

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34
Q

What percentage of staphylococcus live in the nose of a dog?

A

31% (16-64%)

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35
Q

What percentage of staphylococcus live in the mouth of a dog?

A

57% (42-74%)

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36
Q

What percentage of staphylococcus live in the perineum-rectum of a dog?

A

52% (28-72%)

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37
Q

What percentage of staphylococcus live in the groin of a dog?

A

23% (16-38%)

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38
Q

What are the major risk factors of Staphylococcal diseases?

A
  1. Linked to parasitic, fungi, and viral infections
    - Tick (Ixodus ricinus) infestation
    - Sarcoptic mange and lice infestation
    - Skin vesicles caused by a virus (such as parvovirus or pox virus …)
    - Mycotoxin infections
  2. Shearing in sheep
  3. Hair-cut in dogs
  4. Nutritional imbalance (zinc, vitamin deficiency)
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39
Q

Staphylococcus is an _________ pathogen.

A

opportunistic

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40
Q

What are the 3 broad virulence factors for pathogenicity?

A

Body structures for adhesion and binding, enzymes, toxins

enzymes destroy our CT

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41
Q

Exponential phase - Body structures for adhesion and binding

A
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42
Q

Stationary phase - enzymes and toxins

A
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43
Q

Cell wall – useful for bacterial _______, _______, protect the bacteria from attack by host ______.

A

viability, homeostasis, lysozyme

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44
Q

Protein A - bind ___ of ____ protects, _____ immune response, & ________.

A

Fc, IgG, blocks, opsonization
Before antibody grabs bacteria, latches on and renders it useless

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45
Q

Binding or clamping factors – attachment to host _______

A

proteins

46
Q

Capsule (slime layer) – useful for _______, prevents _______, and inhibits _______ by polymorphonuclear _______.

A

adhesion, chemotaxis, phagocytosis, leukocytes

Chemotaxis factor won’t be released

47
Q

Hyaluronidase - breaks down ______ tissue between ______ cells (digs deeper between cells)

A

connective, adjacent

48
Q

Catalase – protects against host ______ _______ ______ (____) e.g. H2O2

A

reactive oxygen species, ROS

49
Q

Coagulase - _____ blood to hide in it

A

clots

50
Q

Staphylokinase - _____ clots (____) to come out of it and disperse _____

A

lyses, fibrin, itself

51
Q

Lipase - digest ____, thus allows to colonize _____ surface & ______ glands

A

lipids, skin, sebaceous

52
Q

Protease - destroys tissue ______

A

proteins

53
Q

Beta-lactamases - _______ beta-lactam drugs’ thus, ______ treatment

A

inactivate, survive

54
Q

Hemolysin (alpha, beta, or gamma) - destroys ____ blood cells, ______, _______, _______

A

red, neutrophils, macrophages, platelets

55
Q

Cytolytic toxins (leukocidin)- destroy cell _______ of host cells (leukocytes)

A

membranes

56
Q

Exfoliative toxin – separate skin ______, resulting in ______ & skin layer _____ _____

A

layers, impetigo, peel off

57
Q

Toxic shock syndrome (TSS) toxin – causes
a. ____ &
b. __________ (Mass ___ cell activation i.e. ___% of all body ____ cells)

A

shock, superantigens, T, 20, T

shock b/c blood not traveling back to heart. superantigens stimulates too many cells –> destroys our tissues

58
Q

Enterotoxins – ___ toxins in total. They cause
a. food ________ by stimulating the gut _____ (______) &
b. ________

A

20, poisoning, motility, vomiting, superantigen

59
Q

Normal antigens activate only _______-_______% of the body’s T cells.

A

0.0001-0.001

60
Q

Steps in Staphylococcal pathogenesis starts with entry of _____ of Staphyloccocci by breaching _____ ______

A

100s, body barriers

61
Q

Describe the steps of staphylococcus breaching body barriers.

A

After attach and enter, some turn into biofilm, enter cytoplasm and hide, others are fighting with WBC

62
Q

Abscess rupture may lead to _______
followed by diverse _____ infection

A

bacteremia, organ

63
Q

In cases of abscess rupture, Organs that receive ______ cardiac output are the ______ _____ to get infected. These organs include?

A

higher, most likely, endocardium, lung, meninges, liver, kidney, uterus, bones, joints

64
Q

Metastasis is a _____ and/or host immune
status dependent.

A

serotype,

65
Q

List the coagulase positive species of Staphylococcus

A

S. aureus – mammals & birds
S. hyicus – pigs
S. pseudointermedius - pets
S. schleiferi - pets

66
Q

List the coagulase negative species of Staphylococcus

A

S. chromogenes – mammals
S. felis – pets
S. epidermidis – foot odor
in humans
due to isovaleric acid production
following degradation of leucine in
sweat by bacterial leucine
dehydrogenase enzyme

67
Q

Staphylococcus spp. advance from four directions. List these directions

A

cutaneous pus/abscess, ear, mammary, & urogenital

68
Q

Staphylococcus spp. advance from four directions to become ?

A

Systemic & life-threatening infections
 bacteremia/septicemia
 endocarditis (hear valves)
 metritis
 pneumonia
 osteomyelitis
 meningitis
and
life-threatening toxicosis
 toxicosis by releasing diverse toxins e.g food poisoning
 shock (TSS)

69
Q

Staphylococcus disease pathogenesis ranges:
from (6) to (5)

A

Staphylococcus disease pathogenesis ranges:
from scalded skin, pus/abscess, gangrene, ear/otitis,
mastitis, & urogentital infections to pneumonia, endocarditis (heart valves), meningitis, osteomyelitis, & toxicosis/shock

70
Q

Staphylococcus aureus causes ______ (pus), ______, and _______ first before spreading to cause ?

A

abscess, dermatitis, mastitis, septicemia, endocarditis, meningitis, & osteoarthritis

71
Q

What are the broad side effects of Staphylococcus aureus infection?

A

abscess, septicemia, surgical lesion, infection

72
Q

What are the side effects of Staphylococcus aureus infection in cattle?

A

mastitis, teat base pustules/impetigo (>80-90% cases) or gangrenous teat

73
Q

What are the side effects of Staphylococcus aureus infection in Pigs?

A

mastitis (impetigo), endometritis

74
Q

What are the side effects of Staphylococcus aureus infection in Horses?

A

mastitis, botrymocosis of spermatic cord after castration

75
Q

What are the side effects of Staphylococcus aureus infection in Sheep?

A

mastitis similar to cattle, Tick pyemia of lambs, dermatitis of torn skin, periorbital dermatitis

76
Q

What are the side effects of Staphylococcus aureus infection in Poultry?

A

septicemia, Foot/joints, pyogranulomatous lesion
= “bumble-foot”, arthritis

77
Q

What are the side effects of Staphylococcus aureus infection in Goats?

A

mastitis, Dermatitis, Subacute or peracute mastitis

78
Q

What are the side effects of Staphylococcus aureus infection in Dogs and Cats?

A

suppurative lesion similar to S. pseudointermedius

79
Q

Non- Staph. aureus spp damages what parts of the body?

A

damage skin, udder, ear,
& eye 1st to spread to lung, urinary bladder, uterus, bones, & joints

80
Q

S. aureus, S. pedufintermdius (more dangerous than aureus and is more common in pets, S. schleiferi

A
81
Q

Staphylococcus species – cause _______ _____, ______ of skin layers, and pus from ____

A

cutaneous pus, peeling, ears

82
Q
A

Staph in humans; peeling of skin; exfoliative

83
Q
A

Staph in pigs

84
Q
A

Staph in dogs

85
Q

What is a major sign of staph infection in humans?

A

Scalded skin

86
Q

S. aureus infections in humans is characterized by skin layers ______ off; _______ epidermitis)
- widespread formation of _____-filled _____ that are ____ walled and ____ ruptured outer layer or
membrane
- _______ (peeling of skin layers or ______)
due to breakdown of ______ (______ ______)
of skin by _______ exotoxins (______)

A

slough, exudative, fluid, blisters, thin, easily, exfoliation, desquamation, desmosome, macula adherens, epidermolytic, exfoliatin

87
Q

What are the signs of S. hyicus infection in pigs?

A

greasy pig disease (Exudative epidermitis)
(similar to human scalded skin disease)

88
Q

S. hyicus infection in pigs is characterized by ?

A
  • an acute generalized infection of suckling and weaned pigs.
  • excess sebaceous secretion
  • exfoliation and exudation of skin
  • Poly limb lameness (polyarthritis)
  • Metritis
  • vaginitis
89
Q

What two strains of staph can infect pigs?

A

S. hyicus, S. chromogenes (sometimes)

90
Q

What are the clinical signs of S. aureus and S. schleiferi in dogs and cats?

A

Signs: pyoderma of dogs and cats
- erythema, pustule, papule, crust, scaling,
epidermal collarettes, and alopecia;
- cats most commonly present with multiple crusted
papules (“miliary dermatitis”) or erosive plaques
- areas affected in dogs are axillae, groin, ventral
neck, ventral abdomen, interdigital spaces;
- in cats are the face, neck and ventrum
- caused mostly by S. pseudintermedius

91
Q

What are the clinical signs of S. pseudointermedius and S. aureus in dogs and cats?

A
  • Otittis externa,
  • pyoderma,
  • Pyometra
92
Q

What are the clinical signs of S. schlefieri and S. felis in dogs and cats?

A

Otitis externa

93
Q

What staph strains lead to clinical signs in dogs and cats?

A

S. aureus, S. pseuodointermedius, S. schlefieri (less common), S. felis.

94
Q

Staphylococci - pus and/or gangrene forming
bacteria in the (4)?

A

skin, udder, joints, wing

95
Q
A

Staphylococci

96
Q
A

Staphylococci

97
Q
A

Staphylococci

98
Q
A

Staphylococci

99
Q

Staphylococci infection in ruminants is characterized by?

A

Mastitis
- chronic, acute or peracute udder ulcer (impetigo)
- gangrenous mastitis due to a toxin in postparturient cows
- caused by S. aureus

100
Q

Subclinical ruminant mastitis is caused by what strain of Staph?

A

S. chromogenes

101
Q

Of 4 major pathogens of mastitis, >__-___% of mastitis is caused by Staphylococcus

A

70-80

102
Q

Mastitis causes loss of ~$__ _____ each year in the
USA alone.

A

2 billion

103
Q

What are the four major pathogens that cause mastitis?

A
  1. Enterobacteriaceae
  2. Staph
  3. Streptococcus
  4. Mycoplasma
104
Q

What are the clinical signs of staphylococci in sheep?

A

Tick pyemia (i.e. the spread in the bloodstream of pus-forming bacteria released from an abscess)
- common in lambs of 2-5 weeks if heavily infested with Ixodes ricinus
- chronic, acute and peracute.
- caused by S. aureus

105
Q

What are the clinical signs of staphylococci in horses?

A

Signs: mastitis and skin botryomycosis in horse (botry = cluster of grapes)
- nodules on lips, limbs, scrotum
- multifocal/widespread papules/pustules.
- May have cutaneous and/or visceral involvement
- Scrotum infections after castration in male horses
- caused by S. aureus

106
Q

What are the clinical signs of staphylococci in poultry?

A

Signs: Bumble foot in poultry
- A pyogranulomatous process of subcutaneous tissue of foot & the joints
- arthritis and septicemia in turkeys
- omphalitis – yolk sac infection, wing rot or gangrenous dermatitis infection in poultry
- caused by S. aureus

107
Q

Describe the Isolation and identification methods for
diagnosis of Staphylococcus

A

Pus sample from skin, nasal sample, blood, etc, milk during mastitis, urogenital during pyometra, joint fluid when there is osteoarthritis; culture on manitol salt agar

108
Q

How can Staph infections be treated and controlled?

A

Staphylococcus consists multi-drug resistant species

E.g. Staph. aureus is a member of the 6 gangs (ESKAPE).

Staph. aureus is well known globally for acquiring resistance to the following
two antimicrobials
1. Methicillin resistance
2. Vancomycin resistance

109
Q

find which antimicrobial works (must test to see)

A
110
Q

Staph infections can be controlled and prevented by?

A

Improving hygiene and wellbeing.

111
Q

Staph infections can be mitigated by

  1. Improving the _____, ______, and ______ of each animal & its house/barn
  2. Lambs – _____ control by ____-__ or dipping in ______ periodically
  3. Proper ______ of wounds and surgical openings
  4. Carefully perform ______ in sheep, hair-cut in ____
A

immunity, feeding, hygiene, tick, pour-on, acaricide, cleaning, shearing, dogs

112
Q

How can you control and prevent Staph infections in dairy animals?

A
  1. The fundamental control is good hygiene at milking time.
    a. Single use paper towels to dry teats.
    b. Milkers should wear gloves.
    c. Teat dip after milking (1% Iodine)
  2. Dry cow therapy at drying off.
  3. Separate all infected/positive cows.
  4. Cull cows if they remain clinical or cows with chronic mastitis
  5. Prevent reinfection into the herd.
    - Culture to test for positivity all purchased cows before mixing to the herd.