Test 4: 4: bones Flashcards

1
Q

catilage is made of — and is a good shock absorber

A

type 2 hyaline articular cartilage
water
GAGs

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2
Q

long bones are formed by

A

EO
endochondral ossification

cartilage template

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3
Q

flat bones are formed by

A

IO
Intramembranous ossification

without cartilage template

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4
Q

how does Intramembranous ossification (IO) work

A

Bone formed directly from mesenchyme
WITHOUT a cartilage template

forms type 1 cartilage then as it matures forms Hydroxyapatite cyrstal and remodeled into lamellar bone

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5
Q

how does Endochondral Ossification (EO)
work

A

cartilage template
blood vessels bring trophic factors
form bone

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6
Q

EO requires what 3 things

A

normal template
blood supply
hormones and nutrition

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7
Q

zones of EO formation

A

reserve zone
zone of proliferation- chondrocytes stack and multiply
zone of hypertrophy- swell and mineralize and capillaries grow
zone of ossificaion- osteoCLASTs come in and eat chondrocytes leaving spicule template. osteroBLASTs come in and lay bone forming primary trabeculae

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8
Q

Defect in the cartilage template required for endochondral ossification

A

Chondrodysplasias

spontaneous or hertitable

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9
Q

what is the mutation that causes short legs in basset hounds

A

FGF4 mutations in K9 CDPA/CDDY

type of chondrodysplasia

error in EO

Disproportionate (chondrodysplastic) dwarfism

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10
Q

Disproportionate (chondrodysplastic) dwarfism in calves that is lethal is caused by —

A

Col2A1 & Aggrecan mutations (Dom. Neg effect)

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11
Q

K9 Chondrodysplastic phenotype (CDPA) is caused by — mutation and causes

A

CFA18-FGF4

short legs (breed standard for Dachshunds, Basset Hounds, Corgis)

different from Chondrodystrophic phenotype (CDDY) that is caused by CFA12-FGF4 mutation and lead to short legs and IVDD

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12
Q

K9 Chondrodystrophic phenotype (CDDY) that is caused by— mutation and lead to —

A

CFA12-FGF4

short legs and IVDD

different from Chondrodysplastic phenotype (CDPA) → short legs

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13
Q

what happens to nucleus pulposus during chondrodystrophy IVDD

A

mutate and then can rupture out of disc and cause neural issues by damaging the spinal cord

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14
Q

Osteogenesis Imperfecta is a — disease that causes — done density and increased bone —.

A

osteopenic
decreased
fragility

caused by mutation in type 1 collagen- affects both osteroblast and odontoblasts

type 1 collagen found in bone, dentin of teeth and eyes (blue)

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15
Q

how does OI cause fragile bones

A

mutates type 1 collagen, prevents helix and lining up and binding to form bone matrix

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16
Q

Developmental defects in EO at FOCAL, REPEATABLE sites → focal defects at articular cartilage/subchondral bone interface

A

Osteochondrosis

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17
Q

Osteochondrosis can lead to

A

Osteochondritis Dissecans (OCD)

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18
Q

Osteochondrosis forms — lesions in growth cartilage (— > —)

A

heterogeneous

epiphyseal (end of bone)
metaphyseal

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19
Q

— is caused by focal defect in EO and can effect multiple joints usually bilateral and leads to OA

A

Osteochondrosis & Osteochondritis Dissecans (OCD)

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20
Q

what causes Osteochondrosis & Osteochondritis Dissecans (OCD)

A

thought to be loss of vasculature to the growth cartilage

effects the stifle, shoulder, elbow and hock

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21
Q

explain how osterochondrosis causes OA

A

blood vessels in resting zone die
chondrocytes do NOT become mineralized and osteroclasts do not come and eat dead chondrocytes

leads to cartilage core that gets pushed, can cause crack in cortex of bone which leads to OA

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22
Q

Ost eochondrosis & Osteochondritis Dissecans (OCD) leads to dissecting cartilage — & flaps and retained —

A

fissures

cartilage cores

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23
Q

Chondrodysplastic dwarfism is a — defect that causes defect in — template leading to secondary bone defect

A

generalized (FGF4 mutation)
cartilage

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24
Q

Osteogenesis Imperfecta is caused by defect in — that leads to —

A

type 1 collagen formation

fragile thin collagen type 1, leading to thin/weak bones/dentin/ thin sclera and lax ligaments

osteopenia= a loss of bone mineral density (BMD) that weakens bones.

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25
Q

OC/OCD are focal/bilateral defects in EO that leads to retained —

A

caritlage core
leads to dissecting cartilage fissures and OA

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26
Q

metabolic bone disease is also called

A

Osteodystrophies

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27
Q

Osteodystrophies are involved in — growth and remodeling. Either failure of — or abnormality occurring during remodeling of —

A

ex utero

Failure of normal growth or development
* nutritional/endocrine/metabolic imbalance
* Impact Trabecular AND Compact bone

Abnormality occurring during remodeling
process of mature or repair bone
* nutritional/endocrine/metabolic imbalance
* Impact Trabecular&raquo_space; Compact Bone

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28
Q

how does kidney failure effect bone growth

A

increased PO4 leads to increased PTH trying to increase blood calcium

leads to weak bone

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29
Q

bone modeling is a — process in which there is a — change in bone.

A

adaptive

architectural (change in size, length and diameter, orientation, contour)

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30
Q

bone modeling occurs during

A

growth

pathologic state- fracture healing, infection, neoplasia

leads to bone repair/replacement

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31
Q

why does bone modeling lead to fewer trabeculae

A

replaces with organized stronger trabeculae

can do the job with less

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32
Q

bone remodeling is done to maintain —, replace — and in respnse to — changes

A

bone mass

old bones/repair microfractures

metabolic/nutritional change- pregnancy, lactation, eggs

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33
Q

bone remodeling occurs in what type of bone

A

trabecular bone

not compact- osteroclast and blast can’t fit in osteon as easily

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34
Q

RANKL activates — and is made by —

A

osteroclasts →promotes resorption of bone

osteroblasts

TNFa, IL1,6 also promote OCLs

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35
Q

PTH indirectly activates — to cause

A

OCL
increase serum Calcium by breaking down bone

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36
Q

Osteoprotegerin (OPG) is made by — and acts as —

A

Osteroblasts

decreases OCL function, used to inhibit OCL in cancer patients

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37
Q

2 causes of fibrous osterodystrophies

A

primary hyperparathyroidism

secondary hyperparathyroidism from renal failure or nutritional (too much phos)

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38
Q

OSTEOPENIA

A

decreased bone density/ mass

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39
Q

OSTEOPOROSIS

A

clinical syndrome from osteopenia (decreased bone density and mass)

bone pain and fracture

shape is normal but reduced trabecular» cortical bone

Bone quantity NOT quality is reduced

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40
Q

how does low copper effect bone

A

leads to decreased osteroblast activation and decreased collagen strength

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41
Q

osteroporosis will cause — osteroblast activity, will have — trabecular bone leading to —

A

decreased
decreased density and increased porosity

infractions= microfractures of trabecular bone → reduced bone length (shrinking)

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42
Q

rickets is a defect in — that affect —

A

mineralization

bone and growth cartilage of young, growing animals

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43
Q

what type of deformities are formed with rickets

A

problem with mineralization

(angular limb deformities “bow legs,”
scoliosis/lordosis, flared physes “rachitic rib rosary”)

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44
Q

rickets leads to

A

bone deformities
fractures + subchondral collapse
bone pain

soft, weak bones and growth plate cartilage

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45
Q

osteomalacia

A

softening of bones

occurs in adults, cartilage not afffected

different from rickets which effects children and bones and cartilage

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46
Q

what causes rickets

A

low Vit D
low phosphorous

Except in birds, calcium deficiency DOES NOT cause rickets or osteomalacia

need working kidneys for Vit D activation

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47
Q

what step of bone formation does rickets effect

A

2nd phase, when type 1 collagen (osteoid) becomes mineralized

step 1. osteoid formation

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48
Q

why does rickets lead to Flared metaphyses & retained
cartilage cores at growth plates

A

mineralization does not occur, so osteroclasts do not come in and eat dead chondrocytes

leads to build up of cartilage core and weak, soft bones

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49
Q
A

rickets

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50
Q

explain how rickets

A

bone is lined by unmineralized osteoid that can not be eaten by osteoclasts, lead to weakened trabecule→ infractions and bowing

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51
Q

what causes fibrous ostrodystrophy (FOD)

A

primary hyperparathyroidism leading to ↑↑↑ levels of PTH

secondary: renal failure, or high phosphorous diet

this causes
↑ ↑ OCL activity & bone resorption
↓↓ OB diff → ↓ Bone formation
↑ ↑ FB diff → Fibrsis

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52
Q

really high levels of PTH cause
— OCL activity & bone resorption
—OB diff → — Bone formation
— FB diff → Fibrosis

A

Fibrous Ostrodystrophy (FOD)

increased
decreased, decreased
increased

rubber jaw and big head syndrome

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53
Q

rubber jaw is caused by

A

Fibrous Ostrodystrophy (FOD)
really high levels of PTH

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54
Q

how does kidney failure cause Fibrous Ostrodystrophy (FOD)

A

causes increased phos, low Ca
parathyroid increases PTH to try to increase Ca by eating bones

also decreased Vit D activation

if this happen to much leads to rubber jaw and fibrosis of bone

to much decrease in Vit D activation can lead to rickets!

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55
Q

bone is made of what cells

A

mesenchymal stem cells
OsteoBlasts- immature cells that “Build Bone”

OsteoCytes- mature cells that “Maintain Bone” (OB turn into OC

OsteoCLasts (Macrophage-like cells that RESORB bone) - multinucleated from myeloid lineage use HCL to eat bone

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56
Q

what makes up the ECM of bone

A

organic component (osteoid) = 90% type 1 collagen
inorganic component= hydroxyapatite mineral

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57
Q

compact bone is also called

A

osteonal

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58
Q

trabecular bone is also called

A

cancellous

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59
Q

woven bone is formed —

A

during development or repair

temporary bone

highlly cellular but unorganized and poorly mineralized→radiolucent

Duct tape bone→weak

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60
Q

woven bone is — mineralized

A

poorly
radiolucent

immature/temporary bone

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61
Q

— is mature bone

A

lamellar bone

low cellularity
organized, strong, radiopaque

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62
Q

difference between structure of lamellar vs woven bone is —

A

rate of formation

if need bone fast will form woven

if body has time will form lamellar

all woven will turn into lamellar if enough time is allowed

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63
Q

— covers the outersuface of bones except at the ends or where things attach

A

periosteum

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64
Q

periosteum is made of — and —

A

outer fibrous layer: can be peeled away

inner cellular layer (cambium): very cellular with MSC that form into OB and form new bone

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65
Q

— Lines the inner
surfaces of bone
(compact and
trabecular)

A

endosteum

thin layer that seperates hematopoietic marrow and bone

does not grow as fast as periosteum

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66
Q

3 ways to form new bone

A

cutting cones- compact bone- slow and limited
IO- fast but weak
EO- slow conversion of cartilage to bone

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67
Q

— is when bone is formed without a cartilage template from mesenchyme

A

IO

fast but disorganized

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68
Q

what three things can MSC turn into based on conditions in the bone

A

repair stimulus → OB

repair but low O2→chondrocytes leading to cartilage island that will eventually go through EO

high PTH and motion → fibroblasts = weak and movable but can’t heal into bone

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69
Q

healthy cartilage should grossly look

A

smooth, grey-white and glistening

has thin layer of type 1 cartilage for protection, but then large area of type 2 hyaline cartilage that acts as shock absorber, then leads into mineralized cartilage into bone

70
Q

what formed across joint

A

osteophytes
Ankylosis (self fusion)

71
Q

Ankylosis

A

self fusion

bones that grow osteophytes across joint to keep in place

72
Q

Arthrodesis

A

surgical fusion of a joint

73
Q

Arthroplasty

A

(surgical reconstruction/replacement)

74
Q

what happens during early cartilage degeneration on histo

A

los of PG layer- dehydration
collapse or compression of type 1 collagen shell
death of chondrocytes and loss of lacunae

75
Q

grossly what will you see with progressive cartilage degeneration

A

severe thinning & “score lines”
yellow discoloration

histo: will have chondrocyte death and chodrones where condrocytes try to multiply inside lacunae. Loss of type 2 collagen

76
Q

grossly what will you see for advanced cartilage degeneration

A

Erosions → full-thickness ulcers → subchondral bone hemorrhage → hemarthrosis
* Subchondral bone lysis → collapse “divots” (EQ MC3 arrowheads)

77
Q

histo of advanced cartilage degeneration will show

A

Matrix Fibrillation (fraying) → Vertical Fissures

Erosions (middle image) → Ulcers +/- Fibrocartilage Repair

78
Q

what happens during subchondral bone sclerosis

A

adaptive remodeling due to stress

bone will increase bone in area, but it will go to far and squish out blood supply leading to OCL unable to get in and remodel old bone, this can lead to bone failure and catastrophic fractures

79
Q

eburnation

A

bone on bone contact that polish each other

caused from loss of cartilage in an area

80
Q
A

In End-Stage DJD
Subchondral “bone cysts”
from synovial herniation

81
Q
A

osteophytes

82
Q

what would histo of the synovium look like

A

would also have inflammatory infiltrates (macrophages, lymphocytes and plasma cells)

also have neovascularization

83
Q

what will severe synovial hypertrophy look like grossly

A

will cause hemorrhage that leads to hemosiderin and yellow brown discoloration

No Neutrophils! not infection, just inflammation macrophage, lymphocytes, plasma cells and fibrosis

84
Q

name some things that are happening

A

hip dysplasia

eburnation- polishing on bone
bone cytes
osteophytes

85
Q

2 fracture classification

A

traumatic- normal bone, excessive force

pathologic- abnormal bone normal force

86
Q

open vs closed fracture

A

open- through the skin

87
Q

avulsion

A

when bone is ripped off at point of tendon/ligament insertion

88
Q

— are fractures that involve the growth plates

A

salter-harris fracture

89
Q

most common type of salter harris fracture

A

type 2
fracture extends across physis→ breaks out metaphysis

90
Q

salter-harris fracture

What are the consequences of this injury if bone heals/ regenerates but growth plate cartilage doesn’t?

A

Early growth plate closure → Limb shortening
or
Angular Limb Deformity (if growth plate closure is partial)

91
Q

two type of fracture healing

A

direct/primary: small gap and requires rigid fracture stabilization

indirect/secondary: forms calus because bigger defect between pieces

92
Q

stages of indirect bone healing

A
  1. inflammation and hematoma
  2. repair: early callus: granulation tissue, woven bone and cartilage islands (radiolucent)
  3. remodeling: takes a very long time
93
Q

soft callus forms in — weeks and is made of

A

1-3

woven bone +/- cartilage islands that will eventually go through EO to form hard callus and bone mineralization

94
Q

mal-union

A

solid bone that repaired in weird way

can be painful and caused by poor/delayed healing or excessive movement

if articular → DJD

95
Q

3 complications of fracture healing

A

malunion/fibrous non-union

inadepquate blood supply→ sequestrum (dead bone)

infection→ osteomyelitis & septic arthritis

96
Q

inflammation of the synovial membrane & synovial fluid compartment

A

Synovitis

97
Q

inflammation/degeneration of all components of joint

A

Arthritis

98
Q

inflammation of the bone,
including endosteum & medullary spaces

A

Osteomyelitis

99
Q

inflammation of the cortex only

A

Osteitis

100
Q

acute inflammation of joints can cause

A

Inflammatory cells and pro-inflammatory cytokines
Synovial hyperemia & edema
Activation of MMPs (collagenases, gelatinases)
Reduced PG content of synovial fluid & cartilage
Reduced synovial viscosity
Chondrocyte necrosis & loss of ECM

– Orange, red, brown synovial fluid (if hemorrhage)
– Increased turbidity (fibrin, neutrophils- if septic)

101
Q

route of infection for infectious arthritis

A

septicemia- common in neonates from respiratory, GI or umbilicus, secondary to poor colustrum intake, attacks growth plates

direct penetration- trauma or implants

local extension- from blood or from bone

102
Q

acute changes to septic joint capsule

A

decreased viscosity of synovial fluid
turbid/opaque from fibrin and neutrophils
red/orange from hemorrhage
red(hyperemic)

103
Q

chronic changes of septic joint capsule

A

DJD and active inflammation

suppurative (pus)
synovial villus hypertrophy leading to granulation tissue and fibrosis
capsule fibrosis and osteophytosis

104
Q

acute changes to articular cartilage and subchondral bone in septic joint

A

yellowing and thinning

erosion and fissures in ECM with chondrocyte necrosis

105
Q

— is a red velvet that is made of macrophages and fibrotic cells that coats cartilage surface during chronic septic joints

A

pannus formation

will dissolve cartilage

106
Q
A

pannus- forms during chronic septic joints- will eat cartilage

107
Q

what will happen to cartilage during chronic septic arthritis

A

thinning
erosions or ulcers
synovial villous hypertrophy
capsule fibrosis
pannus- red velvet

108
Q

what are some gram - bacteria that cause arthritis

A

E.coli, salmonella

109
Q

what are some gram + bacteria that cause arthritis

A

Streptococcus, Staphylococcus,
Actinomyces bovis “lumpy jaw” (cattle), T. pyogenes
* Mycoplasma → Polyarthritis

110
Q

what are some fungi that cause arthritis

A

Opportunists (Aspergillus, Candida)

Coccidiomycoides, Blastomyces

111
Q

septic physitis in young growing animals is caused by

A

bacteria gets stuck in small vessels that supply the growth plate

leads to increased intramedullary pressure and thrombosis→ infarcts

112
Q

necrotic bone islands are called

A

sequestrum

will be surrounded by OCL that try and fail to eat it, will form granulation tissue

113
Q

what type of animals get primary bone tumors

A

dogs>cats»>farm animals

114
Q

chondrosarcoma are common in what bones

A

flat bones (skull, nose, ribs, pelvis)

115
Q

— are the most common primary bone tumors in small animals

A

osterosarcoma

116
Q

bone tumors malignancy in dogs, cats and farm animals

A

dogs= malignant

cats= 50% malignant

farm = benign

117
Q

where are osteosarcomas in dogs common

A

80% of all primary bone tumors in dogs are osteosarcomas

away from the elbow, toward the knee

DOES NOT CROSS JOINT

118
Q

osterosarcomas are made of malignant osteoblasts that make

A

variable amounts of osteoid and/or mineralized tumor bone matrix

very aggressive and invasive with rapid metastasis to lungs, LN and bones

119
Q

two things that went wrong

dog
A

fracture

osteosarcoma (away from the elbow, toward the knee)

120
Q

3 diagnosistic features of osterosarcoma in dogs

A

osteolysis- eats away at bone

Osteoproliferation- forms tumor/reactive bone

Histology- Neoplastic osteoblasts producing tumor osteoid

121
Q

compare cat and dog osterosarcoma

A

dog: fast, malignant, very aggressive, poor survival

cat: slow metastasis, longer survival rate

122
Q

histiocytic sarcomas are of — cell origin

A

round cell neoplasm

Interstitial Dendritic Cell or macrophage

locally invasive and usually associated with joints

123
Q

what type of primary bone tumor can cross joints

A

histiocytic sarcoma
round cell neoplasm

osteosarcoma do not cross joint

124
Q

where to find histocytic sarcoma

A

joints, Bone marrow, lymph
nodes, spleen, other viscera, skin, etc.

black and tan dogs (rottweiler)

round cell neoplasm

poor prognosis with metastasis to liver, lung and LN

125
Q

what kind of cancer spreads to these places

A

histiocytic

126
Q

label
what do the arrows point to ?
what is their function?

A

Epiphysis- 1
Metaphysis- 2
Diaphysis- 3

Metaphyseal growth plates
Provide length to the bone

127
Q

1) Identify this cell, provide its general lineage and primary function.

A

OsteobBLASTS (OBs): Mesenchymal lineage. Build bone (secrete the majority of osteoid and hydroxyapatite crystals during bone new formation (ie growth, remodeling/modeling, repair).

128
Q

2) Identify this cell, provide its general lineage and primary function.

A

OsteoCYTES (OCs): Mesenchymal lineage. Maintains bone (can resorb and secrete small amounts bone matrix in their immediately surrounding lacunae.

129
Q

3) Identify this cell, provide its general lineage and primary function

A

OsteoCLASTS (OCLs): Monocyte lineage. Breakdown bone. Differentiation & activation is stimulated by OB production of RANKL

130
Q

Designated by the asterisk, name the extracellular matrix components (organic and inorganic)

A

Osteoid (organic) Hydroxyapatite (inorganic)

131
Q

Name the extracellular matrix designated by “1”and the cells that create and maintain this matrix:

A

Hyaline cartilage produced by chondrocytes

132
Q

Name the anatomic region designated by “2”:

A

Subchondral bone plate

133
Q

From a molecular and functional standpoint, briefly list the key differences between the extracellular matrix in 1 versus 2 and the inherent response of these tissues to injury

A

ECM of hyaline cartilage is hydrophilic and acts as a shock absorber, distributing compressive forces to the subchondral bone. It also provides a smooth, gliding surface for moving articulations. Remember hyaline cartilage of the growth plates serves as a template for ECO. Subchondral bone serves to anchor the overlying hyaline articular cartilage to bone via the Articular-Epiphyseal complex (junction of mineralized cartilage & subchondral bone plate). Interconnecting trabeculae serve to transfer forces sustained during movement to the really strong compact (ie osteonal) bone that forms the diaphyseal cortices.

134
Q

Identify the type of bone response featured in this image.

A

woven

135
Q

Name the type of bone response featured in this image.

A

Lamellar bone (it also happens to be trabecular)

136
Q

Briefly list the architectural and functional differences between the two types woven vs lamellar

A

Woven bone is hypercellular, disorganized and weaker in comparison to lamellar bone. WB forms during rapid growth & repair.

137
Q

Describe how bone responds to injury

A

Excellent healing/regenerative response if vascular supply is adequate. Can form lamellar or woven (band-aid) bone depending on stimulus. Complete bone healing can produce bone as strong or stronger than original bone.

138
Q

Describe how cartilage responds to injury

A

Poor healing or regenerative response. Can heal small defects with fibrocartilage. Often default pathway is degeneration with loss of proteoglycan matrix decreased water binding & shock absorption loss of cells & matrix, chondrones advanced lesions result in cartilage erosions & ulcers

139
Q

List the 4 zones of EO

A

1) Resting
2) Proliferative
3) Hypertrophy
4) Ossification

140
Q

What cells remove hypertrophied (dying) chondrocytes so that capillaries and osteoblasts can follow and line longitudinal spicules of mineralized cartilage with woven bone?

A

Osteoclasts

141
Q

What cells remodel primary trabeculae into fewer trabeculae that are thinner and stronger (eg secondary & tertiary trabeculae)?

A

Osteoclasts

142
Q

What cells secrete RANKL (osteoclast differentiation and activation factor)?

A

Osteoblasts

143
Q

6-month-old Saanen goat ”rescue” presented for obstructive urolithiasis

Given the history and clinical findings, the skeletal lesion is characteristic of what general etiology/ies?

Degeneration
Genetic
Infectious
Nutritional
Neoplastic
Toxic

A

genetic
infectious
toxic

This malformation (missing or severely shortened humerus) is termed phocomelia and is characterized by aplasia or severe dysplasia of one or more segments of the appendicular skeleton. It often results from a genetic defect (in humans this can be autosomal recessive syndrome that also includes other congenital defects involving urogenital, cardiac, and nervous system), but especially in large animals we need to think of Teratogenic viruses and potential exposure to teratogenic toxins. The take home point is that any time you identify one congenital malformation, you should keep your eyes out for additional ones! Although this is an important concept, contents from this case (ie this slide and the previous one) will not be exam material.

144
Q

Provide the general medical term for the disease that results in disproportionate dwarfism; where is the primary anatomic location of the lesion (eg cells, cartilage template, bone matrix)?

A

Chondrodysplasia

145
Q

Briefly describe the clinical manifestation of Chondrodysplasia

A

Chondrodysplasia results in abnormally shortened and misshapen bones of the appendicular skeleton and can predispose to early DJD from the incongruency.

146
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta is an autosomal recessive heritable osteodysplasia that produces a defect in which important organic component of bone?

A

Type 1 collagen

147
Q

Briefly describe the clinical manifestation of OI.

A

Osteopenia with poor quality bone & pathologic fractures. Also affects dentin of the teeth & collective tissues → joint laxity.

148
Q

These are the distal femurs from a 2-year-old gelding Thoroughbred is presented for progressive bilateral 2-3/5 degrees hind limb lameness localized to the stifle joints. There was moderate effusion within both femoropatellar joints, but the swelling was not hot. Synoviocentesis yielded slightly watery, clear yellow synovial fluid that contains moderate increases in macrophages and lymphocytes.

How would you describe the lesions?

A

There are bilaterally symmetrical wedge-shaped depressions in the articular cartilage surface that partially extend to the subchondral bone and are partially filled with roughened white-tan cartilaginous tissue. There is mild generalized cartilage thinning over both trochlear ridges and intertrochlear groove.

149
Q

These are the distal femurs from a 2-year-old gelding Thoroughbred is presented for progressive bilateral 2-3/5 degrees hind limb lameness localized to the stifle joints. There was moderate effusion within both femoropatellar joints, but the swelling was not hot. Synoviocentesis yielded slightly watery, clear yellow synovial fluid that contains moderate increases in macrophages and lymphocytes

Given the gross appearance and clinical history, what is your diagnosis?

Name the disease process that would eventually result from these lesions (hint- it’s the reason the horse was euthanized)?

A

Bilaterally severe osteochondritis dissecans.

DJD

150
Q

These lesions represent a defect in which developmental process in bone formation

A

EO: Endochondral ossification

151
Q

This is a pelvic radiograph from a 9-year-old miniature horse mare who was severely (grade 5/5) lame right hind and euthanized for a severely displaced femoral neck fracture with luxation of the coxofemoral joint.

fed high phos diet

Are the fractures traumatic or pathologic?

Which historical and histologic features support this diagnosis?

A

pathologic

Numerous activated OCLs bone lysis with fibrous replacement and paucity of osteoblasts. This is likely caused by the high phosphorous diet resulting in bilateral parathyroid gland hyperplasia and PTH-activation of OCLs and differentiation of FBs over OBs bone resorption with fibrous replacement and pathologic fractures

152
Q

Based on location, what general classification of fracture is this?

A

traumatic Salter Harris (growth plate fracture)

153
Q

The owner elects conservative management (external coaptation & cage rest). Based on fracture configuration, which 2 complications of fracture healing are most likely if internal fixation is not performed?

What other complication could this dog develop based on trauma to the growth plate cartilage?

A

Fibrous non-union/malunion & DJD

This dog could also develop limb shortening or angular limb deformity associated with the growth plate trauma.

154
Q

Cartilage has a good repair response to injury (circle): TRUE OR FALSE

A

false

155
Q

List 4 common etiologies of joint injury

A
  1. Congenital instability/incongruency
  2. Traumatic instability/incongruency
  3. Overuse
  4. Infectious/inflammatory arthritis
156
Q

A 5-year-old German Shephard dog (see images next slide) is presented with severe bilateral hindlimb lameness. Physical exam localizes decreased range of motion and pain to the coxofemoral joints. Based on signalment and physical exam findings, which specific underlying disease do you most suspect?

A

Canine Hip Dysplasia

157
Q

Radiographs (next slide) reveal shallow acetabular cups with flattened femoral heads, and lesions compatible with severe (end-stage) degenerative joint disease. A gross image of one of the coxofemoral joints extracted at autopsy is provided (next slide).

For each anatomic structure, list THREE common lesions of DJD (gross or histologic) in:

A

Synovial membrane/joint capsule/synovial fluid:
1) Synovial effusion with reduced viscosity of synovial fluid +/- hemarthrosis
2) Synovial membrane hypertrophy/hyperplasia
3) Joint capsule fibrosis (there may or may not be bone metaplasia w/in jt capsule)

Cartilage
Roughening/ Fissuring
2) Dullness/yellowing (from loss of water and PG matrix)
3) Thinning/Erosion→ ulcers (seen as decreased joint space on a radiograph)

Subchondral bone:
1) (Osteo)sclerosis- seen as increased subchondral radiopacity on a radiograph
2) Osteophytosis- seen as nodular bony exostoses or enlarged subchondral bony margins on a radiograph
3) Subchondral bone cysts (end-stage lesions)- seen as focal subchondral radiolucency surrounded by thin sclerotic rim

158
Q

Name the term for “polishing” of subchondral bone due to bone-on-bone contact and friction

A

Eburnation

159
Q

Inflammation/infection of bone that DOES NOT involve the marrow cavity is called:

A

Osteitis

160
Q

Inflammation/infection of bone that DOES involve the marrow cavity is called:

A

Osteomyelitis

161
Q

Inflammation/infection that involves the growth plates and adjacent bone is called:

A

Metaphyseal) Physitis & Epiphysitis

162
Q

True or false: Fibrin and high numbers of neutrophils are commonly present in arthrocentesis samples from joints with non-septic degeneration

A

False. While lymphocytes, plasma cells and macrophages can be present, the presence of neutrophils and fibrin typically indicates a septic process.

163
Q

Define sequestrum and predisposing causes

A

A necrotic “island” or fragment of necrotic bone can act as a foreign body & can become persistently infected. Predisposing causes include focal bone trauma that causes loss of blood supply (ie bone infarcts) or bone infection (osteomyelitis).

164
Q

Briefly define pannus:

A

A red-velvety membrane composed of fibrovascular tissue and macrophages the extends from the synovial margins and covers articular cartilage surface. The membrane blocks access to nutrients and the inflammatory molecules/enzymes results in more rapid degenerative changes/loss of the underlying articular cartila

165
Q

You examine a 14-day-old foal with a history of patent urachus and umbilical infection (omphalitis). 2-days ago, the foal developed severe (4/5) LH lameness warm effusion in the left tarsocrural (hock) joint. Arthrocentesis reveals Opaque, yellow, turbid fluid with flecks/strands/mats of fibrin and reduced viscosity (see photo of synovial fluid to right).

You suspect the origin of this joint infection is

Hematogenous
Direct Inoculation/Extension

A

Hematogenous

166
Q

These infections often result from (circle one): ADEQUATE or INADEQUATE colostrum intake, which is called —

A

inadequate
Failure of Passive Transfer

167
Q

name 3 sites of origin of infection for neonates

A

Respiratory tract
Gastrointestinal tract
umbilicus

168
Q

A 10-year-old Labrador Retriever presents with acute forelimb lameness and painful swelling localized to the distal radius
Radiographs identify a poorly demarcated radiolucent foci containing irregular radioopaque foci centered within the distal metaphysis, extending to the distal diaphysis and epiphysis with a mildly displaced articular fracture (arrowheads)

The radiolucent foci indicate:

The radiopaque foci indicate:

A

Osteolysis

Osteoproliferation (neoplastic and reactive)

169
Q

A 10-year-old Labrador Retriever presents with acute forelimb lameness and painful swelling localized to the distal radius
Radiographs identify a poorly demarcated radiolucent foci containing irregular radioopaque foci centered within the distal metaphysis, extending to the distal diaphysis and epiphysis with a mildly displaced articular fracture (arrowheads)

What is the likely diagnosis?

Based on your diagnosis, what is the biological behavior?

How would you confirm the diagnosis?

A

Osteosarcoma

Malignant- locally aggressive and invasive with rapid distant metastasis (lungs, lymph nodes, other organs and other bones)

Bone Biopsy (target the lytic foci) identifying neoplastic osteoblasts producing tumor osteoid matrix.

170
Q

Bone Biopsy (target the lytic foci) identifying neoplastic osteoblasts producing tumor osteoid matrix.

A

Histocytic Sarcoma

171
Q

True or false: malignant primary bone neoplasms are common in horses.

A

False. Primary bone tumors in horses are typically benign- although depending on location the local invasion and associated bone destruction can have serious consequences on quality of life, sometime necessitating euthanasia.