TEAS 7 - Science (Skeletal System) Flashcards

1
Q

The ___ is the lining inside of the bone that contains bone cells that allow the bone to grow, repair, and remodel throughout life.

A

endosteum

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2
Q

The ___ part of the outer double-layered structure on the outside of bones that grow, repair, and remodel bone as well.

A

periosteum

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3
Q

What are the cells that synthesize the bone matrix and coordinate the mineralization of the skeleton?

A

osteoblasts

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3
Q

___ are the longest-living bone cells, making up 90-95% of cells in bone tissue.

A

Osteocytes

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4
Q

___ is the hollow, tubular shaft that runs between the proximal and distal ends of the bone.

A

Diaphysis

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4
Q

What is the area of the bone where bone growth takes place?

A

epiphysis

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4
Q

What are the cells that degrade bone to initiate normal bone remodeling and mediate bone loss in pathologic conditions?

A

osteoclasts

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5
Q

The skeletal system not only helps to provide movement and ___ but also serves as a storage area for ___ and inorganic salts and a source of blood cells.

A

support

calcium

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6
Q

How many bones are there in the human body?

A

206 bones

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7
Q

___ bones have a long longitudinal axis.

A

Long bones

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8
Q

___ have a short longitudinal axis and are more cube-like.

A

Short bones

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9
Q

___ bones are thin and curved, such as some of the bones of the skull.

A

Flat bones

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9
Q

___ bones are found in ligaments.

A

Sesamoid

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9
Q

___ bones are often found in groups and have a variety of shapes and sizes.

A

Irregular bones

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10
Q

What are the 2 types of bone tissue?

A
  • compact bone
  • cancellous bone
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11
Q

___ bone is bone that is very dense.

A

Compact

*also called cortical bone

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12
Q

___ bone is bone that looks like a trabeculated matrix.

A

Cancellous bone

*also called spongy bone

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13
Q

Osteocytes (bone-forming cells) get their nutrients by ___.

A

diffusion

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14
Q

Compact bone is organized according to structural units called ___ (Haversian systems). These are connected together and form an ___ structure that provides support and strength to bones.

A

osteons

interconnected

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15
Q

Osteons contain a central ___ (Haversian canal) that serves as a pathway for blood vessels and nerves.

A

canal

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16
Q

Bone is deposited along concentric rings called ___.

A

lamellae

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17
Q

Along the lamellae are small openings called ___.

A

lacunae

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18
Q

The lacunae contain fluid and bone cells called ___.

A

osteocytes

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19
Q

Radiating out in all directions from lacunae are small canals called ___.

A

canaliculi

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20
Q

Osteons are interconnected by a series of larger canals called ___ canals (perforating canals).

A

Volksmann’s canals

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21
Q

What are the 3 basic types of cells in bone?

A
  • osteoblasts
  • osteocytes
  • osteoclasts
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22
Q

___ build up bone. They undergo mitosis and secrete a substance called osteoid that acts as the framework for bone. Once osteoid is secreted, minerals can deposit and form hardened bone.

A

Osteoblasts

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23
Q

___ are mature osteoblasts that cannot divide by mitosis. Osteocytes reside in lacunae.

A

Osteocytes

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23
Q

___ are capable of demineralizing bone. They free up calcium from bone and release it into the blood depending on the body’s needs.

A

Osteoclasts

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24
Q

Tubular bones develop from a process known as ___ ossification. During this process, bones develop from hyaline ___ templates.

A

endochondral

cartilage

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24
Q

The osteoblasts secrete ___ ___ in all directions around the cell. The matrix unites with that secreted by other osteoblasts as the bone forms. Eventually, the osteoblasts may be ___ off by the bony matrix. At this point, the osteoblast is called an ___.

A

bony matrix

walled

osteocyte

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25
Q

There are 2 bone-forming processes: ___ bones called intramembranous bones develop in sheet-like layers. ___ bones called endochondral bones develop from cartilage templates.

A

flat

Tubular

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26
Q

During ___ ossification, bones form from sheet-like layers of connective tissue. These layers have a vascular supply and contain bone-forming cells called ___.

A

intramembranous (flat bone)

osteoblasts

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27
Q

Tubular bone first develops by the formation of the outer covering called the ___, then the primary and secondary ___ centers are developed. Next, the ___ cavity is developed, and the ___ plates and spongy bone are formed.

A

periosteum

ossification

medullary

epiphyseal

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28
Q

The middle tubular portion is called the ___ and the ends are called ___. Between the diaphysis and epiphysis is the ___.

A

diaphysis

epiphysis

metaphysis

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29
Q

The outer covering is called the ___ and the hollow inner cavity is called the ___ ___ the contains the bone marrow.

A

periosteum

medullary cavity

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30
Q

The epiphysis contains the epiphyseal plate or (___ plate).

A

growth

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31
Q

There is spongy (trabeculated) bone in the ___ and compact bone in the ___.

A

epiphysis

diaphysis

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32
Q

What kind of bone is in the epiphysis?

A

spongy (trabeculated) bone

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33
Q

What kind of bone is in the diaphysis?

A

compact bone

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34
Q

___ are fibrous joints that holds the bones of the skull together.

A

Suture

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35
Q

A ___ is a rounded bump that serves as a site for muscle and ligament attachments.

A

tubercle

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36
Q

A ___ is a rounded bump that has a gradual slope.

A

tuberosity

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37
Q

The styloid process is a ___ process.

A

pointy

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38
Q

The ___ is a very large bump found on the femur bone.

A

trochanter

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39
Q

The ___ is a large rounded process.

A

Condyle

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40
Q

What is the hole found in bones for arteries, veins, and nerves?

A

Foramen

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41
Q

What do we call a hollow cavity within a bone?

A

sinus

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42
Q

How many bones are there in the skull?

A

22 bones

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43
Q

Of the 22 bones that make up the skull, how many form the cranium?

A

8 bones

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44
Q

The human skeleton is divided into ___ main parts.

A

2

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45
Q

What are the 2 main parts of the human skeleton?

A

axial skeleton

appendicular skeleton

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46
Q

What does the axial skeleton include?

A

skull, spine, ribcage, and sacrum

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47
Q

What does the appendicular skeleton include?

A

upper and lower extemities

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48
Q

What are the 8 bones of the cranium?

A
  • Frontal
  • Occipital
  • Right and left Parietals
  • Right and left Temporals
  • Sphenoid
  • Ethmoid
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49
Q

The cranial bones are held together by special joints called ___.

A

sutures

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50
Q

Sutures are joints considered ___ and composed of ___ fibrous connective tissue.

A

immovable

dense

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50
Q

The ___ ___ connects the parietal bones at the top of the skull. It lies in the sagittal plane.

A

Sagittal suture

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51
Q

The Sagittal suture connects the ___ ___ at the top of the skull. It lies in the sagittal plane.

A

parietal bones

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51
Q

The ___ ___ connects both parietal bones to the frontal bone on the top of the skull. It lies in a coronal plane.

A

Coronal suture

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52
Q

The ___ ___ connects the occipital bone to the posterior portions of the parietal bones.

A

Lambdoid suture

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52
Q

Coronal suture—connects both parietal bones to the ___ ___ on the top of the skull. It lies in a coronal plane.

A

frontal bone

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53
Q

The Squamosus suture connects the parietal bones to the ___ ___.

A

temporal bones

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53
Q

The Lambdoid suture connects the ___ ___ to the posterior portions of the parietal bones.

A

occipital bone

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54
Q

The ___ ___ connects the parietal bones to the temporal bones.

A

Squamosus suture

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55
Q

The occipital bone contains the ___ ___ which is a passageway for the spinal cord.

A

foramen magnum

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56
Q

Identify the frontal bone.

A

point to the structure

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57
Q

Identify the parietal bones.

A

point to the structure

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58
Q

Identify the temporal bones.

A

point to the structures

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59
Q

Identify the occipital bone.

A

point to the structure

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60
Q

Identify the foramen ovale.

A

point to the structure

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61
Q

Identify the sagittal suture.

A

point to the structure

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62
Q

Identify the coronal suture.

A

point to the structure

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63
Q

Identify the squamous suture.

A

point to the structure

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64
Q

Identify the lamboid suture.

A

point to the structure

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65
Q

Identify the sphenoid suture.

A

point to the structure

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66
Q

Identify the ethmoid bone.

A

point to the structure

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67
Q

Identify the lacrimal bone.

A

point to the structure

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67
Q

Identify the vomer bone.

A

point to the structure

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68
Q

Identify the nasal bone.

A

point to the structure

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68
Q

Identify the mandible bone.

A

point to the structure

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69
Q

Identify the maxilla bone.

A

point to the structure

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69
Q

Identify the zygomatic bone.

A

point to the structure

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70
Q

Identify the perpendicular plate.

A

point to the structure

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70
Q

Identify the palatine bone.

A

point to the structure

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71
Q

Identify the sella turcica.

A

point to the structure

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72
Q

Identify the lesser wings of the sella turcica.

A

point to the structure

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73
Q

Identify the greater wings of the sella turcica.

A

point to the structure

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74
Q

Identify the crista galli.

A

point to the structure

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75
Q

___ is the spinal curve with the convexity of the curve anterior.

A

lordosis

*often affects the lumbar
*makes L-shape
*curves inward (anterior)

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76
Q

___ is the spinal curve with the concavity of the curve anterior.

A

Kyphosis

*often affects the thoracic vertebrae
*curves outward (posterior)

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77
Q

What do we call an increased lordotic curve?

A

hyperlordosis

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78
Q

What do we call an increased kyphotic curve?

A

hyperkyphosis

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78
Q

How many vertebra in the spine?

A

25 vertebra

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79
Q

What are the 3 regions of the spine?

A

cervical

thoracic

lumbar

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80
Q

How many cervical vertebrae are there?

A

7

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81
Q

How many thoracic vertebrae are there?

A

12

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81
Q

How many lumbar vertebrae are there?

A

5

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82
Q

What is the “memory trick” to remember how many vertebrae are in each region of the spine?

A

Breakfast - Cervical has 7 vertebrae
Lunch - Thoracic has 12 vertebrae
Dinner - Lumbar has 5 vertebrae

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83
Q

The cervical spine has 2 very unique vertebrae called the ___ and ___.

A

atlas and axis

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84
Q

The vertebrae are numbered according to their location from top to bottom. For example, C2 is the ___ ___ vertebra, T5 is the ___ ___ vertebra and L5 is the ___ ___ vertebra.

A

second cervical

fifth thoracic

fifth lumbar

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85
Q

There are ___ spinal curves.

A

4

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86
Q

The cervical and lumbar curves are both known as ___ curves or lordoses.

A

lordotic

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86
Q

Which curves of the spine are considered to be in lordosis?

A

cervical and lumbar curves

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86
Q

What are the 4 spinal curves?

A

cervical curve

thoracic curve

lumbar curve

pelvic curve

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86
Q

A lordotic curve is characterized by having its ___ anterior.

A

convexity

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86
Q

Lordotic curves are considered ___ curves because they develop ___ birth when humans begin to hold their heads up, sit up, and walk.

A

secondary

after

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86
Q

The thoracic and pelvic curves are called ___ curves.

A

kyphotic

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87
Q

Which curves of the spine are considered to be in kyphosis?

A

thoracic and pelvic curves

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87
Q

Kyphotic curves or kyphoses are characterized as being ___ anteriorly.

A

concave

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87
Q

The kyphotic curves are considered ___ curves because they are present at birth.

A

primary

87
Q

What do we call an increased curvature of the cervical or lumbar spine?

A

hyperlordosis

88
Q

What do we call an increased curvature of the thoracic or pelvic spine?

A

hyperkyphosis

88
Q

What do we call a decreased curvature of the cervical or lumbar spine?

A

hypolordosis

88
Q

The ___ attach to the 12 thoracic vertebra in the back and some ribs attach to the sternum in the front.

A

ribs

89
Q

There are ___ types of ribs.

A

3

90
Q

What are the 3 types of ribs?

A

true ribs

false ribs

floating ribs

91
Q

Ribs 1-7 are called ___ ribs.

A

true

92
Q

Ribs 8-10 are called ___ ribs.

A

false

93
Q

Why are ribs 1-7 called true ribs?

A

because they attach directly to the sternum

93
Q

Ribs 11-12 are called ___ ribs.

A

floating

94
Q

How are ribs 1-7 (true ribs) attached to the sternum?

A

by way of their cartilage called costochondral cartilage

95
Q

What is the name of the cartilage that attached the ribs to the sternum?

A

costochondral cartilage

96
Q

Why are ribs 8-10 called false ribs?

A

because they are attached to the cartilage of the true ribs

97
Q

Why are ribs 11-12 called floating ribs?

A

because they have no connection to the sternum

97
Q

The sternum has ___ parts.

A

3

98
Q

What are the 3 parts of the sternum?

A

manubrium - superior portion

body - middle portion

xiphoid process - inferior portion

99
Q

The ___ is a triangular bone that consists of a series of 5 fused vertebrae.

A

sacrum

100
Q

How many fused bones are there in the sacrum?

A

5

101
Q

How many small, fused bones are there in the coccyx?

A

3-5

101
Q

The inferior end of the sacrum is a small bone called the ___ which consists of another series of 3-5 very small, fused vertebrae.

A

coccyx

102
Q

The ribs attach to the 12 ___ vertebra in the back.

A

thoracic

102
Q

The upper extremity begins with what is called the ___ (shoulder) girdle.

A

pectoral

103
Q

What bones does the pectoral girdle consist of?

A

clavicle and scapula

104
Q

The pectoral girdle acts as a support for the ___.

A

arms

105
Q

The pectoral girdle attaches to the axial skeleton where the ___ attaches to the sternum (sternoclavicular joint). This is the only direct attachment of the arm to the ___.

A

clavicle

body

105
Q

What is the only direct attachment of the arm to the body?

A

clavicle to sternum (sternoclavicular joint)

*there are many muscles that help to stabilize the connection

106
Q

The ___ are the only S-shaped bones.

A

clavicles

107
Q

The ___ is a triangular bone located in the posterior portion of the thoracic area. It articulates with the clavicle and the humerus.

A

scapula

108
Q

What forms the “socket” of the ball and socket joint of the shoulder?

A

glenoid cavity

109
Q

The ___ ___ or fossa is a concave surface on the lateral aspect of the scapula. It forms the “___” of the ball and socket joint of the shoulder.

A

glenoid cavity

“socket”

110
Q

The ___ of the scapula is located on the posterior surface. It is a ridge of bone extending superiorly from medial to lateral.

A

spine

110
Q

The ___ ___ is the terminal end of the spine of the scapula. It is a large process and articulates with the clavicle. The acromion process marks the highest point of the shoulder.

A

acromion process

110
Q

The ___ ___ is located on the anterior aspect of the scapula. This process is smaller than the acromion process and is located anterior and inferior to it.

A

coracoid process

111
Q

What markets the highest point of the shoulder?

A

acromion process

111
Q

Identify the intertubercular groove of the humerus.

A

point to the structure

111
Q

Identify the head of the humerus.

A

point to the structure

111
Q

The ___ is the proximal bone of the arm. It is a long tubular bone that articulates proximally with the scapula and distally with the radius and ulna.

A

humerus

111
Q

Identify the surgical neck of the humerus.

A

point to the structure

112
Q

Identify the anatomical neck of the humerus.

A

point to the structure

112
Q

Identify the greater tubercle of the humerus.

A

point of the structure

112
Q

Identify the lesser tubercle of the humerus.

A

point to the structure

113
Q

Identify the lateral epicondyle of the humerus.

A

point to the structure

113
Q

Identify the deltoid tuberosity of the humerus.

A

point to the structure

114
Q

Identify the medial epicondyle of the humerus.

A

point to the structure

115
Q

Identify the capitulum of the humerus.

A

point to the structure

116
Q

Identify the trochlea of the humerus.

A

point to the structure

117
Q

Identify the olecranon fossa.

A

point to the structure

118
Q

Identify the coronoid fossa.

A

point to the structure

119
Q

The bump on your elbow is actually the ___ process of the ulna

A

olecranon

119
Q

The ulna and radius both support the forearm. The ulna is on the ___ side of the forearm (when the palms are faced up). The radius is on the ___ side of the forearm (when the palms are faced up)

A

medial

lateral

120
Q

The ulna articulates with the trochlea of the ___ and forms a hinge joint.

A

humerus

121
Q

Identify the olecranon process of the ulna.

A

point to the structure

121
Q

Identify the trochlear notch of the ulna.

A

point to the structure

122
Q

Identify the trochlear notch of the ulna.

A

point to the structure

123
Q

Identify the radial notch of the ulna.

A

point to the structure

124
Q

Identify the styloid process of the ulna.

A

point to the structure

125
Q

Identify the head of the radius.

A

point to the structure

126
Q

Identify the radial tuberosity of the radius.

A

point to the structure

127
Q

Identify the styloid process of the radius.

A

point to the structure

128
Q

The carpal bones are located in the ___.

A

wrist

129
Q

The carpal bones consist of ___ bones that articulate with the radius and ulna ___ and the metacarpals ___.

A

8

proximally

distally

130
Q

The 8 carpal bones:

A
  • Scaphoid
  • Lunate
  • Triquetrum
  • Pisiform
  • Trapezium
  • Trapezoid
  • Capitate
  • Hamate
131
Q

What is the “memory trick” for the 8 carpal bones?

A

Some Lovers Try Positions That They Can’t Handle

132
Q

The remaining fingers have proximal, ___ and ___ phalanges.

A

middle, distal

132
Q

The bones of the hand are called the ____. They are numbered 1-5.

A

metacarpals

133
Q

The finger bones are called ___. They are numbered the same as the metacarpals and named for their location.

A

phalanges

133
Q

The ___ has only a proximal and distal phalanx.

A

thumb

134
Q

The lower portion of the appendicular skeleton begins with the ___ girdle which includes the ___ bones.

A

pelvic girdle

coxal bones

134
Q

What are the 3 fused bones of the coxal bone?

A

ilium

ischium

pubis

135
Q

The coxal bones consist of ___ fused bones.

A

3

135
Q

The 2 coxal ilium bones connect with the sacrum to form the ___ ___.

A

sacroiliac joints

135
Q

The ___ is the largest bone of the coxal bones and if you put your hands on your hips you are resting them on your ilium bones.

A

ilium

136
Q

The femur bone is the upper leg bone and is the ___ bone in the body.

A

longest

137
Q

What is the longest bone in the body?

A

femur bone

138
Q

Identify the head of the femur.

A

point to the structure

139
Q

Identify the neck of the femur.

A

point to the structure

140
Q

Identify the lesser trochanter of the femur.

A

point to the structure

141
Q

Identify the greater trochanter of the femur.

A

point to the structure

142
Q

Identify the medial and lateral condyles.

A

point to the structures

143
Q

Identify the tibial tuberosity of the tibia.

A

point to the structure

143
Q

Between the tibia and fibula of the lower leg, which bone is larger? Which bone is medial and which bone is lateral?

A

tibia is larger

tibia is medial

fibula is lateral

144
Q

Identify the tibial condyles of the tibia.

A

point to the structure

145
Q

Identify the medial malleolus of the tibia.

A

point to the structure

146
Q

Identify the fibular head of the fibula.

A

point to the structure

147
Q

Identify the lateral malleolus of the fibula.

A

point to the structure

148
Q

Identify the patella (knee bone).

A

point to the structure

149
Q

The ___ and ___ consist of the tarsals, metatarsals, and phalanges and have a similar construction to the wrist and hand.

A

ankle and foot

149
Q

The ___ or heel bone is the largest of the tarsals.

A

calcaneus

149
Q

What do we call the knee bone?

A

patella

149
Q

The ___ forms the ankle joint with the tibia and fibula.

A

talus

150
Q

The bones of the tarsals:

A
  • Calcaneus
  • Talus
  • Navicular
  • Cuboid
  • Lateral cuneiform
  • Intermediate cuneiform
  • Medial cuneiform
150
Q

What is the bone that we call heel bone?

A

calcaneus

150
Q

What is a “memory trick” for the bones of the tarsals?

A

“Tiger Cubs Need MILC”

151
Q

There are 3 ___ bones named for their position which articulate with the metatarsals.

A

cuneiform

*medial, intermediate, and lateral cuneiform bones

152
Q

There are 5 tubular bones of the feet called ___ that are named for their position (1-5).

A

metatarsals

153
Q

The phalanges of the feet are similar to those in the fingers. The big toe only has ___ and ___ phalanges while the remaining toes have ___, ___, and ___ phalanges.

A

proximal and distal

proximal, middle, and distal

154
Q

Joints are called ___.

A

articulations

155
Q

Joints can be classified according to the ___ that connects the bones. Joints can also be classified according to their degree of ___.

A

tissue

movement

156
Q

What are the three basic categories of joints?

A
  • Fibrous
  • Cartilagenous
  • Synovial
157
Q

Fibrous joints are held together by ___ connective tissue.

A

dense

158
Q

Examples of ___ joints include the sutures in the skull, teeth, and ligaments between bones called interosseous ligaments.

A

fibrous joints

159
Q

Most joints in the body are what type of joint?

A

synovial joint

159
Q

Cartilagenous joints are bones united by ___.

A

cartilage

160
Q

Examples of ___ joints include the intervertebral discs and the symphysis pubis.

A

cartilaginous

161
Q

Synovial joints contain fluid (___ ___) and cartilage on the ends of the bones.

A

synovial fluid

161
Q

Synovial joints are ___ movable and encapsulated by a synovial membrane.

A

freely

162
Q

___ ___ are freely movable and encapsulated by a synovial membrane.

A

Synovial joints

162
Q

In synovial joints, strong bands of dense connective tissue called ___ connect the bones together.

A

ligaments

163
Q

Some synovial joints contain discs of fibrocartilage called ___ that act as small cushions to help dissipate force from the bones.

A

menisci

163
Q

Menisci are fibrocartilage disks that act as ___ to help dissipate from the bones.

A

cushions

163
Q

Small sacs called bursa contain synovial fluid that helps to cushion the area around the joints and reduce friction.

A

bursa

164
Q

Bursa are small ___ that contain synovial fluid to help cushion and ___ friction in the area around it.

A

sac

reduce

164
Q

Ball and socket joints, hinge joints, condyloid joints, gliding joints, pivot joints, and saddle joints are types of ____ joints.

A

synovial joints

164
Q

Ball and socket joints are a type of ___ joint and consist of a ___ process and rounded socket.

A

synovial

rounded

165
Q

___ and ___ joints consist of a rounded process and rounded socket. These include the hip and shoulder and allow for a variety of movements.

A

Ball and socket joints

166
Q

Hinge joints are a type of ___ joint and consist of a convex surface and ___ socket.

A

synovial

concave

167
Q

___ joints consist of a convex surface and concave socket. Examples include the joint between the humerus and ulna as well as in some of the phalanges. Hinge joints only move in ___ plane.

A

Hinge joints

one

168
Q

Condyloid joints are a type of ___ joint and consist of ___ processes fitting into elliptical sockets.

A

synovial

oval

168
Q

___ joints consist of oval processes fitting into elliptical sockets. An example of this joint is the metacarpal phalangeal joint.

A

Condyloid joints

169
Q

Gliding joints are a type of ___ joint and consist of ___ surfaces connected together. Examples include the carpal bones of the wrist.

A

synovial

flattened

170
Q

___ joints consist of flattened surfaces connected together. Examples include the carpal bones of the wrist.

A

Gliding joints

170
Q

___ joints consist of a cylinder fitting into a ring of bone. Examples include the joint between the atlas and the axis of the spine and the joint between the radius and humerus.

A

Pivot joints

170
Q

Saddle joints are a type of ___ joint and consist of two bones having ___ concave and convex surfaces.

A

synovial

both

170
Q

Pivot joints are a type of ___ joint and consist of a ___ fitting into a ring of bone.

A

synovial

cylinder

171
Q

Flexion consists of the humerus moving ___ in a sagittal plane.

A

anteriorly

171
Q

___ consists of the humerus moving posteriorly in a sagittal plane.

A

Extension

171
Q

___ is the movement of the humerus away from the body in a coronal plane.

A

Abduction

171
Q

Abduction is the movement of the humerus ___ from the body in a coronal plane.

A

away

172
Q

Extension consists of the humerus moving ___ in a sagittal plane.

A

posteriorly

173
Q

___ joints consist of two bones having both concave and convex surfaces. An example is the carpal-metacarpal joint of the hand.

A

Saddle joints

174
Q

___ consists of the humerus moving anteriorly in a sagittal plane.

A

Flexion

175
Q

Adduction is moving the humerus ___ the body in a coronal plane.

A

toward

175
Q

___ is moving the humerus toward the body in a coronal plane.

A

Adduction

176
Q

Internal rotation is moving the humerus along its long axis ___ the body.

A

toward

176
Q

___ ___ is moving the humerus along its long axis toward the body.

A

Internal rotation

176
Q

___ ___ is moving the humerus along its long axis away from the body.

A

External rotation

176
Q

___ is the movement of the foot so the sole of the foot points medially.

A

Inversion

177
Q

External rotation is moving the humerus along its long axis ___ from the body.

A

away

178
Q

Inversion is the movement of the foot so the sole of the foot points ___.

A

medially

179
Q

___ is the movement of the foot so the sole of the foot points laterally.

A

Eversion

180
Q

Eversion is the movement of the foot so the sole of the foot points ___.

A

laterally

181
Q

What is a common inflammatory disorder of the joints?

A

arthritis

182
Q

What kind of arthritis can worn-down joints develop?

A

osteoarthritis

183
Q

Osteoarthritis is developed by ___-___ joints.

A

worn-down

184
Q

What kind of arthritis is caused by an autoimmune disorder?

A

rheumatoid arthritis

185
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis is caused by an ___ disorder.

A

autoimmune

186
Q

___ ___ is composed of repeating units of osteons and is the strongest form of bone tissue. On the contrary, ___ ___ is lighter than compact bone tissue and is always located on the interior of the bone.

A

Compact bone

spongy bone

187
Q

Osteoporosis is an ___ in bone remodeling where bone resorption ___ bone formation, resulting in porous and fragile bones.

A

imbalance

exceeds

188
Q

Physiologically, bone resorption and deposition are in equilibrium. Which of the following is the result of inhibition of bone resorption and prevention of calcium removal from the bone?

A

hypocalcemia

189
Q

The epiphyseal plate which is responsible for the continued elongation of bones is made up of ___.

A

cartilage

190
Q

The yellow marrow-containing space found within adult bone diaphysis is called the:

A

medullary cavity

191
Q

Sesamoid bones develop from tendons. Which of the following are sesamoid bones?

A

patellae (kneecaps)

192
Q

Which of the following causes bone matrix resorption during bone growth and remodeling?

A

osteoclasts

193
Q

___ are the cells responsible for bone matrix synthesis and calcification.

A

Osteoblasts

194
Q

___ are responsible for the maintenance of calcified bone matrix.

A

Osteocytes

195
Q

When someone is immobile, they may experience loss of bone density due to ___.

A

demineralization

196
Q

Fragile bones due to production of deficient or defective collagen as a result of a genetic defect is a characteristic of which of the following conditions?

A

Brittle Bone Disease

197
Q

The site where two or more bones meet is called a ___.

A

joint

198
Q

Which of the following bones is responsible for side-to-side movement of the head?

A

axis (C2)

199
Q

The ___ corresponds to the first cervical vertebrae and facilitates the up-and-down movement of the head.

A

atlas

*the globe (ATLAS) sits on the AXIS

200
Q

The inhibition of activity or function of osteoblasts at the epiphyseal plate will result in which of the following?

A

mineralization of the bone matrix will be halted

*The main function of osteoblasts is to synthesize bone matrix.
**Inhibition of the activity of osteoblasts will result in decreased mineralization and synthesis of the bone matrix.

201
Q

Which of the following structures allows motion around a single axis and only permits flexion and extension?

A

hinge joint

202
Q

Which of the following structures connects a bone and a muscle together and serves to move the bone?

A

tendon

203
Q

Which of the following structures connects a bone and another bone together?

A

ligaments

*ligaments connect bones, cartilage, and joints; they are meant to hold structures together and keep them stable, not help them move.

204
Q

___ is the tough connective tissue that covers the bone surface.

A

Periosteum

205
Q

Which of the following is a component of the axial skeleton that does not form a joint with other bones of the human body?

A

hyoid

*The hyoid bone is suspended by ligaments and muscles.