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TEAS 7 Test Prep > TEAS 7 - Science (Blood) > Flashcards

TEAS 7 - Science (Blood) Flashcards

1
Q

Plasma is the ___ component of the blood and exludes blood cells

A

liquid

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2
Q

Red blood cells (erythrocytes) are a type of ___ ___ that is made in the bone marrow and found in the blood.

A

blood cell

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3
Q

Where are red blood cells (erythrocytes) made?

A

bone marrow

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4
Q

Red blood cells contain a protein called ___, which carries ___ from the lungs to all parts of the body.

A

hemoglobin

oxygen

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5
Q

What protein is attached to red blood cells? What does this protein carry?

A

hemoglobin

oxygen

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6
Q

White blood cells (leukocytes) are part of the body’s ___ system. They help the body ___ infection and other diseases.

A

immune

fight

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7
Q

Types of white blood cells

A
  • granulocytes (neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils)
  • monocytes
  • lymphocytes (T cells and B cells)
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8
Q

Blood is considered ___ tissue.

A

connective tissue

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9
Q

What are the 4 primary constituents of blood?

A
  • red blood cells (erythrocytes)
  • white blood cells (leukocytes)
  • platelets (cell fragments)
  • plasma (straw-colored liquid)
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10
Q

What is the typical volume of blood in adults?

A

5 L

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11
Q

Besides containing the cells, plasma contains ____ , amino acids, proteins, carbohydrates, ___, electrolytes, cellular wastes and ___.

A

vitamins

lipids

hormones

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12
Q

If we were to separate the solid from the liquid portion of blood, we would see that it is about ___% cells and ___% plasma by volume. This separation is done in clinical laboratories and is called a ___.

A

45%

55%

hematocrit

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13
Q

A hematocrit is performed in clinical labs and ___ the solid from the liquid portion of blood.

A

separates

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14
Q

What do we call the fluid portion of blood?

A

plasma

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15
Q

What does the solid portion of blood consist of?

A

cells

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16
Q

All blood cells come from the same cell of origin known as a ___ (stem cell). The hemocytoblast can differentiate into any of the mature blood cells by responding to factors called ___ ___ factors.

A

hemocytoblast

colony-stimulating

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17
Q

stem cell that all blood cells come from

A

hemocytoblast

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18
Q

Blood cells are known as the ___ ___ of the blood.

A

formed elements

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19
Q

Of the formed elements, which one makes up the largest percentage of the blood?

A

red blood cells (erythrocytes)

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20
Q

What is the red blood cell’s primary function?

A

to transport oxygen

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21
Q

The red blood cell’s primary function is to transport ___. They have a unique ___ disc shape that functions to increase the surface area of the cell in order to allow a ___ amount of oxygen-binding.

A

oxygen

biconcave

greater

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22
Q

The red color of the cell is due to the presence of a protein molecule called ___. Hemoglobin makes up about one-third of the cell’s volume.

A

hemoglobin

one-third

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23
Q

Why are red blood cells the color red?

A

hemoglobin

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24
Q

Hemoglobin is the ___ molecule for oxygen and carbon dioxide. ___ is formed when oxygen combines with hemoglobin. Oxyhemoglobin is a ___ red color.

A

transport

Oxyhemoglobin

bright

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25
Q

___ is formed when oxygen is released from hemoglobin. Deoxyhemoglobin is a ___ red color. Deoxygenated blood looks bluish under the skin because the skin filters out some of the light.

A

Deoxyhemoglobin

dull

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26
Q

Hemoglobin also transports carbon dioxide. Carbaminohemoglobin is formed when ___ ___ combines with hemoglobin. A small amount of carbon dioxide is transported this way.

A

carbon dioxide

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27
Q

What is hemoglobin called when oxygen combines with it?

A

oxyhemoglobin

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28
Q

What is hemoglobin called when oxygen is released from it?

A

deoxyhemoglobin

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29
Q

What is hemoglobin called when carbon dioxide is combined with it?

A

carbaminohemoglobin

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30
Q

Since the main function of red blood cells is to transport gasses, is there need for a nucleus or mitochondria?

A

no

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31
Q

Where do red blood cells develop?

A

bone marrow

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32
Q

The process of blood cell formation is called ___.

A

hematopoiesis

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33
Q

The process of ___ cell formation is called hematopoiesis. The process of red blood cell formation is known as ___.

A

blood

erythropoiesis

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34
Q

In erythropoiesis, immature red blood cells called ___ differentiate from ___ in the presence of the hormone erythropoietin.

A

erythroblasts

hemocytoblasts

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35
Q

What hormone causes hemocytoblasts to differentiate into erythroblasts?

A

erythropoietin

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36
Q

Erythropoietin is the ___ that causes hemocytoblasts to differentiate into erythroblasts. It is secreted by the kidneys and liver in response to ___ oxygen concentration in the blood.

A

hormone

low

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37
Q

Erythroblasts still contain a nucleus and mitochondria and produce the hemoglobin. When they mature into ___, they shed the nucleus and mitochondria.

A

erythrocytes

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38
Q

Do erythroblasts have a nucleus or mitochondria? What about erythrocytes?

A

Yes

No

Erythroblasts still contain a nucleus and mitochondria and produce the hemoglobin. When they mature into erythrocytes, they shed the nucleus and mitochondria.

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39
Q

The red blood cells then circulate in the bloodstream for approximately ___ days. During their lifetime they slowly wear out from passing through small ___ membranes

A

120

capillary

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40
Q

Each cell can travel through the body as many as 75,000 times. After about ___ days they become worn enough to pass through capillary membranes in the spleen and liver. There they are broken down and phagocytized by ___ (white blood cells) and the ___ is recycled.

A

120

macrophages

hemoglobin

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41
Q

Hemoglobin is broken down in the ___ and ___ into four globin molecules and one heme molecule.

A

liver

spleen

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42
Q

Hemoglobin is broken down into four ___ molecules and one ___ molecule.

A

globin

heme

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43
Q

Hemoglobin is broken down into four globin molecules and one heme molecule. The heme molecule breaks down into ___ and ___. Some of the iron combines with a molecule of ___ and is recycled in the bone marrow. The rest of the iron is combined with ___ and stored in the liver. The biliverdin is converted to ___ (an orange pigment) and both bilirubin and biliverdin are secreted in the bile and end up in the digestive tract.

A

iron

biliverdin

transferrin

ferrin

bilirubin

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44
Q

An indicator of the amount of red blood cells in the bloodstream is known as the ___ ___ ___ count.

A

red blood cell count

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45
Q

What is the red blood cell count?

A

the number of red blood cells in a cubic millimeter of blood

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46
Q

An increase in the red blood cell count is known as ___ or ___.

A

erythrocytosis or erythemia

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47
Q

Erythrocytosis or erythemia (increase in blood cell count) is caused by ___ disease, poisoning, and dehydration. A ___increase in red blood cell count occurs when people living at sea level visit high altitude environments.

A

lung

temporary

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48
Q

A decrease in the red blood cell count is known as ___.

A

anemia

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49
Q

Anemia can be caused by a number of factors such as vitamin ___ deficiency, blood loss, and __ deficiency.

A

B12

iron

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50
Q

Deficiency of vitamin B12 results from either a ___ problem or stomach lining problem, a type of anemia called ___ anemia can develop.

A

dietary

pernicious

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51
Q

The cells in pernicious anemia are usually ___ (macrocytic). This is because the larger hemocytoblast has not ___ fully into a smaller erythrocyte.

A

larger

differentiated

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52
Q

Iron is also needed for the production of red blood cells. Iron is needed for the production of ___. Iron deficiencies can also result in an anemia known as ___ ___ anemia. The cells in iron deficiency anemia are usually smaller and contain ___ hemoglobin.

A

hemoglobin

iron deficiency anemia

less

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53
Q

What is needed to make red blood cells?

A

vitamin B12

folic acid

iron

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54
Q

What is needed for vitamin B12 absoption to occur?

A

intrinsic factor

55
Q

Intrinsic factor is needed in order for ___ ___ absorption to occur. Intrinsic factor is secreted by the ___. Damage to the stomach lining can ___ the secretion of the intrinsic factor and produce a vitamin B12 deficiency.

A

vitamin B12

stomach

decrease

56
Q

Vitamin ___ and ___ acid are needed in order to allow the hemocytoblast to fully develop into a ___ red blood cell.

A

B12

folic

mature

57
Q

What can cause a deficiency in vitamin B12?

A

a dietary problem or stomach lining problem

58
Q

What kind of anemia can result from a deficiency in vitamin B12?

A

pernicious anemia

59
Q

White blood cells are also called ___.

A

leukocytes

60
Q

White blood cells are found in the blood, but many also work ___ of the circulatory system in organs and tissues.

A

outside

61
Q

What are the 2 major categories of leukocytes?

A

Granulocytes - have a granular cytoplasm

agranulocytes - no granular cytoplasm

62
Q

Granulocytes tend to be significantly ___ than red blood cells.

A

larger

63
Q

What are the 3 types of granulocytes?

A

neutrophils

basophils

eosinophils

64
Q

Granulocytes also have a significantly ___ lifespan (measured in hours) than red blood cells (120 days)

A

shorter

65
Q

Which cell comprises the majority of leukocytes?

A

neutrophils (a granulocyte)

66
Q

What is the function of neutrophils?

A

phagocytosis

67
Q

Which cells arrive first to fight infection?

A

neutrophils

68
Q

Neutrophils are ___ than red blood cells and contain a segmented nucleus. They are the ___ of leukocytes. Their function is primarily ___ of bacteria and viruses. They are the ___ cells to arrive at an infection.

A

larger

majority

phagocytosis

first

69
Q

Basophils have large ___ and a bilobed nucleus. The granules contain substances that promote ___ such as histamine which causes vasodilation and heparin which is an anticoagulant.

A

granules

inflammation

70
Q

What is the function of basophils?

A

Basophils have granules. These granules are filled with enzymes, like histamine, that are released during allergic reactions.

71
Q

___ are the only white blood cells circulating around your body that contain histamine.

A

Basophils

72
Q

Eosinophils have small granules and a bilobed nucleus. Eosinophils moderate ___ reactions and defend against parasites.

A

allergic

73
Q

Agranulocytes are a category of leukocytes that do not contain ___ in their cytoplasms.

A

granules

74
Q

___ have a granular cytoplasm while ___ do not have granules in their cytoplasm.

A

Granulocytes

agranulocytes

75
Q

What are 2 types of agranulocytes?

A

monocytes

lymphocytes

76
Q

Monocytes are ___ leukocytes so there are no granules in the cytoplasm. Monocytes have a ___ ___ nucleus; their function is to clean up debris and ingest bacteria via ___.

A

agranular

kidney-shaped

phagocytosis

77
Q

What is the function of monocytes?

A

to clean up debris and ingest bacteria via phagocytosis

78
Q

Lymphocytes are about the ___ size as a red blood cell. They have a ___ nucleus. There are 2 major types of lymphocytes which include ___ lymphocytes. Their primary function is to provide immune support.

A

same

large

T and B

79
Q

What do we call cells that help stop bleeding?

A

platelets

80
Q

What are platelets?

A

fragments of cells that help stop bleeding

81
Q

Platelets are fragments of cells that help stop ___. Platelets can ___ together and form plugs as well as promote ___ to help stop bleeding in blood vessels.

A

bleeding

stick

vasoconstriction

82
Q

___ are structures on the surface of red blood cells that designates the blood type

A

antigens

83
Q

___ are structures in the blood plasma that attaches to specific antigens

A

antibodies

84
Q

Agglutination is an adverse reaction that occurs when ___ blood types mix which is characterized by clumping of red blood cells.

A

incompatible

85
Q

What adverse reaction occurs when incompatible blood types mix? What is it characterized by?

A

agglutination

clumping of red blood cells

86
Q

What antibodies are associated with hemolytic disease of the newborn?

A

Rh antibodies

87
Q

What is the adverse reaction that occurs when Rh antibodies attack fetal blood?

A

Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn

88
Q

Blood can be categorized or typed according to a set of ___ present on the surface of red blood cells.

A

antigens

89
Q

Blood typing can be used to determine ___ in case a transfusion is needed.

A

compatibility

90
Q

What are the 3 antigens used to determine blood compatibility (blood typing)?

A

A, B, and Rh

91
Q

____ ___ blood contains antigen A on the surface of the red blood cells.

A

Type A

92
Q

____ ___ blood contains antigen B on the surface of the red blood cells.

A

Type B

93
Q

____ ___ blood contains both antigens A and B on the surface of the red blood cells.

A

Type AB

94
Q

Which type of blood contains neither antigen?

A

Type O blood

95
Q

Type A blood also contains antibodies that are ___ compatible with antigen B. These are known as ___ antibodies.

A

not

anti-B

96
Q

Type B blood also contains antibodies that are ___ compatible with antigen A. These are known as ___ antibodies.

A

not

anti-A

97
Q

Mixing type A blood with type B blood and vice versa produces a reaction known as ___ in which the blood coagulates.

A

agglutination

98
Q

Type AB blood contains __ antibodies that will react with the type A or B antigens.

A

no

99
Q

Which blood type contains no antibodies that will react with the type A or B antigens?

A

type AB blood

100
Q

Which blood type contains antibodies that are not compatible with antigen A?

A

type B blood

101
Q

Which blood type contains antibodies that are not compatible with antigen B?

A

type A blood

102
Q

Which blood type is known as the universal recipient?

A

type AB blood

103
Q

Why is type AB blood known as the universal recipient?

A

Type AB blood contains no antibodies that will react with the type A or B antigens.

104
Q

Which blood type is known as the universal donor?

A

type O blood

105
Q

Why is type O blood known as the universal donor?

A

Type O blood cells do not have either the A or B antigen

this means they cannot be attacked by anti-A or anti-B antibodies in other blood types

any of the other blood types (A, B, AB) can receive this blood

106
Q

Type O blood cells do ___ have either the A or B antigen. This blood contains ___ antibody anti-A and antibody anti-B.

A

not

both

107
Q

What blood type is type A blood compatible with?

A

itself (type A)

type O

108
Q

What blood type is type B blood compatible with?

A

itself (type B)

type O

109
Q

What blood type is type AB blood compatible with?

A

all blood types

*NO anti-A or anti-B antibodies

110
Q

What blood type is type O blood compatible with?

A

only itself

*both anti-A and anti-B antibodies

111
Q

Type O blood has ___ antigens but it has both ___ and ___ antibodies. It is the universal ___.

A

no

anti-A, anti-B

donor

112
Q

Type AB blood has both ___ and ___ antigens but it has ___ antibodies. It is the universal ___.

A

A, B

no

recipient

113
Q

If the Rh antigen is present on the surface of the red blood cells the blood is Rh positive.

A

positive

114
Q

If the Rh antigen is absent on the surface of the red blood cells the blood is Rh ___.

A

negative

115
Q

Anti-Rh antibodies typically do not appear in the blood. However, they can develop in an Rh-___ person who has been exposed to Rh-___ blood.

A

Rh-negative

Rh-positive

116
Q

Who can develop anti-Rh antibodies?

A

a Rh-negative person who has been exposed to Rh-positive blood

117
Q

Rh-positive blood is compatible with ___ Rh-positive or Rh-negative blood. However, Rh-negative blood is only compatible with ___ (Rh-negative).

A

both

itself

118
Q

What blood is compatible with both Rh-positive and Rh-negative blood?

A

Rh-positive blood

119
Q

What blood is compatible with only Rh-negative blood and not Rh-positive blood?

A

Rh-negative blood

120
Q

If a mother with Rh-negative blood has a fetus with Rh-positive blood anti-Rh antibodies can develop in the mother which can attack the fetus’s blood, particularly during labor and delivery. This is called erythoblastosis fetalis or ___ ___ ___. This can be prevented by giving the mother an antibody serum that neutralizes any blood fetal cells that may enter the mother’s blood.

A

hemolytic disease of the newborn

121
Q

If a mother with ___ blood has a fetus with ___ blood anti-Rh antibodies can develop in the mother which can attack the fetus’s blood, particularly during labor and delivery. This is called erythoblastosis fetalis or hemolytic disease of the newborn. This can be prevented by giving the mother an ___ ___ that neutralizes any blood fetal cells that may enter the mother’s blood.

A

Rh-negative

Rh positive

antibody serum

122
Q

What do we call the process that is used to stop bleeding?

A

hemostasis

123
Q

What are the three basic mechanisms of hemostasis?

A

blood vessel spasm

platelet plug formation

clotting

124
Q

Let’s say there is a damaged blood vessel that is leaking blood.

The first response will be for the vessel to ___ to help stop the bleeding.

Platelets will contact the damaged blood vessel wall and then stick together to form a plug. This is also called ___ ___.

Finally, the clotting mechanism will be ___.

A

constrict

platelet aggregation

activated

125
Q

There are 3 pathways in clotting. These are the ___, ___, and ___ pathways.

A

intrinsic

extrinsic

common

126
Q

When is the intrinsic pathway activated?

A

when blood contacts damaged blood vessel walls or is not moving (stasis)

*blood has not left the vessel

127
Q

The ___ pathway is activated when blood contacts damaged blood vessel walls or is not moving as in stasis.

This pathway is triggered when blood has ___ left the vessel.

A series of proteins are activated in the blood in a series of reactions that lead to the common pathway and the formation of a clot.

A

intrinsic

not

128
Q

When is the extrinsic pathway activated?

A

when blood leaves a damaged blood vessel

129
Q

The ___ pathway is triggered when blood leaves a damaged blood vessel, such as in our example.

This activates a clotting factor in the tissue surrounding the vessel which then activates a series of clotting factors in the blood that also lead to the common pathway and the formation of a clot.

A

extrinsic

130
Q

The ___ pathway is where the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways converge. This happens at factor 10 and ends with the formation of a ___ clot.

A

common

fibrin

131
Q

When is the common pathway activated?

A

when the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways converge

132
Q

Fibrin comes from fibrinogen. ___ is not soluble while fibrinogen is soluble.

A

not

fibrin

133
Q

Fibrin comes from a soluble plasma protein called ___ which is converted to fibrin threads that weave together to form a clot in the last step of the ___ pathway.

A

fibrinogen

common

TEAS 7 Test Prep (12 decks)

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