TBI Flashcards

1
Q

definition: any injury to the brain that is not hereditary, congenital, degenerative, or induced by birth trauma.

A

Acquired brain injury (ABI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

(true/false) TBI is not a type of ABI.

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Cerebral palsy is a ___ that occurs before birth.

A

TBI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

(true/false) The number of people who sustain TBIs and do not seek treatment is UNKNOWN.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

___% of persons discharged after acute TBI hospitalizations develop long-term disability

A

43%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the high risk population of TBI?

A

Males 0-4 y/o and 15-19 y/o

elderly 65-75 y/o

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Alcohol is a factor in ___% of TBI incidents

A

50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the leading cause of TBI?

A

falls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Secondary injury after a TBI causes (less/more) damage than the primary injury.

A

More

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Contusions, lacerations, and hematomas cause (focal/diffused) damage.

A

focal damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

definition: scattered areas of hemorrhage or bruising usually along the undersurface of the frontal and temporal lobes due to the brain striking a ridge on the skull or dural fold. Seen with individuals with a serious head injury and often accompanied with SDH or EDH

A

contusions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

definition:

TBI caused by:
Acceleration/Deceleration of the brain in the skull

Shearing and rotational forces

Axonal disruption in cerebrum, cerebellum and brainstem

Widespread/diffuse damage

Can now be found on imaging

A

Diffuse axonal injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Anoxia/hypoxia is a (ABI/TBI)

A

ABI (not traumatic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What has a worse prognosis… anoxia/hypoxia or TBI?

A

anoxia/hypoxia due to it having more diffusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

definition: injury that is a result of the brain’s reaction to trauma or other system failure.

A

secondary intracranial insults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Secondary intracranial insults occur primarily due to what?

A

lack of oxygen (can occur from minutes to days after)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

definition: Collection of blood in between the skull and dura mater

Brief LOC
Lucid interval
Progressive neurological deterioration

A

epidermal hematoma (EDH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is more common… epidural hematoma or Subdural hemorrhage?

A

subdural hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the key to survival for a person with an epidural hematoma?

A

early detection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

definition: a collection of blood between dura mater and arachnoid space

A

subdural hemorrhage (SDH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

(acute/chronic) SDH is the most lethal of ALL head injuries.

A

acute SDH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

You can possibly see chronic SDH in the elderly due to _____.

A

brain atrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

definition: a collection of blood in the subarachnoid space (b/w arachnoid and pia mater)

A

subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

SAH can potentially cause ______.

A

arterial vasospasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is the cognitive progression scale?
1. coma 2. vegetative state 3. minimally conscious state 4. low level/traditional 5. high level
26
definition: “Represents a state of unarousable responsiveness in which the eyes remain continuously closed and there is no understandable response to environmental or intrinsic stimulation”
coma
27
definition: “A state with no sign of conscious awareness of self or environment but with preserved autonomic or ‘vegetative’ functions, typically including eye opening and sleep/wake cycles”
vegetative state
28
definition: “A condition of severely altered consciousness in which minimal, but definite behavioral evidence of self or environmental awareness is demonstrated”
minimally conscious state (MCS)
29
What are medical complications of TBI?
- hypermetabolism (catabolism - Elevated rested energy expenditure - electrolyte imbalance (hyponatremia) - SIADH - hypotension/ HTN - tachycardia - increased CO - ANS dysfunction (PSH) - DVT - arrythmias - ARDS - apnea - decreased O2 saturation
30
Hyponatremia is a deficit in ____ levels.
sodium
31
hydrocephalus is often due to what type of hemorrhage?
subarachnoid
32
What is the treatment for hydrocephalus?
ventriculoperitoneal shunt
33
A person with TBI is more susceptible to (early/late) seizures related to increased ICP
early
34
What are the risk factors for HO?
- multiple limb Fx - immobility - prolonged unconsciousness - increased muscle tone - high velocity accidents
35
What are clinical signs of HO?
- warmth - redness - decreased ROM - pain - swelling/edema
36
What are the functions of the frontal lobe?
Executive functions emotions attention motor component of speech (Broca's area) Primary motor cortex
37
definition: bruising around the ear
battle's sign
38
What are the functions of the temporal lobe?
primary auditory cortex comprehension and expression of language memory learning vestibular issues (Raccoon eyes and battle's sign)
39
What does temporal lobe dysfunction cause?
petit mal seizures poor short-term memory explicit memory deficit storage and retrieval loss loss of auditory processing wernicke's aphasia
40
Receptive/fluent aphasia
wernicke's aphasia
41
Expressive/non-fluent aphasia
broca's aphasia
42
What are the functions of the parietal lobe?
primary sensory area orientation of time and space object recognition processing of somatic and visual information ability to process written information
43
What does parietal lobe dysfunction cause?
Visual-spacial deficits (inattention) Difficulty recognizing objects (agnosia) touch, proprioception, and pressure sensory loss loss of ability to read and write loss of right/left discrimination
44
definition: difficulty recognizing objects
agnosia
45
definition: loss of ability to read
alexia
46
What are the occipital lobe functions?
vision
47
What does occipital lobe dysfunction cause?
visual agnosia field cuts nystagmus cortical blindness
48
What are the functions of the cerebellum?
Coordination postural control balance Vestibulo-ocular function unconscious proprioception
49
What does cerebellar dysfunction cause?
hypotonia incoordination/ataxia decomposition of movements intention tremor dysmetria Wide BOS scissoring gait Vestibulo-ocular deficits balance disorders proprioceptive/kinesthetic loss
50
What is one of the cardinal signs of cerebellar damage?
ataxia
51
Hypotonicity occurs on the (ipsilateral/contralateral/both) side(s) of the cerebellar lesion if it is NOT central
ipsilateral side
52
Hypotonicity occurs on the (ipsilateral/contralateral/both) side(s) of the cerebellar lesion if it is central
both sides
53
What are the functions of the brainstem?
CVP control reflexes postural tone autonomic function swallow/gag reflex
54
What does brainstem dysfunction cause?
apnea arrythmias rigidity diplopia dysarthria dysphagia CN disorder Disorder of conscious state locked-in syndrome
55
What is the first thing to do when experiencing a person with a TBI in emergent situations?
ABC's (airway, breathing, circulation)
56
What should the ICP be in an adult lying in supine?
0-10 mmHg
57
What should the CPP be in an adult?
80-100 mmHg
58
What MAP range is needed to maintain cerebral blood flow?
50-100 mmHg
59
What are s/s of elevated or increasing ICP?
Change in arousal Disorientation, confusion, combativeness Change in cranial nerve exam Pupil changes Altered RR Altered HR, rhythm Altered BP Increased posturing, tone Decreased motor response Increased temperature HA/N/V
60
How should you as a PT help prevent secondary complications of TBI?
- maintain ROM - optimize positioning - integumentary care
61
What signs show positive prognosis for a person when emerging from unresponsiveness?
- young age - reactive pupils and conjugate eye movements - decorticate posturing - early spontaneous eye opening - absence of ventilator and/or hydrocephalus - shorter time period between injury and rehab - higher DRS score - early rapid functional improvement
62
definition: Traumatically induced physiological disruption of brain function with at least one of the following: - Any period of loss of consciousness - Any loss of memory for events immediately before or after the trauma - Any alteration in mental status at the time of the trauma - Focal neurological deficits that may or may not be transient
mild TBI
63
definition: When the severity of the injury exceeds the following: LOC > 30 min After 30 min, initial GCS of < 12 Post-traumatic amnesia > 24 hours Cognitive/behavioral problems = major long-term source of disability
moderate/severe TBI
64
(true/false) Those with a moderate /severe TBI usually do not physically recover.
FALSE (they usually physically recover well)
65
What is another name for a mild TBI?
concussion
66
Pharmacology: MOA: not entirely known. - Facilitates dopamine release. - Glutamate antagonist. Used to reduce agitation in severe TBI Also used as a psychostimulant for those in the VS/MCS Side effects: Orthostasis, peripheral edema, livedo reticularis, lowers seizure threshold, hallucinations
amantadine (symmetrel)
67
Pharmacology: MOA: enhances dopaminergic transmission Uses: - Attention - Mood - Alertness - Arousal - information processing Side effects: tachycardia, insomnia, decreased appetite, GI upset, headaches, dizziness, motor tics, irritability, anxiousness, tearfulness
Methylphenidate (Ritalin)
68
pharmacology: MOA: dopamine agonist Uses: - Parkinson’s disease for autonomic regulation, motor control, and arousal Side effects: orthostatic hypotension, nausea/vomiting, vertigo, edema, headaches, dyskinesias, dystonia, sleep disturbance, hypersexuality
bromocriptine (Parlodel)