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MOD (year 3) > SA dermatology > Flashcards

SA dermatology Flashcards

1
Q

what is the most common feline infection?

A

cat bite abscesses

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2
Q

what are some common pitfalls in dermatology?

A

disregarding history
failure to appreciate clinical signs
errors when taking diagnostic samples, allergy testing, interpreting results and therapy

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3
Q

what is the most important things to ask the owner for during history taking?

A

their chief complaint

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4
Q

why is it important to ask the owner for their chief complaint?

A

narrows the differential list (such as is it pruritic or not)
builds vet-client bond
gives the reason they are presenting

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5
Q

what signalment should be collected?

A

age, breed, sex
coat colour
weight (change)
affected relatives

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6
Q

with regards to when the disease started, what information is it important to collect?

A

age at which it started

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7
Q

what a classical conditions seen in very young dogs (<1 year)?

A

parasites
congenital
food-induced atopic dermatitis

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8
Q

what a classical conditions seen in adult dogs?

A

immune mediated
endocrine
food-induced atopic dermatitis

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9
Q

what a classical conditions seen in elderly dogs?

A

neoplastic
metabolic
food-induced atopic dermatitis

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10
Q

what breed of dog is predisposed to getting atopic dermatitis?

A

West Highland White terriers

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11
Q

what should be obtained in a general history?

A 
behaviour
appetite/thirst
vomiting/diarrhoea
stools
sneezing
seasonal history
drug history
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12
Q

what three things need to be determined in a dermatological history?

A

onset
duration
progression

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13
Q

with regards to onset, what can the causes of dermatological issues be split into?

A

chronic and acute

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14
Q

what are some chronic causes of skin problems?

A

allergy
metabolic
endocrine
neoplastic

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15
Q

what are some acute causes of skin problems?

A

parasites
infectious
immune-mediated
hypersensitivity

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16
Q

what are the three ways duration of a dermatology issue can be split?

A

waxing/waning
progressive
intermittent

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17
Q

what are some causes of skin disease that waxes/wanes?

A

allergic

immune-mediated

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18
Q

what are some causes of skin disease that are progressive?

A

metabolic
endocrine
neoplastic

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19
Q

what are some causes of skin disease that are intermittent?

A

parasites

infections

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20
Q

what is the saying to determine whether pruritus is a primary sign?

A

is it a rash that itches or an itch that rashes

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21
Q

what scale is used as a subjective measure of pruritus?

A

visual analogie scale

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22
Q

what is it important to find out about previous/current treatments?

A

what’s the animals response to it was
adverse effects
compliance - animal/owner
dose and duration

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23
Q

what is it important to find out about flea prevention?

A

products used
frequency of use
last application
other in contact animals

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24
Q

what should be asked about when taking a diet history?

A

proteins/carbs in the usual diet
treats and table scraps
edible toys
flavoured vitamins/medications

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25
Q

why is important to find out the products used for flea treatment?

A

they are often effective against other parasites so can to reduce the differential diagnosis list

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26
Q

on a dermatological examination what need to be assessed in detail?

A 
mucocutaneous junctions and MM
hair coat
skin
claws, pads, nail beds
ear pinnae and canals
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27
Q

how many layers does the epidermis have?

A

four

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28
Q

what is found in the dermis of skin?

A

blood vessels/nerves
hair follicles
sebaceous glands
sweat glands

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29
Q

what are some examples of primary lesions?

A 
papules
pustules
pigmented macules
papular-macular rash
alopecia
erythematous plaques
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30
Q

what is a plaque?

A

lots of pustules joined together

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31
Q

what are some examples of secondary lesions?

A 
lichenification
thin skin
crusts and erosion
excoriation
epidermal collarettes
scale
ulcer
comedones
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32
Q

what do epidermal collarettes happen secondary to?

A

pustules

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33
Q

what is the difference between erosion and ulcers?

A

erosion - loss of epidermis above the basement membrane

ulcers - loss of epidermis through the basement membrane (bleeding)

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34
Q

describe how a papule evolves

A

papule to pustule to crust to epidermal collarette to pigmented macules

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35
Q

what does bilateral symmetrical distribution of lesions suggest?

A

an inside-out disease

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36
Q

what does an irregular distributions of lesions suggest?

A

an outside-in disease

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37
Q

what should be assessed on coat examination?

A 
change in colour
change in texture
ease of epilation
broken hairs
follicular casts
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38
Q

what 4 points must be described for each lesion?

A

configuration
morphology
distribution
evolution

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39
Q

what are the three key facts that should be known at the end of the dermatology consult?

A

age of onset
presence/absence of primary pruritus
distribution/types of lesions

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40
Q

what are the major presenting signs of dermatological problems?

A 
pruritus
alopecia
crusting
scale
nodules
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41
Q

what is the unique ways of presenting skin disease in cats?

A

feline cutaneous reaction patterns

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42
Q

what are the four feline cutaneous reaction patterns?

A

military dermatitis
eosinophilic granuloma complex
head and neck pruritus
symmetrical alopecia

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43
Q

what are the types of eosinophilic granuloma complexes?

A

eosinophilic granuloma
indolent ulcer
eosinophilic plaques

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44
Q

what are some parasites that will cause pruritus in cats?

A 
Cheyletiella 
Felicola subrostratus
Notoedres cati
Sarcoptes scabei
fleas
Neotrombicula 
Demodex gatoi
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45
Q

what are two infections that can cause pruritus in cats?

A

superficial bacterial pyoderma

Malassezia dermatitis

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46
Q

what must be considered when attempting to diagnose ectoparasites?

A

where they are found in the skin

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47
Q

how can ectoparasites found on the skin surface be sampled?

A

brushing, wet paper test, sellotape impression

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48
Q

how can ectoparasites found in the shallow surface in the epidermis be sampled?

A

superficial skin scrapes

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49
Q

how can ectoparasites found in deeper skin be sampled?

A

deep skin scrapes
hair plucks
biopsy

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50
Q

is Demodex gatoi contagious?

A

yes

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51
Q

what are the clinical signs of Demodex gatoi?

A

pruritus

head, neck and truncal alopecia

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52
Q

how can Demodex gatoi be diagnosed?

A

tape cytology

skin scrapes have very poor sensitivity for this

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53
Q

how can Demodex gatoi be treated?

A

selamectin
fluralaner
lime sulphur dip
(treat all in contact cats)

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54
Q

where does Notoedres cati initially infect?

A

head and ears but can spread to rest of the body as it becomes more chronic

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55
Q

how can Notoedres cati be differentiated from sarcoptic mange?

A

Notoedres is smaller and has a dorsal anus

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56
Q

what parasite can cause alopecia?

A

Demodex cati

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57
Q

what infections can cause alopecia?

A

superficial bacterial pyoderma

dermatophytosis

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58
Q

what endocrine disorder can cause alopecia?

A

spontaneous/iatrogenic hyperadrenocorticism

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59
Q

where on the body is Demodex cati found?

A

eyelids, periocular, head, neck

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60
Q

Demodex cati is a commensal, what are some issues that could cause it to become a problem?

A

immunosuppression
FIV/FeLV
diabetes
squamous cell carcinoma

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61
Q

what are the clinical signs of Demodex cati?

A

comedones, alopecia, erythema, crusts, scale, variable pruritus, secondary infection

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62
Q

what can be used to treat Demodex cati?

A

isoxazolines

lime sulfur dips

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63
Q

how is Demodex cati diagnosed?

A

deep skin scrape - sedation/analgesia required

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64
Q

what should be seen after a deep skin scrape?

A

blood/haemorrhage confirms the scrape is deep enough

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65
Q

what is paraneoplastic alopecia of cats associated with?

A

pancreatic or bile duct tumours

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66
Q

where is alopecia seen in paraneoplastic alopecia cats?

A

ventral body, neck, chin, body, inner legs, feet, nasal plant, footpads

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67
Q

how is the skin of paraneoplastic alopecia cats described?

A

thin and shiny

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68
Q

describe the process of skin biopsy

A

place punch firmly on the skin and twist 180 degrees and push

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69
Q

what parasites will cause scaling and greasy cats?

A

Cheyletiella
Felicola subrostratus
Notoedres cati
Sarcoptes scabei

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70
Q

other than parasites what conditions can cause scaling/greasy disease in cats?

A

neoplasia
keratinisation disorders
infections

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71
Q

what is the main neoplasia causing greasy/scaly cats?

A

thymoma

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72
Q

what are the clinical signs f thymoma induced exfoliative dermatitis?

A

diffuse, non-pruritic erythema and exfoliation
possible alopecia
respiratory compromise - problems

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73
Q

how can thymoma induced exfoliative dermatitis be diagnosed?

A

biopsy (skin)

chest radiograph

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74
Q

what can be used to treat thymoma induced exfoliative dermatitis?

A 
immunomodulatory drugs (prednisolone)
surgery
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75
Q

what cat breed is predisposed to idiopathic facial dermatitis?

A

Persian

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76
Q

what are the clinical signs of idiopathic facial dermatitis?

A

tightly adherence greasy black scales

pruritus

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77
Q

what can be used to treat idiopathic facial dermatitis?

A

reduce inflammation - cyclosporin
remove grease - keratolytic shampoos
anti-yeast therapy

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78
Q

feline acne is a common keratinisation disorder, what are the clinical signs?

A

can be asymptomatic

dark, waxy scales and comedones

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79
Q

what can be used to treat feline acne?

A

topical antiseptics
anti-keratinolytics
good hygiene/washing

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80
Q

what breeds of cat are predisposed to Malassezia dermatitis?

A

Devon rex
Sphinx
Persian

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81
Q

what are the possible clinical signs of Malassezia dermatitis?

A

seborrhoeic dermatitis
otitis
keratinisation disorder

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82
Q

what viral infections of cats can cause crusts?

A

pox virus
herpesvirus
calicivirus

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83
Q

what cats is cow pox mainly seen in?

A

rural male cats that hunt

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84
Q

what happens in most cases of cow pox in cats?

A

spontaneous resolution if around 4 weeks

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85
Q

when may spontaneous resolution of cow pox in cats not occur?

A

in immunocompromised cats

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86
Q

what should not be used to treat cow pox in cats?

A

corticosteroids - fatal

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87
Q

what can be used to treat cow pox?

A

supportive therapy - fluids, appetite stimulation, tube feeding
(can’t kill the virus)
manage secondary infection and respiratory disease

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88
Q

where is feline herpes virus lesions normally seen?

A

eyes and nose (butterfly pattern)

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89
Q

what can trigger feline herpes virus?

A

stress and glucocorticoids

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90
Q

what areas of the skin is mosquito bite hypersensitivity usually found?

A

nose, ears and feet (where skin is thin and hair is sparse)

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91
Q

what are some clinical signs of mosquito-bite hypersensitivity?

A

papules - develop into crusts
alopecia, depigmentation and ulcers
peripheral lymphadenomegaly

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92
Q

what type of disease is feline pemphigus foliaceus?

A

auto-immune

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93
Q

where on the body is feline pemphigus foliaceus usually seen?

A

head, ears, nipples and feet

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94
Q

what are the clinical signs of plasma cell pododermatitis?

A

soft swollen pads with scaling
ulceration
can have gingival stomatitis or nasal lesions

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95
Q

what is used to diagnose commensal skin infections?

A

cytology

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96
Q

why can culture be used to diagnose commensal organisms?

A

they are present on skin whether there is disease or not

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97
Q

what is the most common commensal bacteria that causes skin disease?

A

Staphylococcus pseudintermedius

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98
Q

what is the most common commensal fungi that causes skin disease?

A

Malassezia pachydermatis

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99
Q

how are pathogenic skin infections diagnosed?

A

culture

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100
Q

what is the name for a bacterial skin infection?

A

bacterial pyoderma

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101
Q

what are some common causes of secondary bacterial pyoderma?

A 
allergy
ectoparasites
self trauma
immune deficiency (endocrinopathy)
keratinisation defects
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102
Q

what are some bacteria that can cause bacterial pyoderma other than S. pseudintermedius?

A

S. aureus
S. schleiferei
S. canis

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103
Q

what are the three depths that bacterial pyoderma can be classified to?

A

surface
superficial
deep

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104
Q

what layer is surface bacterial pyoderma found on?

A

superficial epidermis

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105
Q

where in the skin is superficial bacterial pyoderma found?

A

epidermis and hair follicles

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106
Q

where in the skin is deep bacterial pyoderma found?

A

epidermis, hair follicles, dermis, subcutaneous fat

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107
Q

what causes surface bacterial pyoderma?

A

overgrowth of bacteria (not infection!!)

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108
Q

what are the three clinical presentations of surface overgrowth?

A

hotspots
skin fold pyoderma
bacterial overgrowth

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109
Q

what breeds of dog are predisposed to hotspots?

A

densely coated breeds - Rottweilers, golden retrievers…

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110
Q

where are hotspot lesions usually seen?

A

cheek, neck and rump

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111
Q

how are hotspot lesions described?

A

well demarcated flat eroded moist lesions with erythematous halo

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112
Q

why do hotspot lesions develop so quickly?

A

due to self trauma because of pruritus and pain

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113
Q

what can be done to treat hotspots?

A

clip, clean, topical antiseptic/antimicrobials

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114
Q

what is another name for hotspots?

A

pyotraumatic dermatitis

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115
Q

what is the name for skin fold dermatitis?

A

intertrigo

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116
Q

what causes intertrigo?

A

compromised barrier due to friction, altered micro-climate, loss of normal ventilation and accumulation of fluids

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117
Q

what is done to treat skin fold dermatitis?

A

topical antiseptics and antimicrobials
clean areas
treat underlying cause

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118
Q

where on the body us bacterial overgrowth usually seen?

A

ventral trunk and interdigital spaces

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119
Q

what type of discharge does Malassezia overgrowth produce?

A

brown and greasy

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120
Q

what types of lesions are acetate tape strips used for?

A

dry, erythematous, scales and alopecic skin

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121
Q

where is superficial dermatitis usually found?

A

hair follicles

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122
Q

what are the primary lesions of a superficial folliculitis?

A

follicular papule and pustules

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123
Q

what is the most common bacteria causing superficial folliculitis?

A

S. pseudintermedius

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124
Q

what are the clinical signs of superficial pyoderma?

A 
erythema
follicular papules/pustules
crusts
epidermal collarettes
erosion
hyper pigmented macules
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125
Q

what clinical sign is seen in short coated puppies with superficial pyoderma?

A

moth eaten appearance

annular macule of alopecia

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126
Q

what is the name given when follicles rupture due to deep pyoderma?

A

folliculitis and furunculosis

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127
Q

what are the clinical signs of deep pyoderma?

A

heat, swelling, erythema, furuncles, nodules, bull, plaques, sinus tracts, ulcer, exudation, crusts
more systemic signs - fever, pain, lymphadenopathy

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128
Q

with regards to deep pyoderma, what type of exudate is usually seen?

A

haemorrhagic to Haemonchus-purulent

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129
Q

what are the methods of sampling that can be used for cytology?

A

direct impression smear
cotton swab smear
adhesive tape strip
fine needle aspirate

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130
Q

what are the two key findings on cytology of pyoderma?

A

degenerative neutrophils and intracellular bacteria

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131
Q

what are the key morphological features of degenerative neutrophils?

A

lose cytoplasmic outline
light pink staining
nucleus streaming

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132
Q

when should culture and susceptibility be performed?

A 
recurrent/chronic infections
poor response to therapy
rod shaped or unusual organisms on cytology
degenerative neutrophils but absence of bacteria on cytology
deep infections
non-healing wounds
post-op or nosocomial infections
life threatening infections
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133
Q

what is the culturing technique for superficial infections?

A

rupture/sample intact lesion if present

sample erosion under a crust or collarette

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134
Q

what is the gold standard for culturing technique for deep infections?

A

use a fresh tissue biopsy

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135
Q

other than a fresh tissue biopsy what can be used to culture deep infections?

A

rupture of intact lesions and swab

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136
Q

what should be used to treat all bacterial pyodermas? and why?

A

topical therapy - less antimicrobials needed

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137
Q

what should be used as the first line of treatment for Malassezia dermatitis?

A

chlorhexidine shampoos

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138
Q

what is pruritus?

A

the unpleasant sensation that elects the desire or reflex to scratch, rub, lick, chew or roll

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139
Q

how does pruritus manifest in cats?

A

reaction patterns

behavioural changes

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140
Q

what are the 4 reaction patterns of cats?

A

alopecia
head and neck pruritus
military eczema
eosinophilic granuloma complex

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141
Q

in cases where owners don’t realise/deny their dog is itchy, what can be looked at to confirm if they are or not?

A

feel for broken hairs

look for saliva stained paws (brown discolouration)

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142
Q

what tests can be done to identify pruritus?

A

trichography

cytology

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143
Q

what is trichography?

A

examination of hair plucks

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144
Q

what is examined during trichography?

A

stage of growth
structure of melanosomes
pathological changes
attached/associated organisms and parasites

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145
Q

what structures can pathological changes be looked for during trichography?

A

bulb
shaft
tip
external surface

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146
Q

what can be seen associated with the hair during trichography?

A

Demodex mites

dermatophytosis

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147
Q

how can cytology be used to confirm the presence of pruritus?

A

during licking/chewing oropharyngeal bacteria will be deposited on the skin, these can then be identified

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148
Q

what oropharyngeal bacteria is looked for to confirm the presence of saliva on the skin?

A

Conchiformibius

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149
Q

when using assessment charts for pruritus, what must be told to the owner before they give their grade of pruritus?

A

what grade the pruritus was previously - can tell whether it has improved or not

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150
Q

what are some superficial skin infections that cause pruritus?

A

superficial bacterial pyoderma

Malassezia dermatitis

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151
Q

name some ectoparasites that can cause pruritus

A 
Sarcoptes scabei
Notedres cati
Demodex gatoi
flea
Cheyletiella
Neotrombicula autumnalis 
lice 
Otodectes cyanotis
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152
Q

what allergies can cause pruritus?

A

flea allergy
cutaneous adverse food reaction
atopic dermatitis
feline atopic skin syndrome

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153
Q

name two immune mediated/auto-immune diseases that can cause pruritus

A

Pemphigus foliaceus

sebaceous adenitis

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154
Q

what are some viral disease that may cause pruritus?

A

cow pox
feline herpes virus
FeLV/FIV

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155
Q

how does superficial pyoderma present?

A

spots, crusts and patchy hairloss

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156
Q

what areas is superficial pyoderma most common in?

A

folded (intertrignous) areas

naturally alopecic skin

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157
Q

what are the clinical signs of Malassezia dermatitis?

A

erythema
pruritus
malodor
dark coloured exudate

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158
Q

what breeds are predisposed to Malassezia dermatitis?

A

bassets

rex cats

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159
Q

what is the scientific name for fleas?

A

Ctenocephalides felis

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160
Q

what must happen for a flea to lay eggs?

A

they must have a blood meal

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161
Q

what is a crucial step in the control of fleas?

A

stopping them before they have their blood meal

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162
Q

how do fleas cause pruritus?

A

annoyance

flea allergic dermatitis (type I and Iv hypersensitivity)

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163
Q

what are the primary clinical signs of fleas?

A

pruritus
papules
erythema

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164
Q

what cutaneous reaction patterns are seen in cats with fleas?

A

all four cutaneous reaction patterns

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165
Q

what are the secondary clinical signs of fleas?

A

excoriation
alopecia
crusts
pyoderma signs

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166
Q

what areas of a dogs body are fleas seen on?

A

caudodorsal and ventral abdomen

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167
Q

what are the ways in which fleas can be diagnosed?

A

direct observation
wet paper test
coat brushing/sellotapes

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168
Q

how can fleas be treated/controlled?

A

adulticides to all animals
environmental control - cleaning, environmental sprays…
anti-pruritic therapy if required

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169
Q

what causes sarcoptic mange?

A

Sarcoptes scabei

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170
Q

what animals is sarcoptic mange most commonly seen in?

A

immunosuppressed dogs and cats

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171
Q

how long is the lifecycle of Sarcoptes scabei?

A

3 weeks

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172
Q

how does sarcoptic mange first present?

A

as a pruritic disease that then progresses to crust formation

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173
Q

what type of reaction do sarcoptic mites cause?

A

a type I hypersensitivity

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174
Q

how long after initial infestation does pruritus begin in sarcoptic mange?

A

3-4 weeks

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175
Q

where are female Sarcoptes scabei found?

A

tunnels in the stratum corneum

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176
Q

where on the body is carcoptic mange usually seen?

A

ears, ventral neck, elbows and hock

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177
Q

what are the primary clinical signs of sarcoptic mange?

A

severe pruritus
papules
erythema

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178
Q

what are the secondary clinical signs of sarcoptic mange?

A

excoriation
alopecia
crusts
pyoderma signs

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179
Q

what can be used to diagnose sarcoptic mange?

A

skin scrapes
test treatment - most common
serology (variable sensitivity)

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180
Q

what type of skin scrub is done for sarcoptic mange?

A

superficial scrape on papules or crusted area

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181
Q

what are common topical/oral therapies for treating sarcoptic mange?

A

moxidectin, selemectin, isoxazolines

anti-pruritic initially

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182
Q

what breeds are predisposed to Demodex injai?

A

terriers

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183
Q

what are the clinical signs of Demodex injai?

A

greasiness, truncal pruritus, alopecia

secondary bacterial infection

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184
Q

where does Demodex injai live?

A

deep in follicles and sebaceous glands

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185
Q

how is Demodex injai diagnosed?

A

deep skin scrapings and biopsy

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186
Q

what are Neotrombicula autumnalis also known as?

A

harvest mites

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187
Q

what do harvest mites look like on the skin?

A

orange dots

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188
Q

what season is Neotrombicula autumnalis seen?

A

June to September

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189
Q

how can harvest mites be treated?

A

avoidance is best!!

fipronil spray on legs

190
Q

how many legs does the larvae of harvest mites have?

A

6

191
Q

what are ear mites called?

A

Otodectes cyanotis

192
Q

how can Otodectes cyanosis be diagnosed?

A

direct observation of photophobic mites

ear wax examination

193
Q

what drug must not be put in the ear to treat Otodectes cyanotis?

A

fipronil

194
Q

what are the clinical signs of Cheyletiella?

A

scaling affecting the trunk and sometimes the head
Miliary dermatitis in cats
variable pruritus

195
Q

how can Cheyletiella be diagnosed?

A

coat brushing

skin scrapes of scaly areas

196
Q

is Cheyletiella zoonotic?

A

yes

197
Q

what are the three types of lice found in dogs?

A

Felicola subrostratus
Trichodectes canis
Linognathus setosus

198
Q

what are the clinical signs of lice?

A

alopecia
scale and excoriation
anaemia in severely effected puppies

199
Q

what are some examples of hypersensitivity reactions?

A

atopic dermatitis - food and environmental
inspect bite
contact

200
Q

what are the characteristic features of Pemphigus foliaceus?

A

sterile pustules/crusts affecting the face, nose and feet

201
Q

why can obtaining clinical history of dermatological disease in cats be challenging?

A

they have a solitary nature and are secretive so clinical signs may go unnoticed

202
Q

what 4 broad things can trigger feline allergy?

A

food allergens
flea allergens
intrinsic allergens (self-proteins)
extrinsic allergens

203
Q

what factors can contribute to feline allergy?

A 
skin barrier dysfunction
immune dysregulation
allergen sensitisation
environmental factors
stress 
microbes
204
Q

how can food allergens manifest in cats?

A

allergic skin disease (with/without GI disease)

205
Q

how can flea allergens manifest in cats?

A

allergic skin disease

206
Q

what can intrinsic and extrinsic allergens manifest as in cats?

A

asthma or allergic skin disease

207
Q

define feline atopic syndrome (FAS)

A

allergic disease associated with environmental allegens, food allergy and asthma that may be associated with IgE antibodies

208
Q

define feline atopic skin syndrome (FASS)

A

inflammatory and pruritic dermatitis involving a spectrum of non-specific cutaneous reaction patterns that may be associated with IgE to environmental allergens

209
Q

what can mimic or contribute to feline atopic skin syndrome?

A

food or flea allergies

210
Q

define feline food allergy (FFA)

A

any disease (including FASS) attributable to immunological reactivity to ingested food

211
Q

what does the inflammatory response of FAS involve?

A

eosinophils and lymphocytes

212
Q

what does extrinsic disease of FAS involve?

A

IgE and is demonstrable

213
Q

what is the typical history of a cat with FASS?

A

young age of onset (6 months to 3 years)
presence of pruritus
absence of contagion
response to corticosteroids

214
Q

what is a major characteristic of FASS lesions?

A

they are pruritic

215
Q

what are the primary lesions of FASS?

A

erythematous papules and patches

216
Q

what are the secondary lesions of FASS?

A

excoriations
lichenification
hyperpigmentation

217
Q

where on the body are lesions of FASS usually distributed?

A

feet, eyes, ears, chin, tail base

218
Q

what other diseases/problems must be eliminated before diagnosing a cat with FASS?

A

fleas, parasites, infections and food allergy

219
Q

how can pruritus be confirmed in cats?

A 
linear excoriations
short/spikey hairs
fur balls and hair in faeces
hair in gingival sulci/tongue
clumps of hair in cats environment
trichogram
220
Q

what are the 4 cutaneous reaction patterns?

A

self induced alopecia
head/neck pruritus
military dermatitis
eosinophilic granuloma complex

221
Q

what are the 3 eosinophilic granuloma complexes?

A

eosinophilic plaque
eosinophilic granuloma
indolent ulcer

222
Q

what does the skin of self-induced alopecia in cats look like?

A

non-inflamed and normal with hair removed

223
Q

where will self-induced alopecia be seen?

A

areas that cat can scratch - ventral abdomen, lateral throat, caudal thight

224
Q

non-pruritic self-induced alopecia is uncommon, what could cause this?

A

pain and anxiety

225
Q

what are the parasitic differentials for self-induced alopecia?

A 
Cheyletiellosis
Trombiculosis
Otoacariasis
Pediculosis
Demodex gatoi
226
Q

what are the parasitic differentials for head and neck pruritus?

A

otoacariasis
trombiculosis
notoedric and sarcoptic mange

227
Q

what are the microbial infections that could lead to head and neck pruritus?

A

bacterial infection
Malassezia dermatitis
dermatophytosis

228
Q

what neurological disease can cause head and neck pruritus?

A

oro-facial pain syndrome

229
Q

how does miliary dermatitis present?

A

multiple crusted papules on the dorsum of a cat (also seen on caudomedial thighs and ventral abdomen)

230
Q

what are the parasitic differentials for miliary dermatitis?

A 
cheyletellosis
pediculosis
otoacariasis
neotrombiculosis
endoparasites
231
Q

what are two differentials for miliary dermatitis that aren’t microbial infections or parasites?

A

drug reactions

fatty acid/dietary deficiency

232
Q

where are eosinophilic plaques usually seen?

A

abdominal/inguinal skin, interdigital skin, neck, thighs

233
Q

what is the clinical presentation of eosinophilic plaques?

A

highly pruritic

raised, alopecic, erythematous eroded to ulcerated plaques

234
Q

how do eosinophilic granulomas present?

A

variably pruritic
alopecic raised plaques/nodules
intact skin to eroded/ulcerated - central white accumulations

235
Q

are indolent ulcers pruritic or painful?

A

neither pruritic or painful

236
Q

describe the appearance of indolent ulcers

A

well circumscribed, red/brown ulcer with raised border

237
Q

where are indolent ulcers always seen?

A

upper lip

238
Q

what are some possible infectious differentials for eosinophilic granuloma complexes?

A 
deep bacterial infection
deep mycosis
dermatophytic granuloma
cowpox
cutaneous herpes
239
Q

what are some non-infectious differentials for eosinophilic granuloma complexes?

A

neoplasia
foreign bodies
genetics
sterile granulomatous disease

240
Q

what is the name of the criteria used to diagnose FASS?

A

Favrots criteria

241
Q

what are some common diagnostic tests used to rule out differentials for FASS?

A 
impressions smear cytology
flea combing
scale examination
skin scrapings 
trichography
trial treatment
biopsy
242
Q

how long are flea treatment trials run for?

A

6-8 weeks

243
Q

what other differentials can be ruled out with careful selections of flea treatment trials?

A

Demodex

other parasites

244
Q

what are the criteria for flea treatment trials?

A

adulticide with rapid kill speed
insect growth regulator with residual action
safe and easy to administer
treat all at home contacts

245
Q

how long should an elimination diet for suspect food induced FAS be run?

A

8-12 weeks

246
Q

what are the two options for elimination diets?

A

novel home cooked diet

commercial novel hydrolysed or single protein diet

247
Q

what are the recommended treatments for FAS?

A

systemic glucocorticoids

ciclosporin

248
Q

what are the 4 treatment groups for multimodal management of FASS?

A

skin barrier care
anti-inflammatory and immunomodulators
allergen avoidance
control flare factors

249
Q

what can be used for skin barrier care in the multimodal management of FASS?

A

essential fatty acids
topical lipid complexes
moisturising shampoos

250
Q

what is allergen specific immunotherapy used for?

A

reduce flares associated with exposure to environmental allergens

251
Q

when should symptomatic treatment of FASS be started?

A

at the beginning of the diagnostic trial

252
Q

what are some anti-inflammatories/immunomodulators that can be used in FASS cases?

A

prednisolone
methylprednisolone
dexamethasone
(these are glucocorticoids)

253
Q

what are some patient factors that treatment needs to be tailored for?

A

severity of disease
general health status
home environment
predisposition to microbial infections

254
Q

what is a particular side effect in cats of long term glucocorticoid administration?

A

diabetes mellitus

255
Q

what are the most common adverse effects of cyclosporin administration?

A

GI signs

weight loss

256
Q

when are antihistamines usually used for FASS?

A

early/mid disease due to the limited benefits of them in cats

257
Q

what is alopecia?

A

the loss of or absence of hair

258
Q

what are the two types of alopecia?

A

spontaneous

self-induced

259
Q

how can the absence of pruritus in alopecic patients be confirmed?

A

feel of coat (rough/smooth)
saliva stains
cytology for Conchiformibius
trichograms

260
Q

what are some symmetrical alopecias?

A 
follicular dysplasia
canine recurrent flank alopecia
colour dilution alopecia
hyperadrenocorticism
hypothyroidism
pattern alopecia
sebaceous alopecia
261
Q

what needs to be found out about the character of the alopecia?

A

whether it is partial or complete

if it is in regular or irregular patches

262
Q

what is the most common cause of bacterial folliculitis?

A

Staphylococcus pseudintermedius

263
Q

how is the alopecia associated with bacterial folliculitis distributed?

A

focal to multifocal patches

264
Q

what clinical signs if bacterial folliculitis associated with?

A 
pruritus
alopecia
scale (epidermal collarettes)
crusts
deep infection (nodule swelling)
265
Q

what can be done to diagnose bacterial folliculitis?

A

impression smear cytology

266
Q

what is the most common cause of ringworm in cats/dogs?

A

Microsporum canis

267
Q

what is ringworm also known as?

A

dermatophytosis

268
Q

what animals is ringworm most commonly seen in?

A

young or immunocompromised animals

269
Q

what breed of acts are predisposed to ringworm?

A

Persian

270
Q

what are possible formats for dermatophytosis?

A

bedding
grooming equipment
collars/leads
any surface

271
Q

what are the clinical signs of ringworm?

A

multifocal circular patches that often have hyperpigmentation
follicular casts

272
Q

where on the body is dermatophytosis often found?

A

head, ears and chin

273
Q

how can dermatophytosis be diagnosed?

A 
Mackenzie (toothbrush) sample
woods lamp exam
trichography
in house DTM
external lab fungal culture
274
Q

how is a woods lamp examination carried out?

A

warm lamp for 5-10 minutes and expose hair for 3-5 minutes

apple green fluorescence of hair if dermatophytosis is present

275
Q

what is looked for on a trichograph to confirm dermatophytosis?

A

arthrospores (soap bubbles) surrounding hair shaft and hyphae within the hair

276
Q

what is a Mackenzie (toothbrush) sample?

A

use a cheap toothbrush with nylon bristles
brush effected areas of the animal
submit the toothbrush to the lab or inoculate onto fungal culture medium

277
Q

what can be done to treat dermatophytosis?

A

topical treatment - chlorhexidine/miconazole shampoo, lime sulphur dip, enilconazole (dogs)

278
Q

why does dermatophytosis need to be treated?

A

to decrease contamination and environmental spread (disease revolves spontaneously within 12-20 weeks)

279
Q

why is clipping for treatment of dermatophytosis controversial?

A

it can cause microtrauma which can the further increase infection

280
Q

how often does chlorhexidine/miconazole shampoo for dermatophytosis need to be used?

A

2-3 times a week

281
Q

how often does lime sulphur dip for dermatophytosis need to be used?

A

once a week

282
Q

how often does enilconazole for dermatophytosis need to be used?

A

every 4 days

283
Q

how long is Mycosporum canis viable for in the environment?

A

up to 18 months

284
Q

what can be done to decrease the environmental contamination of ringworm?

A

isolate the animal to 1 room (with non-porous surfaces)
destroy/disinfect bedding
protective clothing
daily vacuuming/disinfectant (sodium hypochlorite - bleach)

285
Q

what two drugs are used systemically to treat dermatophytosis?

A

itraconazole

ketoconazole

286
Q

how is the treatment success of dermatophytosis monitored?

A

fungal culture every 2 weeks using the Mackenzie test

287
Q

what is pseudomycetoma also known as?

A

nodular dermatophytosis

288
Q

what breed of cats are predisposed to pseudomycetoma?

A

Persian

289
Q

what is pseudomycetoma?

A

subcutaneous form of dermatophytosis that is usually accompanied by typical dermatophyte signs

290
Q

what should be avoided with cats that have pseudomycetoma?

A

abdominal surgery as it can introduce disease into the cavity

291
Q

what is a common parasite that causes spontaneous alopecia?

A

Demodex mites

292
Q

what are the common types of Demodex mites?

A

Demodex canis
Demodex injai
Demodex cati

293
Q

what animals are effected by canine demodicosis?

A

young and immunocomprosied dogs

294
Q

what are the clinical signs of alopecia associated with demodicosis?

A 
alopecia
scaling
blue-grey hyperpigmentation
comedones
follicular casts
295
Q

how can demodicosis be diagnosed?

A

clinical appearance

skin scrape, hair plucks, biopsy

296
Q

what are the three main diseases that cause follicular casts?

A

demodicosis
dermatophytosis
sebaceous adenitis

297
Q

what should happen when you do a hair pluck for demodex?

A

demoted should fall off the hair bulb

298
Q

what should always be done when comedones are present?

A

skin scrapes

299
Q

what needs to be identified in adult onset demodicosis?

A

the underlying disease

300
Q

what are some underlying disease that may lead to adult onset demodicosis?

A 
hyperadrenocorticism
hypothyroidism
diabetes mellitus
systemic neoplasia
immunosuppressive therapy
FIV/FeLV
301
Q

what is used to treat adult onset demdodicosis?

A

clip long hair and bathe
treat secondary bacterial pyoderma
treat underlying immunosuppression
amitraz and isoxazolines

302
Q

what is done as a precautionary measure for bitches that have had demodicosis?

A

spey them - demodicosis often comes back during pregnancy

303
Q

what is sebaceous adenitis?

A

an uncommon cause of alopecia that leads to subtle loss of truncal hair that then becomes more generalised

304
Q

what is dermatomyositis?

A

rare cause of alopecia resulting in the loss of air from the face and boney prominences

305
Q

how should a vesicle be biopsies?

A

cut out the entire vesicle

306
Q

when sending a suspect tumour biopsy away for analysis, what should it be packaged in? and why?

A

half in formalin - histopathology

half in sterile saline - tissue culture

307
Q

what are the three main stages of the hair growth cycle?

A

anagen
catagen
telogen

308
Q

what is anagen?

A

the growing phase of the hair cycle

309
Q

what is catagen?

A

the transition phase of the hair cycle with regression if the lower part of the hair follicle

310
Q

what is telogen?

A

resting stage of the hair cycle

311
Q

what is exogen?

A

the release and shedding of the hair

312
Q

what is kenogen?

A

refers to empty hair follicles

313
Q

what stage of the hair cycle are the majority of follicles in with animals with primary alopecia?

A

telogen

314
Q

what can cause hair cycle arrest?

A 
endocrinopathies
anagen/telogen deflux
paraneoplastic alopecia
alopecia X
cyclic flank alopecia
post-clipping alopecia
injection alopecia
315
Q

what endocrinopathies can cause hair cycle arrest?

A

hyperadrenocorticism
hypothyroidism
hyperoestrogenism
sex cell alopecias

316
Q

what are the clinical features of endocrinpathies?

A 
symmetrical to generalised alopecia
dull and dry coat
comedones
hyperpigmentation
atrophic skin
poor wound healing 
poor hair growth
317
Q

why does the coat appear dull and dry with endocrinopathies?

A

the diseases effect the sebaceous glands

318
Q

what two effects do glucocorticoids have on the skin?

A

catabolic and antimitotic

319
Q

the antimitotic effect of glucocorticoids means there is decreased mitoses of the skin, what does this cause?

A

thinning
delayed wound healing
pilosebaceous atrophy

320
Q

what do glucocorticoid inhibit the proliferation/production of at the skin?

A

fibroblast proliferation

collagen and matrix substance production

321
Q

what does the inhibition of fibroblast proliferation and collagen/matrix substance production result in?

A

thinning

fragile vessels

322
Q

what stages of the hair cycle do glucocorticoid accelerate?

A

anagen and catagen (meaning all the follicles are in the telogen phase)

323
Q

what are the typical clinical signs of hyperadrenocorticism?

A 
truncal alopecia
comedones
skin atrophy and striae
prominent blood vessels
calcinosis cutis
324
Q

what are striae?

A

wrinkles

325
Q

what is calcinosis cutis?

A

inorganic, insoluble mineral salts are deposited on the dermis/subcutis

326
Q

how does calcinosis cutis appear?

A

crusting and haemorrhage

327
Q

how does feline hyperadrenocortism compare to canine?

A

feline is less common but more severe

328
Q

what is the main clinical sign of feline hyperadrenocorticism?

A

skin fragility (severe)

329
Q

what disease is feline hyperadrenocroticism often seen concurrently with?

A

diabete mellitus

330
Q

what is the general effect of thyroid hormones on the skin?

A

stimulate cytoplasmic protein synthesis and increase tissue oxygen consumption

331
Q

what are the 4 specific effects of thyroid hormones on the skin?

A

initiate anagen phase and wound healing
decrease cell apoptosis (prolong anagen)
promote matrix cell proliferation
support development of lymphoid tissue, neutrophilic function and lymphocyte funtion

332
Q

if there hypothyroidism, what happens to the hair cycle?

A

anagen is not stimulated so majority of hair cells are in telogen (resting)

333
Q

what are the clinical signs of hypothyroidism?

A 
truncal/extremity alopecia
dull hair coat
myxoedema 
weight gain
lethargy
heat seeking
334
Q

what does myxoedema cause?

A

tragic facial expression

335
Q

what animals is hyperestrogenism most common in?

A

intact males

336
Q

why is hyperestrogenism most common in intact males?

A

due to functional testicular neoplasia - Sertoli cell tumour

337
Q

what is the effect of oestrogen’s on the hair cycle?

A

initiate and promote catagen by induction of apoptosis

inhibition of anagen onset - longer telogen phase

338
Q

what are the clinical signs of Sertoli cell tumours?

A

testicular masses (not always obvious)
pendulous prepuce
linear preputial erythema
feminisation

339
Q

how can Sertoli cell tumours usually be cured?

A

neutering - don’t normally metastasise

340
Q

what is telogen defluxion?

A

a sudden loss of hair as the hairs synchronise into telogen

341
Q

when does telogen deflexion occur?

A

1-3 months post-stressful event (pregnancy, severe illness, shock, surgery)

342
Q

what is anagen defluxion?

A

sudden loss of hair due to damage of the growing hair/follicle

343
Q

what may cause anagen defluxion?

A

chemotherapy

severe illness

344
Q

what are the clinical signs of anagen defluxion?

A

patchy to complete hair loss (fractured/distorted hair)

loss of whiskers

345
Q

what are some causes of feline paraneoplastic alopecia?

A

pancreatic/bile duct carcinomas
neuroendocrine pancreatic tumour
hepatosplenic plasma cell tumour

346
Q

where do feline paraneoplastic alopecias usually cause hair loss?

A

ventrum and legs

347
Q

how does the skin of patients with feline paraneoplastic alopecia appear?

A

shiny and translucent (not fragile)

348
Q

what breeds are predisposed to alopecia X?

A

plush coated - Pomeranians, Chow chows…

349
Q

what are the clinical signs of alopecia X?

A

dull dry coat - hair loss in frictional areas
truncal alopecia and hyperpigmentation
dog otherwise well

350
Q

how does alopecia X progress?

A

starts with loss of primary hairs (puppy coat) then later there is complete alopecia and hyperpigmentation

351
Q

how is alopecia X diagnosed?

A

by exclusion - rule out endocrinopathies, sex hormones and take biopsy

352
Q

how can alopecia X be treated?

A 
none that is always effective
neutering males (deploring implant)
melatonin
353
Q

what word would be used to describe the disease of alopecia X?

A

cosmetic

354
Q

with recurrent flank alopecia, where is hairloss mainly seen?

A

flanks in the thoracolumbar area that can be unilateral

355
Q

what are the clinical signs of recurrent flank alopecia?

A 
hyper pigmented skin
partial to complete alopecia
coat colour change
flank alopecia
dog otherwise well - cosmetic condition
356
Q

what is recurrent flank alopecia linked to?

A

reduction in day length, follicular atrophy, dysplasia

357
Q

what can be used to treat recurrent flank alopecia?

A

melatonin

358
Q

what drugs can cause injection site alopecia?

A

glucocorticoids
vaccines
antibiotics

359
Q

what are some hair synthesis defects?

A

congenital alopecia
follicular dysplasias
pattern alopecia
sebaceous adenitis

360
Q

what are some defects that are associated with congenital alopecia?

A

adnexal, epidermal, dental and nail defects

361
Q

what are some breeds that are predisposed to follicular dysplasia?

A

Irish water spaniel
Portuguese water dogs
airedale

362
Q

what are the clinical signs of follicular dysplasia?

A

hair that is present at birth but alopecia develops when the hair starts to cycle
shaft fractures

363
Q

what breed is bald thigh syndrome seen in?

A

greyhounds/sighthounds

364
Q

what are the clinical signs of bald thigh syndrome?

A

bilateral hair loss on the caudal and lateral thighs (may extend to distal hind legs, ventral abdomen and chest)

365
Q

when in life is pattern alopecia seen?

A

later - elderly dogs

366
Q

where on the body is pattern alopecia usually seen?

A

pre/post auricular, ventral neck, ventrum, caudal thighs

367
Q

what breeds can be effected by pattern alopecia?

A

Yorkshire terrier, dachshund, greyhound, chihuahua

368
Q

what causes black hair follicular dysplasia?

A

genetic defects in melanisation causing a defect in pigmentation and hair formation

369
Q

how does black hair follicular dysplasia progress?

A

animal born normal but by 4 weeks the black hairs have become dull and may have fractured or been lost
bacterial infection can occur

370
Q

what causes colour dilution alopecia?

A

one or more genetic defects in melanisation

371
Q

what are the clinical signs of colour dilution alopecia?

A 
hair fragility
melanin clumping (macromelanosomes)
hair fracture/loss
scaling
possible bacterial folliculitis
372
Q

how can hair synthesis defects be diagnosed?

A

history - breed, distribution, coat colour
trichogram
skin biopsy

373
Q

what can be done to treat hair synthesis defects?

A 
avoid coat damage
high quality nutrition
gentle anti-scaling shampoos
prevent secondary infection
sun protection
374
Q

what is a nodule?

A

a circumscribed solid elevation greater than 1cm in diameter that usually extends into deep layers of skin

375
Q

what do nodules usually result from?

A

infiltration of inflammatory cells, neoplastic cells, deposition of fibrin/crystals

376
Q

when looking at the clinical presentation of nodules, wha should be described?

A 
location on body
number
size
behaviour
clinical features
377
Q

what are some possible clinical features of nodules?

A 
warm
painful
hard/soft/elastic/fixed/moveable
alopecia
ulcerated
hyper/hypopigmented
378
Q

after describing the clinical presentations of nodules, what should be done?

A

cytology - FNA, apposition

379
Q

after cytology and histology, what further diagnostic tests can be done on nodules?

A 
immunohistochemistry
PCR
biochemistry
urinalysis
serology
380
Q

what are some examples of foreign bodies that can cause nodules?

A

plant material
grass awns
embedded insect mouthparts
suture material

381
Q

what are some endogenous materials that can cause a nodular reaction?

A

hair, sebum, keratin
calcium salts
tyrosine crystals

382
Q

what are common causes of abscesses that cause nodules?

A

penetrating wounds, bites and foreign bodies

383
Q

what are some examples of filamentous bacteria that cause abscesses?

A

Actinomyces
Nocardia
Actinobacillus

384
Q

what are the clinical signs of filamentous bacteria nodules?

A

ulcerated nodules/abscesses with draining tracts and cellulitis
serosanguineous exudate
possible systemic signs - pyrexia, depression…

385
Q

how can filamentous bacteria nodules be diagnosed?

A

cytology (special stains)
histology (special stains)
culture (can take weeks)

386
Q

how can filamentous bacteria nodules be treated?

A

surgical drainage and antimicrobial therapy

387
Q

what are the two main presentations of nodules caused by mycobacteria?

A

canine leproid granuloma

feline leprosy syndrome

388
Q

what are the clinical signs of mycobacterial nodules?

A

single/multiple, firm, well circumscribed nodules in skin/subcutis

389
Q

how does canine leproid granuloma progress?

A

self-limiting (usually)

390
Q

how does feline leprosy syndrome progress?

A

progressive and occasionally aggressive clinical course

391
Q

how can mycobacteria nodular diseases be diagnosed?

A

cytology
histology
PCR

392
Q

why is culturing of mycobacteria nodular disease not generally carried out?

A

they are extremely fastidious and generally uncultivatable

393
Q

how can nodular disease caused by mycobacterium be treated?

A

long courses (often life long) of antibacterials

394
Q

what can atypical mycobacterium cause?

A

granulomatous panniculitis

395
Q

describe the gross appearance of granulomatous panniculitis

A

single/multiple nodules, plaques, macule and diffuse swelling

396
Q

where is granulomatous panniculitis most commonly seen on the animal?

A

inguinal fat pad
tail base
flank

397
Q

how can nodular disease caused by atypical mycobacteria be treated?

A

antibiotic treatment

surgical intervention

398
Q

what are the clinical signs of nodular mycobacterial disease caused by M. tuberculosis complex?

A

firm ulcerative nodules
non-healing wounds and draining tracts
tick yellow green fluid

399
Q

in what animals is nodular mycobacterial disease caused by M. tuberculosis complex most common? where on the body is it seen?

A

male outdoor cats on the face, extremities, tail base and perineum

400
Q

how can nodular mycobacterial disease caused by M. tuberculosis complex be diagnosed?

A

cytology
histology
culture
PCR

401
Q

how is nodular mycobacterial disease caused by M. tuberculosis complex treated?

A

notifiable disease - owner may need to be screened for TB
euthanasia often common
multidrug treatment

402
Q

what are the two types of dermatophyte infections causing nodular lesions?

A

dermatophytic pseudomycetoma

kerion - nodular dermatophytosis

403
Q

how does dermatophytic pseudomycetoma present clinically?

A

a deep dermal/subcutaneous infection painless single/multifocal ulcerated dermal nodules with yellow granular discharge

404
Q

where on the body is dermatophytic pseudomycetoma most commonly seen?

A

neck, dorsal, tail flanks and limbs

405
Q

how can dermatophytic pseudomycetoma be treated?

A

systemic antifungals such as itraconazole and terbinafine

406
Q

what animals is dermatophytic pseudomycetoma seen in?

A

cats - Persians

407
Q

what animals is nodular dermatophytosis seen in?

A

dogs

408
Q

describe the appearance of nodular dermatophytosis

A

single/multiple erythematous, alopecic, exudative nodules

409
Q

where on the body is nodular dermatophytosis seen?

A

head, neck and limbs

410
Q

how can nodular dermatophytosis be treated?

A

systemic antifingals - itraconazole and ketoconazole

411
Q

what can lead to subcutaneous fungal nodules?

A

traumatic implant of saprophytic organisms on soil and vegetation

412
Q

what animals is disseminated saprophytic subcutaneous fungal infections seen in?

A

immunocompromised animals

413
Q

what is a mycetoma?

A

pyogranulomatous nodules that contain tissue grains or granules composed of dense colonies of organisms and necrotic debris

414
Q

what two categories of fungi can cause nodular saprophytic subcutaneous fungal infections?

A

pigmented

unpigmented

415
Q

what is chromomycosis?

A

a subcutaneous and systemic disease associated with pigmented fungal elements (not grain in tissue)

416
Q

is hyalohyphomycosis a pigmented or unpigmented fungal infection?

A

unpigmented

417
Q

where is cryptococcus found and what does it most commonly cause?

A

in the environment causing systemic mycosis in cats

418
Q

how can nodular saprophytic subcutaneous fungal infections be treated?

A

based on culture
systemic antifungals - itraconazole, ketoconazole
amphotericin B
terbinafine

419
Q

protozoa rarely cause nodular skin lesions, what animals can they cause this in?

A

immunocompromised

420
Q

what parasite can cause nodular skin lesions?

A

Dirofilaria repens

421
Q

what is the name of the group of nodular causing disorders caused by inflammation?

A

histiocytic proliferative disorders

422
Q

what is a histiocyte?

A

overarching term to describe cells of dendritic cells or macrophage lineage

423
Q

what are the two types of histiocytic proliferative disorders?

A

neoplastic

reactive

424
Q

why does protective clothing need to be worn when dealing with suspected histiocytic proliferative disorders?

A

they are zoonotic

425
Q

what are the two types of reactive histiocytic proliferative disorders?

A

cutaneous histiocytosis

systemic histiocytosis

426
Q

how does cutaneous histiocytosis appear?

A

multiple cutaneous and subcutaneous nodules up to 4cm in diameter that are non-painful and non-pruritic
ulcerations common

427
Q

where on the body does cutaneous histiocytosis usually appear?

A

face, nose, trunk, extremities

428
Q

how can histiocytic proliferative disorders be treated?

A

glucocorticoids

ciclosporin

429
Q

describe the prognosis for systemic histiocytic proliferative disorders

A

guarded

430
Q

are crusts usually a primary or secondary lesion?

A

secondary

431
Q

where do crusts originate from?

A

from drying of exudate, serum, pus, blood and squamous corneocytes

432
Q

what is scale?

A

the presence of flakes of keratin in the hair coat and on the skin

433
Q

what can scale result from?

A 
normal skin function (dandruff)
abnormal desquamation
abnormal cornification
inflammation
bacterial and fungal enzymatic action
434
Q

what are some diseases that can result in primary scale?

A 
primary keratinisation disorders 
primary seborrhoea
zinc responsive dermatosis
vitamin A responsive dermatosis 
ear margin seborrhoea
435
Q

what are some diseases that can result in secondary scaling?

A 
callus
hypothyroidism
allergy
parasites
bacterial infection
dermatophytosis
sebaceous adenitis
436
Q

what is done to diagnose a problem when secondary scale seems unlikely?

A

check parasites
check infection
biopsy
genetic testing

437
Q

what are some non-specific topical treatments for scale?

A

keratoplastic/keratolytic products - reduce scale production and remove scale
moisturising and emollient products - hydrate/moisturise the skin

438
Q

what causes type I zinc-responsive dermatosis?

A

generally genetically predisposed

439
Q

what causes type II zinc-responsive dermatosis?

A

nutritional restrictions seen in young rapidly growing dogs

440
Q

what are the main presentations of nail disease?

A

breakages and losses
pus, inflammation, swelling of the nail bed
discolouration

441
Q

what are some disease that effect the nails?

A

symmetrical lupoid onychodystrophy
dermatophytosis
acute nail trauma
neoplasia of the ungual fold

442
Q

what are the clinical sign of symmetrical lupoid onychodystrophy?

A 
nail loss
nail breakage/splitting
nail pain
haemorrhage 
secondary paronychia
multiple nails can be effected
443
Q

what is onychomadesis?

A

nail loss

444
Q

what is onychalgia?

A

nail pain

445
Q

what is onychorrhexis?

A

nail breakage

446
Q

how does acute nail trauma present?

A

very painful

447
Q

what is acute nail trauma a sign of in cats?

A

RTA (check internal injury)

448
Q

what are two neoplasias that can occur on the ungual fold?

A

squamous cell carcinoma

melanoma

449
Q

what function are anal sacs associated with?

A

scent marking

450
Q

where are anal sacs found?

A

paired sacs between the internal and external anal sphincters

451
Q

what is a common problems associated with anal sacs?

A

impaction

452
Q

what are the clinical signs of impacted anal sacs?

A

pruritus
pain and depression
malodour
distended sacs

453
Q

what are some primary causes of anal sac impaction?

A

thick high volume secretios
change in muscle tone
faecal form - diarrhoea or constipation
plugging of ducts

454
Q

what are some secondary causes of anal sac impaction?

A

bacterial infection (possible abscessation)

455
Q

what are some predisposing factors to impacted anal sacs?

A

other causes of pruritus (atopic dermatitis, food allergy)

breed

456
Q

what are some differential diagnoses for anal sac impaction?

A

anal pruritus - food allergy, atopic dermatitis, vulva fold dermatitis, tail fold dermatitis
abscessation - tumour, anal furunculosis

457
Q

what are the treatment options for impacted anal sacs?

A

expression
additional fibre in feed - improve faecal consistency
flush and pack
anal sacculectomy

458
Q

what tumour can be seen within the anal sac?

A

anal sac adenocarcinoma

459
Q

what type of disease is anal furunculosis?

A

immune mediated skin disease

460
Q

what breed is predisposed to anal furunculosis?

A

German shepherds

461
Q

how can anal furunculosis be treated?

A

immunosuppressive therapy - prednisolone
food trials
good skin hygiene
surgery

462
Q

what is the main differential for canine pododermatitis?

A

sterile pyogranulomatous pododermatitis

463
Q

what does sterile pyogranulomatous pododermatitis include?

A

interdigital folliculitis/furunculosis with/without interdigital cysts or nodules

464
Q

what breeds are predisposed to sterile pyogranulomatous pododermatitis?

A

smooth, short-coated breeds such as staffies

465
Q

what can cause sterile pyogranulomatous pododermatitis?

A

trauma from the environment/self induced - usually on the front feet as they take more weight

466
Q

describe the pathogenesis of sterile pyogranulomatous pododermatitis

A

chronic weight bearing and friction on haired skin leads to follicular obstruction, damage and rupture
lesions start sterile and quickly progress to having secondary infection due to rupturing of cysts and self trauma
reoccurrence leads to increased scar tissue and disease perpetuation

467
Q

where do lesions of sterile pyogranulomatous pododermatitis form?

A

ventral interdigital surface but then rupture onto the dorsal surface

468
Q

what type of lesions form with sterile pyogranulomatous pododermatitis?

A

erythema, oedema, comedones, nodules, pustules, ulcers, haemorrhagic bullae, haemorrhagic draining tracts, pyogranulomas and callus formation

469
Q

between what digits does sterile pyogranulomatous pododermatitis often effect?

A

between digits 3 and 4, and 4 and 5

470
Q

how can sterile pyogranulomatous pododermatitis be diagnosed?

A

history/clinical exam

consider other differentials and comorbidities - atopic dermatitis, demodicosis

471
Q

how should sterile pyogranulomatous pododermatitis be treated?

A 
aggressively at the start to prevent scaring
immune-modulation
topical antiseptics
treat secondary infection
restrict activity to smooth surfaces
protect paw from trauma using boots

MOD (year 3) (45 decks)

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