Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MOD (year 3) > Equine dentistry > Flashcards

Equine dentistry Flashcards

1
Q

what type of teeth do horses have?

A

hypsodont (long crowned)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what does hypsodont mean?

A

long crowned

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

how fast do horses teeth erupt?

A

2mm/year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the deciduous dental formula for equids?

A

I 3/3 C 0/0 PM 3/3 (24)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the permanent dental formula of equids?

A

I 3/3 C 1/1 (0/0) PM 3/3 (4/4) M 3/3 (24)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what number is the upper right quadrant of the triadan system?

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what number is the upper left quadrant of the triadan system?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what number is the lower left quadrant of the triadan system?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what number is the lower right quadrant of the triadan system?

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

how is the deciduous teeth of equids numbered using the triadan system?

A

add 4 to quadrant number (upper right =5, upper left =6…)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

when do the deciduous incisors of horses erupt?

A

(01) central - 1 week
(02) middle - 6 weeks
(03) corner - 6 months
(6 days, 6 weeks, 6 months)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

when do the permanent incisors of horses erupt?

A

central - 2.5 years
middle - 3.5 years
corner - 4.5 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

when do canine teeth of horses erupt?

A

5 years (not all have them)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

when do wolf teeth erupt?

A

1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

when do deciduous pre-molars erupt?

A

present at birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

when do the permanent cheek teeth of horses erupt?

A 
1-4 years
(06 - 2.5 years
07 - 3.5 years 
08 - 4 years
09 - 1 year
10 - 2 years
11 - 3.5 years)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how many infundibulae do maxillary cheek teeth have?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what shape are maxillary cheek teeth?

A

square (wide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

how many infundibulae do mandibular cheek teeth have?

A

none

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what shape are mandibular cheek teeth?

A

rectangular (narrow)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are pulp horns?

A

areas of pigmented secondary dentine on the occlusal surface of teeth (cheek teeth have at least 5)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what sinuses are close to the cheek teeth?

A

rostral maxillary

caudal maxillary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is anisognathia in relation to horses??

A

maxillary cheek teeth wider than mandibular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are two normal anatomical variations of the mouth?

A

curvature of maxilla

curve of spee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

when watching a horse with suspected dental disease eat, what is looked at?

A

normal grinding sounds
chewing with both sides
takes longer chewing
quidding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is assessed when looking at incisors?

A

masses/trauma
occlusion from side/front
count teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

where should be palpated on an examination of cheek teeth?

A 
occlusal surface
edges of teeth
interdental space
buccal mucosa
tongue adjacent to teeth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what are category one dentistry procedures?

A

examination

using manual rasps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is parrot mouth also known as?

A

overbite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is parrot mouth?

A

overly long maxilla compared to mandible (brachygnathism)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what can overbite cause?

A

ulceration behind upper incisors

overgrowth of teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is prognathism?

A

overgrowth of mandible compared to the maxilla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is campylorrhinus lateralis also known as?

A

wry nose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is wry nose?

A

deviation of entire maxilla (incisive region, nasal septum, bones)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what does slant mouth indicate?

A

horse is eating predominantly on one side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

where are retained deciduous incisors found in relation to permanent teeth?

A

rostrally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

when incisors are fractured, what determines if they can be repaired or not?

A

if the pulp cavity is effected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is equine odontoclastic tooth resorption and hypercementosis?

A

swelling/draining tracts over multiple mandibular/maxillary incisors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is done to treat equine odontoclastic tooth resorption and hypercementosis?

A

extract loose incisors (may have to remove all)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is the most common oral neoplasm of dental origin?

A

ameloblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is done to treat ameloblastomas?

A

surgical extraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what are common oral neoplasias of soft tissue origin?

A

squamous cell carcinomas
sarcoid
epulis
fibroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what is the most common problem seen with canines?

A

calculus build up (remove)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what are indications for wolf tooth removal?

A

bitting problems
ulceration
blindly erupting (pain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what are retained caps?

A

remnants of deciduous teeth (normally shed during eruption of permanent teeth)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

how are retained caps usually attached?

A

in one place to gingiva (site of pain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what causes cheek teeth displacements?

A

overcrowding during eruption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what happens if the cheek teeth develop too far apart?

A

diastemata forms
food accumulates
fermentation (gingivitis)
periodontal disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

where do supernumerary cheek teeth usually develop?

A

caudal aspect of cheek teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what aspect of the cheek teeth does enamel overgrowth effect?

A

maxillary - buccal

mandibular - lingual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

enamel overgrowth is more pronounced in horses fed what?

A

more concentrates and less forage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what is wavemouth?

A

undulation to occlusal surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what is stepmouth?

A

focal overgrowth of single tooth (reduce in stages) - usually due to missing opposing tooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what is shearmouth?

A

increase occlusal angle to entire cheek tooth row

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what is shearmouth usually secondary to?

A

diastemata or dental fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

how is shearmouth managed?

A

treat primary problem

gradual reduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what is bit seating?

A

rostral profiling of cheek teeth (contraindicated)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what is smooth mouth?

A

cheek teeth enamel worn away, dentine and cementum become smooth (dietary management)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what are dental caries?

A

food material becomes trapped in pits in peripheral cementum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what happens when food gets trapped in pits that lead to dental caries?

A

fermentation
drop in pH
demineralisation
larger pits in cementum form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

how should diastemata without periodontal disease be treated?

A

cleaned out completely and packed with impression material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

how should diastemata with periodontal disease be treated?

A

widen with a mechanised burr and pack with impression material (feed short fibre)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what are the three types of cheek teeth fractures?

A

buccal slab
midline sagittal
occlusal fissure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what are the clinical signs of apical infection?

A

facial swelling
unilateral nasal discharge
mandibular swelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what can cause apical infections?

A

anachoresis (blood-borne infection)
fracture
periodontal spread
pulpar exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what are the ways of removing a cheek tooth?

A

oral extraction
modified transbuccal extraction
lateral buccotomy
repulsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what is the first step of oral extraction of cheek teeth?

A

interdental spreading (increase space infant/behind the tooth)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what is the second step in oral extraction of cheek teeth?

A

application of molar forceps and wiggle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

when is modified transbuccal extraction used?

A

when the crown is fractured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what are the function of the upper airway?

A 
air flow
filtering/protection
olfaction
phonation
swallowing
thermoregulation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what is the respiratory rate of a horse?

A

15bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

what is the tidal volume of a horse?

A

5L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

what is the minute ventilation of a horse?

A

75L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

the breathing pattern of a horse is coupled with their gait, how?

A

inspiration - back feet on the ground
expiration - front feet on the ground
(canter)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

what does narrowing of the upper airway lead to?

A

increased negative pressure on inspiration - collapse of structures (pharynx/larynx)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

where does unilateral nasal discharge come from?

A

sinus or nasal passage (rostral to nasal septum)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

where does bilateral nasal discharge come from?

A

larynx, pharynx, lower respiratory tract (caudal to nasal septum)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

what is the rebreathing test used on horses?

A

place bag over nose to increase respiratory rate/force, then take away and examine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

what should happen in a healthy horse when the bag is removed during the rebreathing exam?

A

1 or 2 deep breaths with no coughing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

what are normal sounds heard on exercise?

A

snorting
high blowing
sheath noise
thick wind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

what are the main methods of diagnostic imaging used for the head?

A

endoscopy (resting/exercise)
radiography
sinoscopy
CT

82
Q

what are the standard radiographic views to assess the horses head?

A

latero-lateral
lateral oblique
dorso-ventral

83
Q

what is latero-lateral radiographic views of the head good for assessing?

A

paranasal sinuses, guttural pouch, pharynx

84
Q

what is the lateral oblique radiographic view used for?

A

assess periodontal regions of cheek teeth

85
Q

what is the dorso-ventral radiographic view of the head used for?

A

paranasal sinus
nasal septum
teeth
(compare left/right)

86
Q

what are the indications for CT scanning of horses head?

A

dental disease
masses of paranasal sinus
trauma

87
Q

what can cause facial nerve paresis/paralysis?

A

recumbency with pressure on nerve

iatrogenic

88
Q

what are the clinical signs of facial nerve paresis/paralysis?

A

facial swelling/asymmetry

reduced airflow and stertor

89
Q

why is minimal debridement need for lacerations of the nares?

A

good blood supply (preserves tissues)

90
Q

how many suture layers should be used to close a laceration of the nares?

91
Q

what is nasal atheroma?

A

cyst within the nasal diverticulum

92
Q

what is the major clinical sign of nasal atheroma?

A

non-painful swelling at nasoincisive notch

93
Q

what is done to treat nasal atheroma?

A

surgical removal

94
Q

what are the clinical signs of alar fold collapse?

A

flaccid alar folds
respiratory noise
exercise intolerance

95
Q

what are the three meati formed from the turbinates?

A

dorsal
middle
ventral

96
Q

why is the sinus drainage angle an important anatomical feature?

A

(narrow passage from paranasal sinus to nasal passage)

cannot access using endoscopy

97
Q

what is the significance of ethmoturbinate 2?

A

when passing a gastric tube must push down to avoid damaging

98
Q

how can iatrogenic trauma to the nasal passage be prevented when passing a tube?

A

pass ventral to middle meatus
smooth tube
lubricate
(do not force!!)

99
Q

what is a progressive ethmoid haematoma (PEH)?

A

encapsulated non-neoplastic mass

100
Q

where can progressive ethmoid haematomas grow into?

A

nasal passage and paranasal sinus

101
Q

what are the two main clinical signs of progressive ethmoid haematoma?

A 
epistaxis
facial swelling (sinuses)
102
Q

how do progressive ethmoid haematomas appear on endoscopy?

A

yellow/green mass

103
Q

what can be done to treat progressive ethmoid haematoma?

A 
intralesional formalin (care with cribriform plate)
laser excision (sinus flap surgery)
104
Q

what can fungal rhinitis commonly occur secondary to?

A

bacterial sinusitis

105
Q

what are the main clinical signs of fungal rhinitis?

A

purulent/haemorrhagic discharge
malodorous smell
nasal stertor

106
Q

what can be done to treat fungal rhinitis?

A 
remove plaques/necrotic bone
topical antifungals (enilconazole)
107
Q

how many pairs of paranasal sinuses are there?

108
Q

what are the two functional groups of paranasal sinuses?

A

rostral

caudal

109
Q

what paranasal sinuses are included in the rostral group?

A

rostral maxillary

ventral conchal

110
Q

what paranasal sinuses are included in the caudal group?

A 
caudal maxillary
frontal
dorsal conchal
sphenopalatine
ethmoid
111
Q

what structures are the paranasal sinuses near?

A

brain

teeth

112
Q

what separates the rostral and caudal paranasal sinus groups?

A

oblique bony septum

113
Q

why is paranasal sinus drainage often inhibited in horses?

A

drain when head is down eating grass (modified diet causes issues)

114
Q

what are the most common diseases effecting paranasal sinuses?

A

primary sinusitis

secondary sinusitis

115
Q

what are the two most common presenting signs of paranasal sinus disease?

A

nasal discharge

facial swelling

116
Q

what can cause secondary sinusitis?

A

dental disease
sinus cyst
progressive ethmoid haematoma
neoplasm

117
Q

what is done to treat primary sinusitis?

A

culture sensitivity testing then one course of antibiotics
NSAIDs
feed from ground (drainage)
turn out and reduce dust

118
Q

what is the most common cause of secondary sinusitis?

A

dental disease

119
Q

what age animal are paranasal sinus cysts most common in?

A

young horses

120
Q

what is done to treat paranasal sinus cysts?

A

surgical remove by sinus flap

121
Q

what are common neoplasm of the paranasal sinuses?

A

SCC
adenocarcinoma
myxoma
fibro-osseous tumour

122
Q

what are potential complications of sinus surgery?

A

haemorrhage
infection
poor cosmetics
reoccurring sinusitis

123
Q

what is suturitis?

A

inflammation in the suture line (where bones join)

124
Q

what separates the nasopharynx and oropharynx?

A

soft palate

125
Q

where is the larynx found?

A

in the soft palate

126
Q

why is pharyngeal collapse during exercise common?

A

pharynx lacks rigid support (bones/cartilage)

127
Q

what are the functions of the pharynx?

A

passage of air and ingesta

128
Q

what happens in the pharynx to protect the airway during swallowing?

A

arytenoid closure
vocal cord closure
epiglottis retroversion

129
Q

what are the functions of the larynx?

A

breathing
protect lower airway
vocalisation

130
Q

what cartilage rings make up the larynx?

A

cricoid
thyroid
epiglottic
arytenoid (paired)

131
Q

what are the three process of the arytenoid cartilage?

A

muscular
corniculate
vocal

132
Q

what is the the muscular process of the arytenoid cartilage for?

A

cricoarytenoideus dorsalis (CAD) muscle attachment

133
Q

what is the the vocal process of the arytenoid cartilage for?

A

vocal cords attach

134
Q

what process of the arytenoid cartilage can be seen on endoscopy?

A

corniculate

135
Q

what are the two ways the larynx can move?

A

abduction (breathing)

adduction (swallowing)

136
Q

what muscle abducts the larynx?

A

cricoarytenoideus dorsalis (CAD)

137
Q

what muscle adducts the larynx?

A

cricoarytenoideus lateralis

138
Q

what nerve innervates the muscles that abduct and adduct the larynx?

A

recurrent laryngeal nerve

139
Q

what are the key clinical signs of a horse with laryngeal/pharyngeal disease?

A

respiratory noise
exercise intolerance
poor performance

140
Q

what are the two main modes of imaging used to asses the larynx/pharynx?

A

endoscopy

ultrasound

141
Q

what is DDSP?

A

dorsal displacement of the soft palate

142
Q

when is intermittent DDSP seen?

A

during intense exercise (expiratory obstruction)

143
Q

how is intermittent DDSP correct by the horse?

A

swallowing returns it to normal

144
Q

what can persistent DDSP be secondary to?

A

epiglottic entrapment
sub epiglottic ulcer
sub epiglottic cyst

145
Q

what can cause intermittent DDSP?

A

neuromuscular dysfunction
lower airway disease
structural abnormalities

146
Q

how can lower airway disease cause intermittent DDSP?

A

increases negative pressure

147
Q

how can the majority of intermittent DDSP cases be treated?

A

conservative - maturity, get horse fit, change tack, tongue tie, treat inflammation

148
Q

what surgeries can be used to treat DDSP?

A

tie forward

palatoplasty

149
Q

how is a tie forward surgery for DDSP treatment carried out?

A

suture from basihyoid bone to thyroid cartilage (larynx postponed more rostrally/dorsally)

150
Q

how does palatoplasty work to treat DDSP?

A

thermal/laser cautery causing a stiffened soft palate

151
Q

what is pharyngeal lymphoid hyperplasia?

A

enlargement of lymphoid follicles of the walls/roof of nasopharynx (incidental)

152
Q

what can nasopharyngeal collapse cause in neonates?

A

dysphagia and respiratory distress

153
Q

how is nasopharyngeal collapse treated in neonates?

A

self-resolves

154
Q

which side does recurrent laryngeal neuropathy usually effect?

A

left unilateral (paresis/paralysis)

155
Q

what is the pathophysiology that causes recurrent laryngeal paralysis?

A

loss of myelinated fibres of recurrent laryngeal nerve leading to atrophy laryngeal muscles

156
Q

what are the surgical options for treatment of recurrent laryngeal neuropathy?

A

prosthetic laryngoplasty (tie back)
ventriclo-cordectomy (hobday)
laryngeal re-innervation
arytenoidectomy

157
Q

how is prosthetic laryngoplasty (tie-back) carried out?

A

suture placed from cricoid cartilage to muscular process of arytenoid (mimics CAD)

158
Q

what is the disadvantage of prosthetic laryngoplasty (tie-back)?

A

permanent abduction of left arytenoid (may struggle to protect airway when swallowing)

159
Q

what are potential complications of prosthetic laryngoplasty (tie-back)?

A

coughing
seroma formation
infection
dysphagia

160
Q

how does a vocalcordectomy work to treat recurrent laryngeal neuropathy?

A

remove vocal cord to remove collapsing tissue into the airway

161
Q

how is laryngeal re-innervation carried out?

A

implant C1/C2 nerves onto effected CAD

162
Q

what can cause bilateral laryngeal paralysis?

A

hepatic disease
toxins
post anaesthetic complications

163
Q

what is laryngeal dysplasia?

A

congenital abnormality in the development of the laryngeal cartilage (4BAD)

164
Q

what dysfunction does laryngeal dysplasia lead to?

A

limited abduction of right arytenoid cartilage

165
Q

when is a noise heard with vocal cord collapse?

A

inspiration (whistle)

166
Q

what is the only way of detecting vocal cord collapse?

A

overground scope (only happens at exercise)

167
Q

when is noise heard with medial deviation of the aryepiglottic folds?

A

inspiration

168
Q

what is done to treat medial deviation of the aryepiglottic folds?

A

laser removal of aryepiglottic folds

169
Q

what is used to treat sub epiglottic cysts?

A

laser extraction

snare excision

170
Q

what is arytenoid chondritis?

A

infection/inflammation of arytenoid cartilage

171
Q

what are guttural pouches?

A

air filled out-pouchings of the auditory tubes connecting the middle ear to the nasopharynx

172
Q

what sits close to the guttural pouches dorsally?

A

skull/1st cervical vertebrae
tympanic bulla
auditory meatus

173
Q

what sits close to the guttural pouches ventrally?

A

nasopharynx

retropharyngeal lymph nodes

174
Q

what sits close to the guttural pouches laterally?

A

parotid and mandibular salivary glands

175
Q

what significance does the stylohyoid bone have to the guttural pouches?

A

separates them into medial and lateral (medial larger)

176
Q

what arteries pass through the guttural pouch?

A

internal and external carotid arteries

177
Q

what vessels supply the brain makes surgery of the guttural pouch more complex?

A

circle of willis (base of the brain)

178
Q

what are the most important clinical signs of guttural pouch disease?

A

epistaxis
dysphagia
nasal discharge

179
Q

why do horses with guttural pouch disease get dysphagia?

A

swallowing nerves pass through guttural pouch

180
Q

what is the best way to image the guttural pouch?

181
Q

what is guttural pouch mycosis?

A

fungal infection of the guttural pouch (artery erosion)

182
Q

what are the clinical signs of guttural pouch mycosis?

A 
nasal discharge
epistaxis
nerve dysfunction (horners, dysphagia, laryngeal paralysis)
183
Q

what are the differential diagnoses for epistaxis?

A

guttural pouch - mycosis
paranasal sinus - trauma, progressive ethmoid haematoma
nasal passage - trauma
lower respiratory tract - exercise induced pulmonary haemorrhage

184
Q

where should endoscopy of suspected guttural pouch mycosis be done?

A

surgical facility (high risk of haemorrhage)

185
Q

how must arteries be occluded for guttural pouch mycosis surgery?

A

on cardiac and cerebral side (internal/external carotid depending on what’s effected)

186
Q

when can guttural pouch mycosis be managed medically?

A

if there is no plaques overlying the arteries (fungal flush)

187
Q

what causes rupture of rectus capitis and longus capitis muscles?

A

head trauma (rearing and falling)

188
Q

what is the clinical sign of rupture of rectus capitis and longus capitis muscles?

A

blood emanating form the guttural pouch (they haemorrhage into the guttural pouch)

189
Q

what is guttural pouch empyema?

A

purulent material in the guttural pouches (chondroids is when it hardens)

190
Q

what are the clinical signs of guttural pouch empyema?

A

purulent nasal discharge
lymph node enlargement
dysphagia

191
Q

what are chondroids?

A

inspissated purulent material (chronic infection)

192
Q

what age animals does guttural pouch tympani occur in?

A

less than 1 year old

193
Q

what is guttural pouch tympani?

A

air gets trapped

194
Q

what are the clinical signs of guttural pouch tympani?

A

retropharyngeal swelling
respiratory stridor
dysphagia

195
Q

what is usually done to treat guttural pouch tympani?

A

catheters placed until animal matures and valves start operating normally

196
Q

what is temporohyoid osteoarthropathy?

A

progressive arthritic disease of stylohyoid

197
Q

what are the main clinical signs of otitis media?

A

headshaking

vestibular

198
Q

what is otitis media?

A

infection of the middle ear

199
Q

what is the most common neoplasm of the guttural pouch?

A

melanoma in grey horses

200
Q

what is the location for a tracheostomy?

A

midline on the upper third of the neck

201
Q

what incisions are made for a tracheostomy?

A

vertical through the skin

horizontal between the rings

MOD (year 3) (45 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions