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MOD (year 3) > Clinical exams and day 1 skills > Flashcards

Clinical exams and day 1 skills Flashcards

1
Q

what are some reasons to vaccinate?

A 
responsible pet ownership
maintain healthy pet population
reduce deaths
reduce zoonosis incidence 
early detection of clinical conditions
encourage client education
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2
Q

why must we wait until MDAs (maternally derived antibodies) have decreased before vaccinating?

A

will inhibit the development of an immune response in the neonate

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3
Q

what are the types of vaccines?

A

modified live
killed
recombinant

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4
Q

describe a modified live vaccine

A

contain virus that has been modified to lose its disease causing ability (attenuation)

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5
Q

describe a killed vaccine

A

attenuated through a process that results in their death

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6
Q

describe a recombinant vaccine

A

parts of virus/bacteria genetic sequences that encode immunogenic proteins in animals are isolated

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7
Q

what are the core canine vaccines set by the WSAVA?

A

distemper
hepatits
parvovirus

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8
Q

what are the core canine vaccines set by the BSAVA?

A

distemper
hepatitis
parvovirus
leptospirosis

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9
Q

what is the main route of infection of canine distemper virus?

A

inhalation

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10
Q

what are the clinical signs of canine distemper virus?

A

respiratory, alimentary, oculo-nasal (2 weeks post infection)
neurological (4 weeks post infection)
hyperkeratosis (3 months post infection)

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11
Q

what is the only treatment available for canine distemper virus?

A

supportive

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12
Q

what virus causes canine infectious hepatitis?

A

canine adenovirus 1

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13
Q

what are the main routes of infection of canine infectious hepatitis?

A

saliva

faeces

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14
Q

what cells does canine infectious hepatitis replicate in? and what does this cause?

A

hepatocytes

liver failure and jaundice

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15
Q

what is the only treatment for canine infectious hepatitis?

A

supportive

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16
Q

what are the clinical signs of canine infectious hepatitis?

A 
blue eyes
pyrexia
lethargy
cranial abdominal pain
vomiting/diarrhoea
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17
Q

what type of vaccine is canine infectious hepatitis?

A

live attenuated

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18
Q

what dogs does canine infectious hepatitis mainly occur in?

A

young (<6 months)

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19
Q

what is the route of infection of canine parvovirus?

A

faeco-oral

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20
Q

where does canine parvovirus replicate?

A

rapidly dividing cells (intestinal crypts and bone marrow)

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21
Q

what does intestinal crypt necrosis and villous atrophy lead to?

A

acute enteritis

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22
Q

what are the clinical signs of canine parvovirus?

A

lethargy
vomiting
diarrhoea (haemorrhagic)

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23
Q

what type of vaccine is canine parvovirus?

A

live attenuated

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24
Q

what can be used to diagnose canine parvovirus?

A

clinical signs

faecal SNAP test

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25
Q

what are the non-core vaccinations of dogs?

A 
leptospirosis 
parainfluenza
kennel cough complex
herpes
rabies
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26
Q

what group of animals is the herpes vaccinated licensed in?

A

pregnant bitches

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27
Q

what is the route of infection of leptospirosis?

A

ingestion of infected urine

rodent bites

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28
Q

what are the clinical signs of leptospirosis?

A

jaundice, haemorrhagic syndrome, uraemia syndrome, chronic active hepatitis

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29
Q

what are the two options for leptospirosis vaccination?

A

lepto-2 (active against 2 strains)

lepto-4 (active against 4 strains)

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30
Q

what are the benefits of the lepto-2 vaccine?

A

can give second dose 2-4 weeks after first so able to socialise puppy earlier

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31
Q

what virus is a key component of kennel cough?

A

canine parainfluenza

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32
Q

from what age can canine parainfluenza vaccine be given?

A 
8 weeks 
(another dose 2-4 weeks later)
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33
Q

what are the two main components of kennel cough vaccine?

A

canine parainfluenza

Bordatella bronchiseptica

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34
Q

what type of vaccine is kennel cough?

A

live attenuated

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35
Q

what is the operator warning for the kennel cough vaccine?

A

immunocompromised individuals should avoid any contact with the vaccine or vaccinated dogs

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36
Q

what age are the core canine vaccines delivered?

A

1st - distemper, hepatitis, parvovirus (DHP) at 6-8 weeks
2nd - DHP at at least 10 weeks (2-4 weeks after 1st)
booster at 1 year then every 3 years

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37
Q

what age are the non-core canine vaccines delivered?

A

leptospirosis and parainfluenza at 8 weeks and then 2-4 weeks later
kennel cough at 8 weeks then both annually

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38
Q

what are the core feline vaccines?

A

feline panleukopenia virus (FPV)
feline herpesvirus
feline calicivirus
(herpes and calici is cat flu)

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39
Q

what are non-core feline vaccines?

A

feline leukaemia virus

rabies

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40
Q

what are the routes of infection of cat flu?

A

nasal
oral conjunctival
(sharing food bowls)

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41
Q

what are the clinical signs of feline calicivirus?

A

gingivitis/stomatitis
lingual ulceration
transient limp

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42
Q

what are the clinical signs of feline herpesvirus?

A

chemosis

corneal ulceration

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43
Q

how can cat flu be treated?

A

supportive
reducing stress
antivirals

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44
Q

what are general clinical signs of cat flu?

A

rhinitis
nasal discharge
sneeze

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45
Q

what does feline panleucopenia virus attack?

A

rapidly dividing cells (intestinal epithelium, bone marrow, foetuses)

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46
Q

what is caused by feline panleucopenia attacking intestinal epithelium?

A

diarrhoea

vomiting

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47
Q

what is caused by feline panleucopenia attacking bone marrow?

A

panleucopenia

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48
Q

what is caused by feline panleucopenia attacking foetuses?

A

cerebellar hypoplasia

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49
Q

what is the route of infection of FeLV?

A

fighting and sharing food bowls (saliva)

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50
Q

what are the clinical signs of FeLV?

A

reproductive
anaemia
immunosuppression
neoplasia

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51
Q

what are the restart protocols for dog vaccines?

A

DHPPi require single dose

leptospirosis requires 2nd dose 4 weeks later

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52
Q

what are the requirements of an animal health certificate for travel?

A 
microchipped
up to date rabies vaccine
supporting documentation
(proof of id)
tapeworm treatment (certain countries)
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53
Q

how soon after issuing of an AHC does the animal have to travel?

A

within 10 days

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54
Q

what are the most common vaccines given to horses?

A

influenza and tetanus

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55
Q

what equine vaccinations are available in the UK?

A 
influenza
tetnus
herpes
strangles
rotavirus
west nile virus
equine viral arteritis
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56
Q

what is the main reason for controlling equine influenza?

A

the economic impact of outbreaks on the equine industry

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57
Q

describe the morbidity and mortality of equine influenza

A

high morbidity

low mortality

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58
Q

how many equine influenza vaccines are on the UK market?

A

3

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59
Q

what equine influenza vaccine contains both clade 1 and 2, hence is the only one to apply with the OiE recommendations?

A

Proteq-Flu

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60
Q

what vaccine is compulsory for racehorses?

A

equine influenza

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61
Q

what are the Jockey Club Rules for the influenza vaccine?

A

horse must have received two primary vaccinations between 21 and 92 days apart
they also require a booster between 150 and 215 days after the second vaccine

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62
Q

how often does a horse need an influenza booster if it is competing under the FEI?

A

every 6 months

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63
Q

what are the ProteqFlu data sheet dates for vaccine administration?

A

second jab 4-6 weeks after the first
third jab 5 months after the second
booster every year

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64
Q

what has to be filled in when administering a vaccine to a horse?

A

their passport

65
Q

is tetanus treatment effective in horses?

A

no, very poor prognosis

66
Q

what age can tetanus vaccine usually be given from in horses?

67
Q

what is the primary tetanus vaccination course in horses?

A

2 vaccines 4-6 weeks apart and third with 12-17 months after the first

68
Q

how often does a horse need a booster for tetanus?

A

every 2 years

69
Q

can pregnant mares be given the tetanus vaccine?

A

yes, usually 4-6 weeks before foaling (may give passive immunity to foal)

70
Q

what is used to provide immediate protection to tetanus in horses?

A

tetanus antitoxins

71
Q

how long does tetanus antitoxin work for?

A

about 3 weeks

72
Q

where does tetanus antitoxin have to be kept?

A

in a fridge

73
Q

can tetanus antitoxin and vaccination be given at the same time?

A

yes, but at a different site

74
Q

who can implant microchips in horses?

75
Q

when are the exceptions for a horse not being accompanied by its passport?

A

emergency situations
at pasture or stabled
moved on foot
participating in an event requiring horse to leave the venue

76
Q

at what age must a horse have a passport?

A

within 6 months of birth or by 31st December of its birth year

77
Q

what do you do if you want to give a horse bute or flunixin but the passport is present but unsigned?

A

get owners consent and sign the passport before giving bute/flunixin

78
Q

what do you do if you want to give a horse bute or flunixin but the passport isn’t present?

A

can get an emergency treatment for or administer a drug suitable for food producing animals

79
Q

what horses need to be microchipped?

A

all (unless they are truly wild)

80
Q

where is a horses microchip placed?

A

nuchal ligament

81
Q

what is the procedure for giving a horse a microchip?

A

scan to ensure it doesn’t already have one
scan new chip to make sure the numbers are correct
clip and clean the area
insert local anaesthetic
insert microchip
fill out ID form

82
Q

how do you mark a horse is microchipped on a passport?

A

M with a circle round it pointing to where it was inserted

83
Q

what are the general rules for identification on a horse passport?

A 
description in black ink in capitals
whorls marked as X
white marks outlined in red and hatched
food colour is marked
flesh marks drawn as solid red
prophets thumb mark is a black triangle 
acquired marks are drawn as a black arrow
narrative must match the sketch
84
Q

what are the stages of a farm animal clinical exam?

A 
take history
background knowledge of farm/client
full clinical exam on animal
look at environment
sampling for testing
85
Q

what are the three approaches to reaching a diagnosis in farm clinical examination?

A

blunderbuss
algorithmic
pattern matching

86
Q

what is the blunderbuss approach to clinical examination?

A

examine the animal from top to toe
take lots of tests to rule out different diagnosis
fit the tests into a model or database to get a diagnosis

87
Q

what are the disadvantages of the blunderbuss approach?

A

not very methodical
expensive
time consuming
(shouldn’t use this approach)

88
Q

describe the algorithmic approach to reaching a diagnosis

A

flow chart approach using and, or, not and if

89
Q

what are the advantages to the algorithmic approach for diagnosis?

A

simple
can train farmers to use
(still to simple for us to use)

90
Q

what is the best method to use to reach a diagnosis on farm?

A

hypotheticodeductive model (generation and testing of hypothesis)

91
Q

define sensitivity

A

proportion of true positives detected

92
Q

define specificity

A

proportion of true negatives detected

93
Q

define positive predictive values

A

probability a test positive result is truly positive

94
Q

define negative predictive value

A

probability a test negative result is truly negative

95
Q

what is the first step of a farm animal clinical exam?

A

restrain the patient and exam from a distance

96
Q

when examining a cow from a distance what are you looking for?

A 
coat quality and cleanliness 
lameness (mobility)
BCS
demeanour
lesions
97
Q

what do you examine at the tail end of a cow?

A

temperature
vaginal discharge
MM colour

98
Q

where do you listen to the rumen of a cow?

A

left hand side

behind the last rib and under the transverse process

99
Q

what is the withers test on a cow for?

A

check for cranial abdominal pain, should dip down twice if none is present

100
Q

what is the turnover rate of the rumen?

A

3 every 2 minutes

101
Q

what are the three most relevant questions to ask during an equine clinical exam?

A

what is the horse used for?
how old is it?
how is it kept?

102
Q

why is finding out what the horses is used for an important part of a clinical exam?

A

problems - common issues for its work
future expectations - what condition does this horse need to return to
timescale for resolving the issue
drugs/treatment options

103
Q

why is asking how the horse is kept an important question?

A

problems are sometimes associated with management
rule out diagnosis
problems often associate with changes in routine
can influence treatment

104
Q

what two things must be done when examining a colic?

A

ensure safety

decide if it is medical or surgical

105
Q

when examining a coughing horse, what is the main thing that must be established?

A

is the cause allergic or infectious

106
Q

what are the three main questions to answer when examining a lame horse?

A

is it actually lame?
which leg is lame?
where on the leg is the problem?

107
Q

when examining a horse described as off-colour what are the three differentials you want to rule out?

A

colic
neurological
pyrexia

108
Q

what is a very good simple test to determine how ill a horse actually is?

A

food test - offer them food, if it doesn’t eat it chances are it is fairly ill

109
Q

when examining a horse with weight loss, what two factors need to be decided?

A

is the problem pathological or management

is the horse ill or healthy

110
Q

what is triage?

A

the skill to sort multiple cases into order of priority

111
Q

what are some examples of emergency presentations that need immediate assessment?

A 
distended abdomen with non-productive retching (dog)
breathing difficulties
seizures lasting >5 minutes
major trauma
major bleeding (pulsatile flow)
male cat unable to urinate
dystocia (stuck pup/kit)
toxin ingestions within the last 2 hours
112
Q

what is the first step of triage?

A

get a capsule history

113
Q

what should be found out in a capsule history?

A 
presenting signs
current medications
onset/duration
consent to stabilise patient
(can be easier to separate owner and patient)
114
Q

what must be done as soon as the patients have been sorted into order of priority?

A

explain to owners what is happening!!

115
Q

what acronym can be used to quickly assess a patient?

A

ABCD

alert, breathing, circulation, disability

116
Q

acute failure of which systems will lead to rapid death?

A

CV
respiratory
neurological

117
Q

what should be examined when assessing the cardiovascular system?

A 
HR and rhythm
pulse quality and rate
MM
CRT
auscultation
118
Q

what should be examined when assessing the respiratory system?

A 
respiratory rate
respiratory effort
pattern (dyspnoea, mouth breathing, paradoxical)
noise (without stethoscope)
auscultation
119
Q

what should be done if a cat is mouth breathing?

A

give immediate oxygen

120
Q

what is the main thing assessed during an emergency neurological exam?

A

the animals mentation

121
Q

what is the scale of mentation?

A 
alert and responsive
quiet
dull
obtunded
comatosed
seizuring
122
Q

what are the three main aims of stabilisation?

A

prevent current issue getting worse
find a cause of the problem
welfare (analgesia!!)

123
Q

when presented with an unconscious patient, what are the differentials that you should try to rule out?

A 
hypoglycaemia (check glucose)
severe shock (CV signs)
seizuring (medicate)
toxins 
heatstroke
arrest
124
Q

what are the first two things to do with patients in respiratory distress?

A

reduce stress

give oxygen

125
Q

an animal comes in with an external haemorrhaging wound, what should you do?

A 
put gloves on
direct pressure on wound with swabs
don't remove base layer of swabs (add more if needed)
analgesia
support CV system
126
Q

what was BARTA formed for?

A

to set out protocols to make rescues more efficient and safer for vets and rescue workers

127
Q

what does BARTA stand for?

A

British Animal Rescue and Trauma care Association

128
Q

what is the role of the vet in large animal rescue situations?

A

triage (injury assessment)
restraint (physical/chemical)
euthanasia
welfare advise

129
Q

what are the priorities when being called to a large animal rescue?

A 
create a safe workplace
place head restraint
assess if animal is worth rescuing
provide chemical restraint
contact owner
provide analgesia
do not release animal until there is a safe place for them
130
Q

what are common chemical restraints for horses?

A

alpha 2 agonists - xylazine, detomidine, romifidine

131
Q

what are some ways of euthanasia?

A

lethal injection
shooting
aortic severance per rectum

132
Q

what are some examples of reasons you may be struck off?

A

causing serious harm to animals or public
sexual offences
offences involving violence or loss of human life
evidence of a harmful deep-seated personality problem
dishonesty (false certification)

133
Q

what are the four main hazards for vets when certifying?

A

negligence
criminal offence
professional misconduct
loss of OV status

134
Q

what do the 10 principles of certification ensure vets are/do?

A

caution
clarity
certainty
challenge

135
Q

what are the 10 principles of certification?

A

vets should only certify matters which are within their own knowledge/can be ascertained to them personally/are subject to supporting evidence from an authorised vet
vets should not issue a certificate that may raise conflict of interests
should only sign certificates written in a language they understand
vet should not certify that there has been compliance with the law of another country
vets should only sign original certificates
ensure the certification doesn’t contain deletions or alterations
certificates should be written in simple terms which are easy to understand
certification should be clear and concise with a unique identifier
certificates should not uses words with multiple interpretations
certificates should identify the subject being certified

136
Q

what does SOAP stand for?

A

Subjective
Objective
Assessment
Plan

137
Q

what are some things looked at on a subjective exam?

A

BCS, behaviour, demeanour, gait

138
Q

when assessing the head of a small animal, what is looked for in the objective exam?

A

posture of head/neck
symmetry
discharge

139
Q

when assessing the eye of a small animal, what is looked for in the objective exam?

A

abnormalities uni/bilateral
size/symmetry
position
discharge

140
Q

what are some common issues concerning the eyes of small animals?

A 
ectropian
entropian 
cataract 
protrusion
ulcers
141
Q

when assessing the nose of a small animal, what is looked for in the objective exam?

A

discharge
airflow
swelling, depigmentation, symmetry
pain

142
Q

when assessing the mouth of a small animal, what is looked for in the objective exam?

A

symmetry
MM - colour, moisture, masses
CRT
oral trauma, neoplasia, ulcers

143
Q

when assessing the teeth of a small animal, what is looked for in the objective exam?

A

tartar
periodontal disease
fractures

144
Q

when assessing the ears of a small animal, what is looked for in the objective exam?

A

pinna - haematoma, hyperplastic change, neoplasia

discharge - purulent, ceruminous, parasites, haemorrhagic

145
Q

when assessing the neck of a small animal, what is looked for in the objective exam?

A

palpate larynx
palpate trachea
palpate thyroid gland
jugular veins

146
Q

where are the common lymph nodes that can be palpated?

A

prescapular
submandicular
popliteal

147
Q

when assessing the abdomen of a small animal, what is looked for in the objective exam?

A

organomegaly
fat
ascites (fluid thrill)
distension (pyo/pregnancy or GD/GDV)

148
Q

what organs can be palpated in the abdomen of dogs?

A 
liver (under costal arch)
stomach and spleen (left cranial)
kidney (mid abdomen)
small intestine - gas/fluid filled
colon 
bladder - size, shape, turgidity
149
Q

when assessing the skin of a small animal, what is looked for in the objective exam?

A

masses
external parasites
alopecia
lesions - pustules, nodules, vesicles, scales, crusting

150
Q

when assessing the respiratory system of a small animal, what is looked for in the objective exam?

A

respiratory rate/effort/rhythm
chest auscultation
tracheal auscultation

151
Q

what is the normal RR of a cat?

152
Q

what is the normal RR of a dog?

153
Q

what is the normal HR of a dog?

154
Q

what is the normal HR of a cat?

A

145-200bpm

155
Q

what rip spaces is the heart listen to in on dogs/cats?

A

3, 4, 5 on the left

4/5 on the right

156
Q

when assessing the pulse of a small animal, what is looked for in the objective exam?

A

quality
symmetry
synchronous
(femoral and peripheral)

157
Q

what is the normal temperature range for a cat?

158
Q

what is the normal temperature range for a dog?

159
Q

when rectally examining a dog, what is looked for in the objective exam?

A 
pelvic canal
prostate
masses
perineal region
anal sacs

MOD (year 3) (45 decks)

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