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MOD (year 3) > Clinical exams and day 1 skills > Flashcards

Clinical exams and day 1 skills Flashcards

1
Q

what are some reasons to vaccinate?

A 
responsible pet ownership
maintain healthy pet population
reduce deaths
reduce zoonosis incidence 
early detection of clinical conditions
encourage client education
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2
Q

why must we wait until MDAs (maternally derived antibodies) have decreased before vaccinating?

A

will inhibit the development of an immune response in the neonate

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3
Q

what are the types of vaccines?

A

modified live
killed
recombinant

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4
Q

describe a modified live vaccine

A

contain virus that has been modified to lose its disease causing ability (attenuation)

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5
Q

describe a killed vaccine

A

attenuated through a process that results in their death

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6
Q

describe a recombinant vaccine

A

parts of virus/bacteria genetic sequences that encode immunogenic proteins in animals are isolated

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7
Q

what are the core canine vaccines set by the WSAVA?

A

distemper
hepatits
parvovirus

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8
Q

what are the core canine vaccines set by the BSAVA?

A

distemper
hepatitis
parvovirus
leptospirosis

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9
Q

what is the main route of infection of canine distemper virus?

A

inhalation

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10
Q

what are the clinical signs of canine distemper virus?

A

respiratory, alimentary, oculo-nasal (2 weeks post infection)
neurological (4 weeks post infection)
hyperkeratosis (3 months post infection)

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11
Q

what is the only treatment available for canine distemper virus?

A

supportive

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12
Q

what virus causes canine infectious hepatitis?

A

canine adenovirus 1

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13
Q

what are the main routes of infection of canine infectious hepatitis?

A

saliva

faeces

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14
Q

what cells does canine infectious hepatitis replicate in? and what does this cause?

A

hepatocytes

liver failure and jaundice

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15
Q

what is the only treatment for canine infectious hepatitis?

A

supportive

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16
Q

what are the clinical signs of canine infectious hepatitis?

A 
blue eyes
pyrexia
lethargy
cranial abdominal pain
vomiting/diarrhoea
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17
Q

what type of vaccine is canine infectious hepatitis?

A

live attenuated

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18
Q

what dogs does canine infectious hepatitis mainly occur in?

A

young (<6 months)

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19
Q

what is the route of infection of canine parvovirus?

A

faeco-oral

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20
Q

where does canine parvovirus replicate?

A

rapidly dividing cells (intestinal crypts and bone marrow)

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21
Q

what does intestinal crypt necrosis and villous atrophy lead to?

A

acute enteritis

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22
Q

what are the clinical signs of canine parvovirus?

A

lethargy
vomiting
diarrhoea (haemorrhagic)

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23
Q

what type of vaccine is canine parvovirus?

A

live attenuated

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24
Q

what can be used to diagnose canine parvovirus?

A

clinical signs

faecal SNAP test

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25
what are the non-core vaccinations of dogs?
``` leptospirosis parainfluenza kennel cough complex herpes rabies ```
26
what group of animals is the herpes vaccinated licensed in?
pregnant bitches
27
what is the route of infection of leptospirosis?
ingestion of infected urine | rodent bites
28
what are the clinical signs of leptospirosis?
jaundice, haemorrhagic syndrome, uraemia syndrome, chronic active hepatitis
29
what are the two options for leptospirosis vaccination?
lepto-2 (active against 2 strains) | lepto-4 (active against 4 strains)
30
what are the benefits of the lepto-2 vaccine?
can give second dose 2-4 weeks after first so able to socialise puppy earlier
31
what virus is a key component of kennel cough?
canine parainfluenza
32
from what age can canine parainfluenza vaccine be given?
``` 8 weeks (another dose 2-4 weeks later) ```
33
what are the two main components of kennel cough vaccine?
canine parainfluenza | Bordatella bronchiseptica
34
what type of vaccine is kennel cough?
live attenuated
35
what is the operator warning for the kennel cough vaccine?
immunocompromised individuals should avoid any contact with the vaccine or vaccinated dogs
36
what age are the core canine vaccines delivered?
1st - distemper, hepatitis, parvovirus (DHP) at 6-8 weeks 2nd - DHP at at least 10 weeks (2-4 weeks after 1st) booster at 1 year then every 3 years
37
what age are the non-core canine vaccines delivered?
leptospirosis and parainfluenza at 8 weeks and then 2-4 weeks later kennel cough at 8 weeks then both annually
38
what are the core feline vaccines?
feline panleukopenia virus (FPV) feline herpesvirus feline calicivirus (herpes and calici is cat flu)
39
what are non-core feline vaccines?
feline leukaemia virus | rabies
40
what are the routes of infection of cat flu?
nasal oral conjunctival (sharing food bowls)
41
what are the clinical signs of feline calicivirus?
gingivitis/stomatitis lingual ulceration transient limp
42
what are the clinical signs of feline herpesvirus?
chemosis | corneal ulceration
43
how can cat flu be treated?
supportive reducing stress antivirals
44
what are general clinical signs of cat flu?
rhinitis nasal discharge sneeze
45
what does feline panleucopenia virus attack?
rapidly dividing cells (intestinal epithelium, bone marrow, foetuses)
46
what is caused by feline panleucopenia attacking intestinal epithelium?
diarrhoea | vomiting
47
what is caused by feline panleucopenia attacking bone marrow?
panleucopenia
48
what is caused by feline panleucopenia attacking foetuses?
cerebellar hypoplasia
49
what is the route of infection of FeLV?
fighting and sharing food bowls (saliva)
50
what are the clinical signs of FeLV?
reproductive anaemia immunosuppression neoplasia
51
what are the restart protocols for dog vaccines?
DHPPi require single dose | leptospirosis requires 2nd dose 4 weeks later
52
what are the requirements of an animal health certificate for travel?
``` microchipped up to date rabies vaccine supporting documentation (proof of id) tapeworm treatment (certain countries) ```
53
how soon after issuing of an AHC does the animal have to travel?
within 10 days
54
what are the most common vaccines given to horses?
influenza and tetanus
55
what equine vaccinations are available in the UK?
``` influenza tetnus herpes strangles rotavirus west nile virus equine viral arteritis ```
56
what is the main reason for controlling equine influenza?
the economic impact of outbreaks on the equine industry
57
describe the morbidity and mortality of equine influenza
high morbidity | low mortality
58
how many equine influenza vaccines are on the UK market?
3
59
what equine influenza vaccine contains both clade 1 and 2, hence is the only one to apply with the OiE recommendations?
Proteq-Flu
60
what vaccine is compulsory for racehorses?
equine influenza
61
what are the Jockey Club Rules for the influenza vaccine?
horse must have received two primary vaccinations between 21 and 92 days apart they also require a booster between 150 and 215 days after the second vaccine
62
how often does a horse need an influenza booster if it is competing under the FEI?
every 6 months
63
what are the ProteqFlu data sheet dates for vaccine administration?
second jab 4-6 weeks after the first third jab 5 months after the second booster every year
64
what has to be filled in when administering a vaccine to a horse?
their passport
65
is tetanus treatment effective in horses?
no, very poor prognosis
66
what age can tetanus vaccine usually be given from in horses?
6 months
67
what is the primary tetanus vaccination course in horses?
2 vaccines 4-6 weeks apart and third with 12-17 months after the first
68
how often does a horse need a booster for tetanus?
every 2 years
69
can pregnant mares be given the tetanus vaccine?
yes, usually 4-6 weeks before foaling (may give passive immunity to foal)
70
what is used to provide immediate protection to tetanus in horses?
tetanus antitoxins
71
how long does tetanus antitoxin work for?
about 3 weeks
72
where does tetanus antitoxin have to be kept?
in a fridge
73
can tetanus antitoxin and vaccination be given at the same time?
yes, but at a different site
74
who can implant microchips in horses?
only vets
75
when are the exceptions for a horse not being accompanied by its passport?
emergency situations at pasture or stabled moved on foot participating in an event requiring horse to leave the venue
76
at what age must a horse have a passport?
within 6 months of birth or by 31st December of its birth year
77
what do you do if you want to give a horse bute or flunixin but the passport is present but unsigned?
get owners consent and sign the passport before giving bute/flunixin
78
what do you do if you want to give a horse bute or flunixin but the passport isn't present?
can get an emergency treatment for or administer a drug suitable for food producing animals
79
what horses need to be microchipped?
all (unless they are truly wild)
80
where is a horses microchip placed?
nuchal ligament
81
what is the procedure for giving a horse a microchip?
scan to ensure it doesn't already have one scan new chip to make sure the numbers are correct clip and clean the area insert local anaesthetic insert microchip fill out ID form
82
how do you mark a horse is microchipped on a passport?
M with a circle round it pointing to where it was inserted
83
what are the general rules for identification on a horse passport?
``` description in black ink in capitals whorls marked as X white marks outlined in red and hatched food colour is marked flesh marks drawn as solid red prophets thumb mark is a black triangle acquired marks are drawn as a black arrow narrative must match the sketch ```
84
what are the stages of a farm animal clinical exam?
``` take history background knowledge of farm/client full clinical exam on animal look at environment sampling for testing ```
85
what are the three approaches to reaching a diagnosis in farm clinical examination?
blunderbuss algorithmic pattern matching
86
what is the blunderbuss approach to clinical examination?
examine the animal from top to toe take lots of tests to rule out different diagnosis fit the tests into a model or database to get a diagnosis
87
what are the disadvantages of the blunderbuss approach?
not very methodical expensive time consuming (shouldn't use this approach)
88
describe the algorithmic approach to reaching a diagnosis
flow chart approach using and, or, not and if
89
what are the advantages to the algorithmic approach for diagnosis?
simple can train farmers to use (still to simple for us to use)
90
what is the best method to use to reach a diagnosis on farm?
hypotheticodeductive model (generation and testing of hypothesis)
91
define sensitivity
proportion of true positives detected
92
define specificity
proportion of true negatives detected
93
define positive predictive values
probability a test positive result is truly positive
94
define negative predictive value
probability a test negative result is truly negative
95
what is the first step of a farm animal clinical exam?
restrain the patient and exam from a distance
96
when examining a cow from a distance what are you looking for?
``` coat quality and cleanliness lameness (mobility) BCS demeanour lesions ```
97
what do you examine at the tail end of a cow?
temperature vaginal discharge MM colour
98
where do you listen to the rumen of a cow?
left hand side | behind the last rib and under the transverse process
99
what is the withers test on a cow for?
check for cranial abdominal pain, should dip down twice if none is present
100
what is the turnover rate of the rumen?
3 every 2 minutes
101
what are the three most relevant questions to ask during an equine clinical exam?
what is the horse used for? how old is it? how is it kept?
102
why is finding out what the horses is used for an important part of a clinical exam?
problems - common issues for its work future expectations - what condition does this horse need to return to timescale for resolving the issue drugs/treatment options
103
why is asking how the horse is kept an important question?
problems are sometimes associated with management rule out diagnosis problems often associate with changes in routine can influence treatment
104
what two things must be done when examining a colic?
ensure safety | decide if it is medical or surgical
105
when examining a coughing horse, what is the main thing that must be established?
is the cause allergic or infectious
106
what are the three main questions to answer when examining a lame horse?
is it actually lame? which leg is lame? where on the leg is the problem?
107
when examining a horse described as off-colour what are the three differentials you want to rule out?
colic neurological pyrexia
108
what is a very good simple test to determine how ill a horse actually is?
food test - offer them food, if it doesn't eat it chances are it is fairly ill
109
when examining a horse with weight loss, what two factors need to be decided?
is the problem pathological or management | is the horse ill or healthy
110
what is triage?
the skill to sort multiple cases into order of priority
111
what are some examples of emergency presentations that need immediate assessment?
``` distended abdomen with non-productive retching (dog) breathing difficulties seizures lasting >5 minutes major trauma major bleeding (pulsatile flow) male cat unable to urinate dystocia (stuck pup/kit) toxin ingestions within the last 2 hours ```
112
what is the first step of triage?
get a capsule history
113
what should be found out in a capsule history?
``` presenting signs current medications onset/duration consent to stabilise patient (can be easier to separate owner and patient) ```
114
what must be done as soon as the patients have been sorted into order of priority?
explain to owners what is happening!!
115
what acronym can be used to quickly assess a patient?
ABCD | alert, breathing, circulation, disability
116
acute failure of which systems will lead to rapid death?
CV respiratory neurological
117
what should be examined when assessing the cardiovascular system?
``` HR and rhythm pulse quality and rate MM CRT auscultation ```
118
what should be examined when assessing the respiratory system?
``` respiratory rate respiratory effort pattern (dyspnoea, mouth breathing, paradoxical) noise (without stethoscope) auscultation ```
119
what should be done if a cat is mouth breathing?
give immediate oxygen
120
what is the main thing assessed during an emergency neurological exam?
the animals mentation
121
what is the scale of mentation?
``` alert and responsive quiet dull obtunded comatosed seizuring ```
122
what are the three main aims of stabilisation?
prevent current issue getting worse find a cause of the problem welfare (analgesia!!)
123
when presented with an unconscious patient, what are the differentials that you should try to rule out?
``` hypoglycaemia (check glucose) severe shock (CV signs) seizuring (medicate) toxins heatstroke arrest ```
124
what are the first two things to do with patients in respiratory distress?
reduce stress | give oxygen
125
an animal comes in with an external haemorrhaging wound, what should you do?
``` put gloves on direct pressure on wound with swabs don't remove base layer of swabs (add more if needed) analgesia support CV system ```
126
what was BARTA formed for?
to set out protocols to make rescues more efficient and safer for vets and rescue workers
127
what does BARTA stand for?
British Animal Rescue and Trauma care Association
128
what is the role of the vet in large animal rescue situations?
triage (injury assessment) restraint (physical/chemical) euthanasia welfare advise
129
what are the priorities when being called to a large animal rescue?
``` create a safe workplace place head restraint assess if animal is worth rescuing provide chemical restraint contact owner provide analgesia do not release animal until there is a safe place for them ```
130
what are common chemical restraints for horses?
alpha 2 agonists - xylazine, detomidine, romifidine
131
what are some ways of euthanasia?
lethal injection shooting aortic severance per rectum
132
what are some examples of reasons you may be struck off?
causing serious harm to animals or public sexual offences offences involving violence or loss of human life evidence of a harmful deep-seated personality problem dishonesty (false certification)
133
what are the four main hazards for vets when certifying?
negligence criminal offence professional misconduct loss of OV status
134
what do the 10 principles of certification ensure vets are/do?
caution clarity certainty challenge
135
what are the 10 principles of certification?
vets should only certify matters which are within their own knowledge/can be ascertained to them personally/are subject to supporting evidence from an authorised vet vets should not issue a certificate that may raise conflict of interests should only sign certificates written in a language they understand vet should not certify that there has been compliance with the law of another country vets should only sign original certificates ensure the certification doesn't contain deletions or alterations certificates should be written in simple terms which are easy to understand certification should be clear and concise with a unique identifier certificates should not uses words with multiple interpretations certificates should identify the subject being certified
136
what does SOAP stand for?
Subjective Objective Assessment Plan
137
what are some things looked at on a subjective exam?
BCS, behaviour, demeanour, gait
138
when assessing the head of a small animal, what is looked for in the objective exam?
posture of head/neck symmetry discharge
139
when assessing the eye of a small animal, what is looked for in the objective exam?
abnormalities uni/bilateral size/symmetry position discharge
140
what are some common issues concerning the eyes of small animals?
``` ectropian entropian cataract protrusion ulcers ```
141
when assessing the nose of a small animal, what is looked for in the objective exam?
discharge airflow swelling, depigmentation, symmetry pain
142
when assessing the mouth of a small animal, what is looked for in the objective exam?
symmetry MM - colour, moisture, masses CRT oral trauma, neoplasia, ulcers
143
when assessing the teeth of a small animal, what is looked for in the objective exam?
tartar periodontal disease fractures
144
when assessing the ears of a small animal, what is looked for in the objective exam?
pinna - haematoma, hyperplastic change, neoplasia | discharge - purulent, ceruminous, parasites, haemorrhagic
145
when assessing the neck of a small animal, what is looked for in the objective exam?
palpate larynx palpate trachea palpate thyroid gland jugular veins
146
where are the common lymph nodes that can be palpated?
prescapular submandicular popliteal
147
when assessing the abdomen of a small animal, what is looked for in the objective exam?
organomegaly fat ascites (fluid thrill) distension (pyo/pregnancy or GD/GDV)
148
what organs can be palpated in the abdomen of dogs?
``` liver (under costal arch) stomach and spleen (left cranial) kidney (mid abdomen) small intestine - gas/fluid filled colon bladder - size, shape, turgidity ```
149
when assessing the skin of a small animal, what is looked for in the objective exam?
masses external parasites alopecia lesions - pustules, nodules, vesicles, scales, crusting
150
when assessing the respiratory system of a small animal, what is looked for in the objective exam?
respiratory rate/effort/rhythm chest auscultation tracheal auscultation
151
what is the normal RR of a cat?
20-40bpm
152
what is the normal RR of a dog?
10-20bpm
153
what is the normal HR of a dog?
70-140bpm
154
what is the normal HR of a cat?
145-200bpm
155
what rip spaces is the heart listen to in on dogs/cats?
3, 4, 5 on the left | 4/5 on the right
156
when assessing the pulse of a small animal, what is looked for in the objective exam?
quality symmetry synchronous (femoral and peripheral)
157
what is the normal temperature range for a cat?
38-39.5
158
what is the normal temperature range for a dog?
37.5-39.2
159
when rectally examining a dog, what is looked for in the objective exam?
``` pelvic canal prostate masses perineal region anal sacs ```

MOD (year 3) (45 decks)

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