SA- cardiac dz Flashcards

1
Q

what are the main4 effects of CHF

A
  1. inc HR/arrhythmia
  2. oedema and effusions
  3. remodelling and fibrosis
  4. vasoconstriction
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2
Q

what 2 things try to counter RAAS

A
  • ANP
  • BNP
    they are released due to chamber stretch and try to vasodil and diuresis
    this can be used to dx
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3
Q

what factors cause vasoconstriction in CHF

A

ANG II
endothelin
NA at a2-R
ADH

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4
Q

due to bradykinin being decreased from the action of ACE, what other vasodilating factors are blocked

A

PG

NO

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5
Q

what is the action of ANG II

A
  • decreased bradykinin
  • inc aldosterone
  • remodelling/fibrosis
  • ADH release
  • endothelin release
  • stem release of NA
  • constriction of off arteriole = inc GFR
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6
Q

what is the purpose of ACE inhib

A

to counter the effects of ANGII

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7
Q

what is the purpose of ANGII-r blockers (mainly human atm)

A

used to avoid ACE-Inhib SE in humans, but means bradykinin doesn’t increase. ALSO ANGII made by chymases too not just ACE

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8
Q

ACE inhibit don’t always block enough aldosterone, so how do you do that?

A

sprinolactone - k sparing too

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9
Q

what is the ‘la place’ relationship? (related to hypertrophy)

A

wall stress = radius x pressure / 2x wall thickness

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10
Q

what ar the 2 forms of hypertrophy

A
  • eccentric (wider lumen)

- concentric (thicker wall)

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11
Q

what is a path result of vol overload

A

mitral regurg

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12
Q

how does physiological compensatory hypertrophy become pathological

A

if dilation is more than hypertrophy can compensate for –> myocardial cells ‘slip’ and heart fails

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13
Q

do myocytes get fatter or longer in eccentric and concentric hypertrophy

A
concentric = fatter, p overload
eccentric = longer,, vol overload
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14
Q

what is the 1st problem of CHF that needs addressing wrt tx

A

the Na and water retention

LHS - pull oedema; HS = ascite, pleural effusion and hepatomegaly

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15
Q

how do you dress the na and water retention ?

A

diuretics

- 1st choice = furosemide

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16
Q

what is the aim of diuretic tx

A

lowest poss dose
start bid/tid –> sid
train O to take resting RR and then can lower dose until RR increases

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17
Q

what are the SE of furosemide that need to be monitored?

A

pre-renal azotaemia= U;Cr
hypokalaemia
short-term use only of RAAS+

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18
Q

what might the effect of GI oedema be re drugs/furosemide

A

can’t be absorbed

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19
Q

name a more potent 2nd choice diuretic

A

loop-diuretic torasemide

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20
Q

describe the principles of a sequential nephron blockade

A

using diuretics acting on diff parts on the renal tubules

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21
Q

what is indicated in pleural effusion

A

thoracocentessi

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22
Q

what must you ascertain before beginning treatment of RHS CHF ?

A

whether due to pericardial effusion first

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23
Q

what type of drugs are all the ACE inhib

A

pro-drugs

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24
Q

ACE-I are almost always indicated in cases of CHF, however when should they not be given and why

A

in cases of severe hypotension, where furosemide is given in high doses OR if there is aortic stenosis

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25
what are the SE of ACE-I
hypotension renal impairment hyperkalaemia anorexia, d+. v+
26
how can pulmonary oedema be treated initially
with vasodilation - use furosemide IV - topical nitroglycerine (percutol) or as a patch
27
why would arteriodilators be useful>
to reduce systemic p, wo reducing perfusion. unloads failing heart
28
name some arteriodil drugs
pimobendan amlodipine hydrazine ACE-I
29
how does pimobendan work (vetmedin)
Ca++ sensitiser - so contractility increases wo any more Ca++ also inhibits PDE therefore = vasodil and +ve inotrope
30
why is it good that pimobendan doest inc intracellular Ca++
as it induces arrhythmias (makes it better than other PDE-I)
31
high sympathetic drive is the reason for tachycardia - how can this be reduced
- indirectly! b-blocker r blockade (digoxin)
32
why would b-blockers be VERY CI in the CHF patients
if not controlled - as sympathetic drive is crucial to maintaining the heart ! wo it, it will arrest - so get other bits sorted before you add bblockers
33
what is the effects of digoxin (B-blocker)
inc vagal tone - @ low end of dose rate - direct stem of vagal centre in CNS - sensitises baro-R - inc cardiac pacemaker response to ACh neg chronotrope, pos inotrope
34
digoxin is toxic and with a narrow therapeutic index - what signs do you need to look for>
- XS borborygmi - depression - anorexia - V+D - arrhythmias
35
what factors of a dog will predisp it to digoxin toxicity>
- thin - no skeltal m to bind - obese (doesn't go into the fat) - dose to Body SA - hypothyroid - impaired Renal fat - dobermann - hypoxia/acidosis/hypokalaemia - any other Ca++ channel blockers
36
how do you treat digoxin toxicity?
stop! ventricular arryth can be helped with lidocaine act charcoal 'digibind'
37
what it the gold std tx for CHF, MVD or DCM?
- furosemide - ACE-I (benazepril) - pimobendan - spironolactone
38
how fast does conduct thru the AVN?
= | 0.1m/s
39
how fast does it travel the perking fibres
4m/s
40
is high vagal tone normal in dogs, | is it normal in cats
Y - hence why sinus arrhythmia occurs at normal/slower HR | N (cats) - look for causes e.g. asthma, rest compromise
41
why is it okay for atrial depol position to vary
because the SA N is large in the dog - so the exact area will change
42
when is sinus arrest okay
sleeping | brachycephalic breeds - extreme sinus arrhythmia
43
what is sick sinus syndrome
arrhythmias due to SAN not working 100% normally
44
how do VPCs appear on ecg
wide, bizarre QRS, with T wave in pop direction
45
what is the r-on-t phenomenon
when the T wave superimposes itself on the preceding R wave. can lead to V fibr
46
why is ventricular tacky so imps to tx -
to prev ventricular fibrillation!
47
what systemic dz states could cause VPC
- GDV - splenic lesions - sepsis - pancreatitis - pyo
48
what are ventricular escape complexes (NB - never suppress these!)
when the supraventricular rhythm is slow than word normally be the case. QRS are really wide (slow)
49
describe the different types of AV block
1st - PR interval is too long (>0.13s) 2nd - some P waves are not followed by QRS. can be normal in horse at rest 3rd - complete, no associ of P waves with QRS
50
what path deputation in the heart leads to atrial fibrill
atrial stretch
51
how does a supra ventricular premature complex appear on ecg?
premature atrial but ectopic wave. can include junctional complexes.
52
in an emergency, how can supreventrivcular tachycardias be treated (clue no drugs)
ocular pressure | carotid sinus massage
53
in large breed dog, what is the maximum mV that the R-wave should read on lead II?
3mV | OR it is suggestive of L vent hypertrophy
54
in large breed dog what is the maximum time it should take the QRS complex
0.06s - OR suggests V hypertrophy
55
if th P wave duration is more than 0.04s then what does it sugges
P mitrale = LA enlargement
56
what does a tall P wave (p pulmonate) suggest
RA enlargement
57
where do you place the ECG leads on a horse
``` RA = Jug furrow LA = left apex RH = earth/thoracic inlet ```
58
what is Left bundle branch block and how does it appear
cell-to-cell only transmission of depol in LV. | normal P:QRS; tall/wide (>0.08s) QRS, T waves opp direction,
59
what is the difference in right bundle brach block and left
the side indicated by -'ve QRS deep/wide S waves
60
what dz state is left anterior fascicular block common (cats)
HCM in cats
61
what is the significance of the QT interval
tot time for Ventricular depol AND repol.
62
is the T wave usually important?
no - varies, but should be stable per dog. spikes t wave indicate hypERkalamia
63
what does the ST interval show
the period bw depol and repol
64
what is a long-axis view
base-apex
65
what is a RPS long axis view
Right parasternal | the 'home view'
66
conventionally what structures are on the RHS
basilar structures
67
what is fractional shortening?
calculating the systolic function = difference in lumen diameter at diastoles and systole / diastole x 100 - should be >25%
68
when is the fractional shortening estimate of systolid fct not reliable
if mitral regurg wall motion abn RHS heart dz from P overload
69
what is the normal ejection fraction
>50%
70
what is the index of sphericity, and why is it useful
assess how round LV is --> DCM | >1.7
71
what is2D/B-mode ECG
normal / brightness mode
72
what is M-mode ECG
an add-on which means can see time-mode. | can see the lumenal contractions more quantitatively
73
name the diff doppler ECGs
spectral, colour flow and tissue doppler
74
which form of doppler estimates velocity
spectral - but MUST be parellel to flow or will underestimate
75
what are the diff bw pulse wave and continual wave spectral dopplers
PW - spatially specific, just a small sample, cant penetrate deeply CW - samples from many RBC, peak velocity recorded and deeper range
76
if the spectral doppler is 'filled' what does it suggest
turbulent flow
77
what colours on colour doppler mean towrds and away from transducer
BART | blue = away; red = towards
78
why would you do a 'sb-costal' doppler scan
for oartic outflow assessment
79
what is the normal aortic velocity
1.7m/s
80
what is the modified bernouilli eq?
Pressure gradient = 4v^2
81
what are the expected pressure gradients for aortic and pulmonary stenosis
``` 0-40mmHg = mild >80mmHg = severe ```
82
what does the E and A wave indicate on an ECG
E - early v filling | A - atrial contraction
83
DCM
dilated heart chambers, pos w stenosis
84
Myxomatous degenerative valvular dz and MV regurg
leaflets, ruptured choda tendinae, colour doppler = regurg
85
HCM (cats)
vVV concentric walls and thin lumen (partic LV)
86
Pericardial effusions
sitting in a sac of fluid - obvious