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VSCI300 MOD > Haematology > Flashcards

Haematology Flashcards

1
Q

what does 2,3-DPG do?

A

helps O2 release from Hb

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2
Q

what are the signs of chronic anaemia

A

inc 2,3 DPG
inc EPO
lethargic

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3
Q

what is the normal PCV for dogs

A

35-40%

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4
Q

what is the normal PCV for cats

A

25-30%

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5
Q

how long after onset can regenerative anemia be confirmed

A 
3-4d = see juveniles RBCS
5-7d = reticulocytes
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6
Q

what compensatory actions are undertaken following acute haem+?

A

splenic contraction
inc PCV
1d later the flud rtns and PCV drops
if v extreme then hypovol shock immediatley

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7
Q

name some causes of chronic blood loss

A 
chronic inflammation
fe deficiency - hypochromic, microcytic RBCs
GI haem+
tumours
parasites
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8
Q

treatment of anaemia

A

ID cause (FeSulfate, dietary, antacids, parasite)
transfusion
congenital - sx

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9
Q

desc basics of IMHA

A

can be 1ry or 2ry to neoplasia
production of Ab against own RBCs
complement involvement

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10
Q

how do you dx IMHA

A

smear shows - spherocytes and cell ghosts
plasma = red from free Hb
auto-agglutination - coombes (agglut even with saline on top, due to auto-Ab)

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11
Q

desc basics of non-immune mediated haemolysis

A

oxidative damage
intraRBC parasites, bacteria and viruses
physical RBC damage

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12
Q

desc extravascular haemolysis

A

RBC destroyed in liver or spleen.
Fe, aa’s and bilirubin are produced.
bilirubin conjugated in liver + excreted in bile
if XS = bilirubinuria and icterus

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13
Q

descr intravasculat haemolysis

A

RBC destroyed in vessels
Free Hb binds to haptoglobin –> bilirubin in liver
if XS fHb and not enough haptoglobin
= haemoglobinuria

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14
Q

what does IMHA predispose the patient to?

A

hypercoagulability

–> DIC

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15
Q

name 4 haemic parasites

A
  1. babesia
  2. mycoplasma haemofelis = lifelong inf, pred
  3. anaplasma
  4. erlichia
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16
Q

how do you tx IMHA

A 
csteroid = prednisalone
cytotoxic drugs = azathioprine
immunosuppressive = ciclosporin - not myelosuppressive specifically !
splenectomy
supportive therapy
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17
Q

when is O2 therapy actually useful

A

pulm embolism

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18
Q

what supportive therapy is spec to hypercoag dz?

A

aspirin

heparin

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19
Q

what is neonatal isoerythrolysis?

A

via colostrum the foal get Ab against its own RBCs - inc intravascular haemolysis

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20
Q

what is microhaemangipathic haemolytic anaemia

A

mechanical damage when pass through fibrin clots (nets in DIC, haemangiosarcoma blockages or Glom. Nephritis)
removed from circ

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21
Q

what are schistocytes?

A

fragm RBCs

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22
Q

what are acanthocytes

A

rounded projections - splenic or hepatic damage

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23
Q

what are heinz-body formations?

A

pale inclusion on surface, stains with NMB. its an aggreg of denatured Hb
intra and extravasc haemolysis

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24
Q

what are howell jolly bodies?

A

nuclear remnant

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25
Q

what are produced by [O] of the RBC membrane

A

eccentrocytes (appear to be bursting)

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26
Q

non-regen anaemia can be caused by BM disease. what can case BM dz?

A

drusg (NSAIDs)
oestrogens = exogenous (missaliance), endogenous (sertoli cell tumour)
low no of RBCs
myelofibrosis

27
Q

what an cause low EPO

A

chronic anaemia - change ‘set point’
renal dz
reduced reaction to EPO

28
Q

what 2 feline retroviruses can cause aneamia?

A

FIV - RBC dysplasia

FeLV - non-regen, RBC aplasia, BM dysplasia

29
Q

define polycytaemia?

A

inc in Hb, PCV and RBCC

30
Q

relative polycytaemia =

A

plasma vol decreased (DH, vol loss, hyperthermia, splenic contraction)

31
Q

absolute polycytaemia =

A

1ry = XS BM, tumours
2ry = XS EPO
- approp if GENERALISED hypoxia
treat by removing XS blood

32
Q

what part of the immune system are PMN and monocytes part of?

A

innate

33
Q

what part of the immune system are l-cytes part of?

A

adaptive

34
Q

what part of the immune system are eosinophiles and basophils part of?

A

parasites/allergy defence mechanisms

35
Q

how long is PMN maturation process?

A

7d

36
Q

how often are PMN replaced in the blood

A

2.5x every day

37
Q

how long is blood transit time

A

6hrs

38
Q

what is a normal concentration of PMN?

A

0.3 x 10^9/L

39
Q

what do PMN look like with toxic changes?

A

more basophillic. granules and vacuoles

40
Q

what is the excitation response?

A

adrenaline production
splenic contraction (erythrocytosis)
lymphocytosis
neutrophilia

41
Q

what is the stress response?

A

chronic or XS csteroids
lymphopenia (lcyte apoptosis is causes by csteroids)
neutrophilia (steroids prevent margination, so get old in blood stream)

42
Q

if their is BM injury what leukocytic changes can be seen

A

neutropenia

leukaemia

43
Q

what is myelodysplasia?

A

fibrosis
neoplasia
abnormal maturation

44
Q

when is monocytosis seen

A

chronic inflam

45
Q

when is lymphocytosis seen

A

adrenaline release (C).

46
Q

when is lymphopenia seen

A

acute (viral) inflam

47
Q

when is left shift seen

A

acute inflam

48
Q

when are transfusion in SA indicated?

A

when lost 20% blood volume

49
Q

how are blood groups defined

A

by the Ab on the surface of their RBCs

50
Q

what are the 2 main blood groups (dogs)

A

CEA
&
DEA

51
Q

which CEA group is most common

A

1.1

52
Q

what are greyhounds blood group usually

A

CEA 1.1 negative

53
Q

how long will compatible blood transfusion last before destroyed

A

21d

54
Q

what are the main blood donor criteria

A 
never abroad
no young
28kg (1 unit); cat >4kg (50ml)
fully vaccinated (more than 2wks ago)
FIV, FeLV and m. haemofelis negative (C)
cats must be typed
55
Q

what anticoag is needed in the blood bag?

A

CPDA-1 (citrate phosphate dextrose adenine)

56
Q

what is nec to give to the donor after?.. tip not a biscuit

A

2 x volume of crystalloids

57
Q

what are the cat blood types

A

A - most common
B - BSH
AB - v rare

58
Q

which cat blood type is it most imperitive that you give the correct transfusion?

A

BB - mega reaction to A-blood ab,

less reaction if give B blood to A cats

59
Q

why can AB cats get any type of blood if its washed

A

dont really have any Ab normally

give washed then doesnt matter

60
Q

what must you prime the cannular with?

A

anticoag

61
Q

how long can whole blood & packed RBCs be stored?

A

4wks in fridge

62
Q

what are the transfusion reactions?

A 
haemolysis
circulatry overload
pyrexia
hypocalcaemia
v+
infection (if contaminated)
63
Q

why might hypocalcaemia be caused from a transfusion?

A

the blood was anticoag with citrate.
the body needs to metabolise citrate and release the Ca++
if hepatic dysfunction = hypocal

VSCI300 MOD (32 decks)

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