Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

VSCI300 MOD > Haematology > Flashcards

Haematology Flashcards

1
Q

what does 2,3-DPG do?

A

helps O2 release from Hb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the signs of chronic anaemia

A

inc 2,3 DPG
inc EPO
lethargic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the normal PCV for dogs

A

35-40%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the normal PCV for cats

A

25-30%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

how long after onset can regenerative anemia be confirmed

A 
3-4d = see juveniles RBCS
5-7d = reticulocytes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what compensatory actions are undertaken following acute haem+?

A

splenic contraction
inc PCV
1d later the flud rtns and PCV drops
if v extreme then hypovol shock immediatley

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

name some causes of chronic blood loss

A 
chronic inflammation
fe deficiency - hypochromic, microcytic RBCs
GI haem+
tumours
parasites
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

treatment of anaemia

A

ID cause (FeSulfate, dietary, antacids, parasite)
transfusion
congenital - sx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

desc basics of IMHA

A

can be 1ry or 2ry to neoplasia
production of Ab against own RBCs
complement involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

how do you dx IMHA

A

smear shows - spherocytes and cell ghosts
plasma = red from free Hb
auto-agglutination - coombes (agglut even with saline on top, due to auto-Ab)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

desc basics of non-immune mediated haemolysis

A

oxidative damage
intraRBC parasites, bacteria and viruses
physical RBC damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

desc extravascular haemolysis

A

RBC destroyed in liver or spleen.
Fe, aa’s and bilirubin are produced.
bilirubin conjugated in liver + excreted in bile
if XS = bilirubinuria and icterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

descr intravasculat haemolysis

A

RBC destroyed in vessels
Free Hb binds to haptoglobin –> bilirubin in liver
if XS fHb and not enough haptoglobin
= haemoglobinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what does IMHA predispose the patient to?

A

hypercoagulability

–> DIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

name 4 haemic parasites

A
  1. babesia
  2. mycoplasma haemofelis = lifelong inf, pred
  3. anaplasma
  4. erlichia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how do you tx IMHA

A 
csteroid = prednisalone
cytotoxic drugs = azathioprine
immunosuppressive = ciclosporin - not myelosuppressive specifically !
splenectomy
supportive therapy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

when is O2 therapy actually useful

A

pulm embolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what supportive therapy is spec to hypercoag dz?

A

aspirin

heparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is neonatal isoerythrolysis?

A

via colostrum the foal get Ab against its own RBCs - inc intravascular haemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is microhaemangipathic haemolytic anaemia

A

mechanical damage when pass through fibrin clots (nets in DIC, haemangiosarcoma blockages or Glom. Nephritis)
removed from circ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are schistocytes?

A

fragm RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are acanthocytes

A

rounded projections - splenic or hepatic damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what are heinz-body formations?

A

pale inclusion on surface, stains with NMB. its an aggreg of denatured Hb
intra and extravasc haemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are howell jolly bodies?

A

nuclear remnant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what are produced by [O] of the RBC membrane
eccentrocytes (appear to be bursting)
26
non-regen anaemia can be caused by BM disease. what can case BM dz?
drusg (NSAIDs) oestrogens = exogenous (missaliance), endogenous (sertoli cell tumour) low no of RBCs myelofibrosis
27
what an cause low EPO
chronic anaemia - change 'set point' renal dz reduced reaction to EPO
28
what 2 feline retroviruses can cause aneamia?
FIV - RBC dysplasia | FeLV - non-regen, RBC aplasia, BM dysplasia
29
define polycytaemia?
inc in Hb, PCV and RBCC
30
relative polycytaemia =
plasma vol decreased (DH, vol loss, hyperthermia, splenic contraction)
31
absolute polycytaemia =
1ry = XS BM, tumours 2ry = XS EPO - approp if GENERALISED hypoxia treat by removing XS blood
32
what part of the immune system are PMN and monocytes part of?
innate
33
what part of the immune system are l-cytes part of?
adaptive
34
what part of the immune system are eosinophiles and basophils part of?
parasites/allergy defence mechanisms
35
how long is PMN maturation process?
7d
36
how often are PMN replaced in the blood
2.5x every day
37
how long is blood transit time
6hrs
38
what is a normal concentration of PMN?
0.3 x 10^9/L
39
what do PMN look like with toxic changes?
more basophillic. granules and vacuoles
40
what is the excitation response?
adrenaline production splenic contraction (erythrocytosis) lymphocytosis neutrophilia
41
what is the stress response?
chronic or XS csteroids lymphopenia (lcyte apoptosis is causes by csteroids) neutrophilia (steroids prevent margination, so get old in blood stream)
42
if their is BM injury what leukocytic changes can be seen
neutropenia | leukaemia
43
what is myelodysplasia?
fibrosis neoplasia abnormal maturation
44
when is monocytosis seen
chronic inflam
45
when is lymphocytosis seen
adrenaline release (C).
46
when is lymphopenia seen
acute (viral) inflam
47
when is left shift seen
acute inflam
48
when are transfusion in SA indicated?
when lost 20% blood volume
49
how are blood groups defined
by the Ab on the surface of their RBCs
50
what are the 2 main blood groups (dogs)
CEA & DEA
51
which CEA group is most common
1.1
52
what are greyhounds blood group usually
CEA 1.1 negative
53
how long will compatible blood transfusion last before destroyed
21d
54
what are the main blood donor criteria
``` never abroad no young 28kg (1 unit); cat >4kg (50ml) fully vaccinated (more than 2wks ago) FIV, FeLV and m. haemofelis negative (C) cats must be typed ```
55
what anticoag is needed in the blood bag?
CPDA-1 (citrate phosphate dextrose adenine)
56
what is nec to give to the donor after?.. tip not a biscuit
2 x volume of crystalloids
57
what are the cat blood types
A - most common B - BSH AB - v rare
58
which cat blood type is it most imperitive that you give the correct transfusion?
BB - mega reaction to A-blood ab, | less reaction if give B blood to A cats
59
why can AB cats get any type of blood if its washed
dont really have any Ab normally | give washed then doesnt matter
60
what must you prime the cannular with?
anticoag
61
how long can whole blood & packed RBCs be stored?
4wks in fridge
62
what are the transfusion reactions?
``` haemolysis circulatry overload pyrexia hypocalcaemia v+ infection (if contaminated) ```
63
why might hypocalcaemia be caused from a transfusion?
the blood was anticoag with citrate. the body needs to metabolise citrate and release the Ca++ if hepatic dysfunction = hypocal

VSCI300 MOD (32 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions