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IMMUNE 1 LEC > PARASITIC AND FUNGAL INFECTIONS > Flashcards

PARASITIC AND FUNGAL INFECTIONS Flashcards

1
Q

When a parasite enters a host, there are several possible results.
1. First, there may be no infection at all, because the host’s [?] prevents the parasite from establishing an infection.
2. The parasite may invade the host, become established, and then be killed and eliminated by [?]
3. The parasite may overwhelm and [?] the host
4. Long-lasting infection in which the host begins to [?] the parasite but cannot remove it completely
5. Host mounts a response that [?] not only the parasite but also host tissues.

A

innate immunity

host defense mechanisms

kill

eliminate

attacks

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2
Q

If a parasite becomes sequestered within host cells, the parasite is protected. Example:

A

tissue protozoans

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3
Q

Some parasites disguise themselves by acquiring host antigens. Example:

A

Schistosomes

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4
Q

Antigenic variation. Example:

A

African trypanosomes

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5
Q

Antigen shed from the parasite. Example:

A

Entamoeba histolytica

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6
Q

Molecular mimicry. Example:

A

Chaga’s disease

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7
Q

is responsible for the production of cytokines and chemokines, which enhance the cytotoxic function of effector cells, increase the numbers of immune cells, and attract immune cells to the site of infection

A

Cellular immunity

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8
Q

The immunoglobulin response to parasites includes formation of [?].

A

IgM, IgG, IgA, and IgE antibodies

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9
Q

[?] can damage protozoa, neutralize parasites by blocking attachment to the host cell, prevent the spread of the parasite, promote complement lysis, and enhance phagocytosis and destruction through antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxity.

A

Specific antibody

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10
Q

Eosinophil-specific granules contain several different proteins:

A

major basic protein, eosinophil cationic protein, eosinophil peroxidase, and eosinophil-derived neurotoxin

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11
Q

These cells are capable of phagocytosis but are much less efficient than neutrophils because of the smaller numbers of

A

major basic protein, eosinophil cationic protein, eosinophil peroxidase, and eosinophil-derived neurotoxin.

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12
Q

Their most important role is neutralizing basophil and mast cell products and killing certain parasites

A

major basic protein, eosinophil cationic protein, eosinophil peroxidase, and eosinophil-derived neurotoxin.

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13
Q

[?], a bloodborne parasite, is transmitted exclusively through

A

Malaria

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14
Q

Malaria Specie:

A

Anopheles minimus flavirostris (female mosquitos)

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15
Q

Transmission is more intense in areas in which the mosquito lifespan is longer, and where it prefers to bite [?] rather than other animals. This allows the parasite to have time to complete its development inside the mosquito.

A

humans

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16
Q

Four types of human malaria

A

Plasmodium falciparum
Plasmodium vivax
Plasmodium malariae
Plasmodium ovale

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17
Q
  • Most common
A

Plasmodium falciparum
Plasmodium vivax

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18
Q
  • Most deadly
A

Plasmodium falciparum

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19
Q

Monkey malaria

A

Plasmodium knowlesi

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20
Q

remains the “gold standard” for laboratory confirmation of malaria.

A

Microscopic examination

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21
Q

Malaria antibody detection is performed using the

A

indirect fluorescent antibody (IFA) test.

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22
Q

The can be used to determine if a patient has been infected with Plasmodium.

A

IFA

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23
Q

Because of the time required for development of antibody and also the persistence of antibodies, [?] is not practical for routine diagnosis of acute malaria.

A

serologic testing

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24
Q

Rapid Test Kits

A

Pan Lactate Dehydrogenase
Histidine Rich Protein 2
Aldolase

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25
Q

: for all Plasmodium specie

A

Pan Lactate Dehydrogenase

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26
Q

: specific for Plasmodium falciparum

A

Histidine Rich Protein 2

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27
Q

: specific for Plasmodium falciparum and Plasmodium vivax

A

Aldolase

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28
Q

Incorporated w/ enzymes

A

Rapid Test Kits

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29
Q

are common and harmless inhabitants of skin and mucous membranes under normal conditions (e.g., Candida albicans).

A

Fungi

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30
Q

In immunocompromised hosts, [?] become opportunistic agents that take advantage of the host’s weakened resistance.

A

Candida spp. and other fungi

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31
Q

Manifestations of fungal disease may range from unnoticed respiratory episodes to rapid, fatal dissemination of a violent [?].

A

hypersensitivity reaction

32
Q

Survival mechanisms of fungi that successfully invade the body are similar to bacterial characteristics and include the following:

A
  1. presence of an antiphagocytic capsule
  2. resistance to digestion within macrophages
  3. destruction of phagocytes (e.g., neutrophils).
33
Q

CANDIDIASIS Causative agent

A

Candida albicans

34
Q

• It is the most common cause of all serious fungal diseases

A

Candida albicans

35
Q

CANDIDIASIS Diagnosis

A
  1. Immunodiffusion and Counterimmunoelectrophoresis tests
  2. Latex Agglutination
  3. Enzyme Immunoassay
  4. Reverse passive agglutination test
36
Q

A titer of 1:4 suggests an

A

early infection, colonization, or a nonspecific reaction.

37
Q

A titer of 1:8 or greater,

A

conversion from a negative to a positive test

38
Q

a fourfold increase in titer is presumptive evidence of

A

invasive infection.

39
Q

A fourfold decrease in titer may indicate

A

successful therapy

40
Q

COCCIDIOMYCOSIS Causative agent

A

Coccidiodes immitis

41
Q

COCCIDIOMYCOSIS Diagnosis

A
  1. Complement fixation test
  2. Tube precipitation Test
  3. Immunodiffusion
  4. Latex agglutination
  5. EIA
42
Q
  • most widely used quantitative serodiagnostic method
A

Complement fixation test

43
Q
  • presumptive evidence of an early infection and should be repeated in 3 to 4 weeks.
A

1:2 to 1:4

44
Q
  • indicative of an active infection
A

1:16

45
Q
  • highly specific with very few cross-reactions
A

Tube precipitation Test

46
Q

more preferred; confirmatory test

A

Tube precipitation Test

47
Q
  • highly specific when reference antisera are used
A

Immunodiffusion

48
Q

Long-lasting infection in which the host begins to eliminate the parasite but cannot remove it completely

Ex. Infection to [?] (nematode: roundworm)

A

Ascaris lumbricoides

49
Q

invade macrophages and liver cells, and temporarily hidden from the immune system

A

tissue protozoans

50
Q

most romantic parasite

A

Schistosomes

51
Q

blood flukes

A

Schistosomes

52
Q

survives in an unprotected blood vessel

A

Schistosomes

53
Q

the invading form (Schistosomula) acquires RBC Ags that determines the blood group

A

Schistosomes

54
Q

evade the immune response by periodically changing their
surface Ags

A

African trypanosomes

55
Q

a variant surface glycoprotein will produce unlimited
group of variable Ag type

A

African trypanosomes

56
Q

Most common cause of amoebiasis

A

Entamoeba histolytica

57
Q

shed Ab attaches to Ag, but not to the parasite

A

Entamoeba histolytica

58
Q

Chaga’s disease causative agent:

A

Trypanosoma cruzi

59
Q

may result from parasitic Ag similar to those that are
normally present in the host tissue

A

Chaga’s disease

60
Q

may result from parasitic Ag similar to those that are
normally present in the host tissue

A

Chaga’s disease

61
Q

may lead to autoimmune problems (cardiac and intestinal
consequences)

A

Chaga’s disease

62
Q

– most effective cell in killing parasites

A

Eosinophil

63
Q

– most effective immunoglobulin; it attaches to eosinophils to aid in the release of granules for killing parasites

A

IgE

64
Q

– attaches the part of the Ab to the surface of eosinophils

A

Fc portion

65
Q

TOXOPLASMOSIS Etiologic agent

A

Toxoplasma gondii

66
Q

a ubiquitous protozoan parasite that infects.humans by ingestion of infective cysts (oocysts)

A

Toxoplasma gondii

67
Q

Toxoplasma gondii Transmission

A
  1. hand-to-mouth contact from contaminated soil or cat litter
  2. Ingesting gocysts in raw or partially cooked pork, mutton, or beef
  3. blood transfusions or organ transplantation
68
Q

trigger phagocytosis, which ultimately destroys the organism.

A

• Antibody-coated Toxoplasma organisms

69
Q
  1. fourfold increase in the titer of IgG, or high levels of IgM and IgG antibodies are considered diagnostic
A
70
Q
  1. Enzyme immunoassays (EIA) for IgM, IgG, or IgA
A
71
Q
  1. Indirect Fluorescent Antibody (IFA) assays for IgG - congenital toxoplasmosis
A
72
Q
  1. PCR - method of choice to detect T. gondii DNA in CSF
A
73
Q

Hematologic test

A

Microscopy

74
Q

o Dipped in distilled water: to dehemoglobinize

A

Thick Smear

75
Q

o Used for malaria survey (presence or absence of malaria)

A

Thick Smear

76
Q

o stained w/ Giemsa (Romanowsky stain)

A

Thin Smear

77
Q

o Used for Plasmodium specie identification

A

Thin Smear

IMMUNE 1 LEC (28 decks)

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