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Emergency Medical Technician > Orthopaedic Injuries > Flashcards

Orthopaedic Injuries Flashcards

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Royal College: Emergency Medicine flashcards USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

Three types of muscle

A
  1. Skeletal
  2. Smooth
  3. Striated
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2
Q

Skeletal muscle is also called ___

A

Striated muscle or voluntary muscle

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3
Q

Skeletal muscle is attached to the bone by ___

A

Tendons

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4
Q

Fibrous tissue

A

Fascia

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5
Q

Tendons are extensions of the ___

A

Fascia

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6
Q

Surrounds and supports the muscles and neurovascular structures

A

Fascia

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7
Q

Smooth muscle is also called ___

A

Involuntary muscle

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8
Q

Number of bones

A

206

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9
Q

The bones in the skeleton produce ___ in the ___ and serve as a reservoir for ___

A
  1. Blood cells
  2. Bone marrow
  3. Important minerals and electrolytes
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10
Q

Acts as a strut to hold the shoulder up

A

Clavicle

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11
Q

The pectoral girdle consists of ___

A

Two scapulae and two clavicles

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12
Q

Clavicle attachment points

A
  1. By ligaments to the sternum
  2. The acromion process
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13
Q

The upper extremity joins the shoulder girdle at the ___

A

Glenohumeral joint

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14
Q

Because the radius and ulna are ___, when one is broken, the other is often broken as well

A

Connected by stiff ligaments at both ends

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15
Q

Vulnerable to fracture when a person falls on an outstretched hand

A

Carpals

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16
Q

Phalanges are apt to be injured by a ___

A

Crush injury

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17
Q

Innominate bone

A

Hip

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18
Q

Top of the femur

A

Femoral head

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19
Q

Hip socket

A

Acetabulum

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20
Q

Long tubular portion of the femur

A

Shaft (diaphysis)

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21
Q

Common site for femur fractures

A

Femoral neck

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22
Q

Generally referred to as hip fractures

A

Femoral neck fractures

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23
Q

The lateral and medial bony protuberances below the femoral neck and above the shaft of the femur

A

Greater trochanter and lesser trochanter

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24
Q

Shinbone

A

Tibia

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25
Q

Supports the major weight bearing surfaces of the knee and ankle

A

Tibia

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26
Q

The tibia connects to the patella via the ___ and runs down the ___

A
  1. Patellar tendon just below the knee joint
  2. the front of the lower leg
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27
Q

Runs along the lateral side of the tibia and slightly posterior to it

A

Fibula

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28
Q

An important anchor for ligaments surrounding the knee joint

A

Fibula

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29
Q

Forms the lateral side of the ankle joint

A

Fibula

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30
Q

The calcaneus is subject to injury from ___

A

Axial loading

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31
Q

Joints are held together in a ___

A

Capsule, supported by ligaments

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32
Q

Joints are bathed and lubricated by ___

A

Synovial fluid

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33
Q

The area of potentially damaged soft tissue, adjacent nerves, and blood vessels surrounding an injury to a bone or a joint

A

Zone of injury

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34
Q

Forces that can be applied to fracture or dislocate a bone

A
  1. Direct blows
  2. Indirect forces
  3. Twisting forces
  4. High-energy injuries
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35
Q

When caring for a patient who has fallen, immediately ___

A

ID the point of contact and the MOI

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36
Q

Common location for twisting injuries

A
  1. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
  2. Medial cruciate ligament (MCL)
    (in the knee)
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37
Q

A slight force can easily fracture a bone that is weakened by a ___

A

Tumor, infection, or osteoporosis

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38
Q

Broken bone

A

Fracture

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39
Q

Fracture classifications

A

Open and closed

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40
Q

Complications of open fractures

A

Increased blood loss and infection

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41
Q

Fractures are also described by whether ___

A

The move is moved from its normal position

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42
Q

A simple crack of the bone that may be difficult to distinguish from a sprain or simple contusion

A

Nondisplaced fracture

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43
Q

Nondisplaced fracture is also called ___

A

Hairline fracture

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44
Q

Required to diagnose a nondisplaced fracture

A

Radiographic examination

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45
Q

Produces actual deformity , or distortion, of the limb by shortening, rotating, or angulating it

A

Displaced fracture

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46
Q

Often the deformity can be associated with ___

A

Crepitus

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47
Q

Specific types of fractures

A
  1. Comminuted
  2. Epiphyseal
  3. Greenstick
  4. Incomplete
  5. Oblique
  6. Pathologic
  7. Spiral
  8. Transverse
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48
Q

A fracture in which the bone is broken into more than two fragments

A

Comminuted

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49
Q

A fracture that occurs in a growth section of a child’s bone and may result in growth abnormalities

A

Epiphyseal

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50
Q

An incomplete fracture that passes only partway through the shaft of a bone but may still cause substantial angulation; occurs in children

A

Greenstick

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51
Q

A fracture that does not run completely through the bone; a nondisplaced partial crack

A

Incomplete

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52
Q

A fracture in which the bone is broken at an angle across the bone. Usually the result of a sharp, angled blow to the bone

A

Oblique

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53
Q

A fracture of weakened or diseased bone, seen in patients with osteoporosis, infection, or cancer. Produced by minimal force

A

Pathologic

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54
Q

A fracture caused by a twisting or spinning force, causing a long, spiral-shaped break in the bone. Sometimes the result of abuse in young children

A

Spiral

55
Q

A fracture that occurs straight across the bone. Usually the result of a direct and relatively high-energy blow

A

Transverse

56
Q

The most reliable indicator of an underlying fracture

A

Point tenderness on palpation in the zone of injury

57
Q

Tenderness that is sharply localized at the site of the injury, found by gently palpating along the bone with the tip of one finger

A

Point tenderness

58
Q

Rapid swelling usually indicates ___ and is typically followed by ___

A
  1. Bleeding from a fracture
  2. Substantial pain
59
Q

Fractures are almost always associated with ___

A

Ecchymosis of the surrounding soft tissues

60
Q

Discoloration

A

Ecchymosis

61
Q

Ecchymosis color progression

A
  1. Redness
  2. Blue, purple, and black
  3. Yellow and green
62
Q

Grating or grinding sensations as bone ends grind together

A

Crepitus

63
Q

Any motion at a point in the limb where there is no joint

A

False motion

64
Q

False motion is also called ___

A

Free movement

65
Q

False motion is an indication of ___

A

A fracture

66
Q

The presence of a locked joint should alert you to the possibility of ___

A

An underlying fracture or cartilage injury

67
Q

A disruption of a joint in which the bone ends are no longer in contact

A

Dislocation

68
Q

A combination injury at the joint, in which the joint is dislocated and there is a fracture of one of the end of one or more of the bones

A

Fracture-dislocation

69
Q

A joint returning to is normal position

A

Reduce

70
Q

A dislocated joint may sometimes spontaneously ___

A

Reduce

71
Q

Signs and symptoms of a dislocated joint

A
  1. Marked deformity
  2. Swelling
  3. Pain that is aggravated by any attempt at movement
  4. Tenderness on palpation
  5. Loss of normal joint motion
  6. Numbness or impaired circulation to the limb or digit
72
Q

Occurs when a joint is twisted or stretched beyond its normal range

A

Sprain

73
Q

A sprain can be thought of as a ___

A

Partial dislocation

74
Q

Sprains can range from mild to severe depending on the ___

A

Amount of damage done to the supporting ligaments

75
Q

In contrast with fractures and dislocations, sprains usually do not involve ___

A

Deformity

76
Q

Signs and symptoms of a sprain

A
  1. Patient is unwilling to use the limb
  2. Swelling and ecchymosis are present at the injured joint as a result of torn blood vessels
  3. Pain prevents the patient from moving or using the limb normally
  4. Instability of the joint is indicated by increased motion
77
Q

In determining if it is a sprain or a fracture, the approach should always be to ___

A

Determine the MOI

78
Q

Stretching or tearing of the muscle and/or tendon, causing pain, swelling, and bruising of the soft tissues in the area

A

Strain

79
Q

A strain is also called a ___

A

Pulled muscle

80
Q

A strain, unlike with a sprain, ___

A

No ligament or joint damage typically occurs

81
Q

No deformity is present and only minor swelling is noted. The patient noted a “snap”

A

Strain

82
Q

An injury in which an extremity is completely severed from the body

A

Amputation

83
Q

Pregnant women who sustain pelvic fractures tend to have higher ___

A

Mortality rates

84
Q

Minor injuries

A
  1. Minor sprains
  2. Fractures or dislocation of digits
85
Q

Moderate injuries

A
  1. Open fractures of digits
  2. Nondisplaced lone bone fractures
  3. Nondisplaced pelvic fractures
  4. Major sprains of a major joint
86
Q

Serious injuries

A
  1. Displaced long bone fractures
  2. Multiple hand and foot fractures
  3. Open long bone fractures
  4. Displaced pelvic fractures
  5. Dislocations of major joint
  6. Multiple digit amputations
  7. Laceration of major nerves or blood vessels
87
Q

Severe, life-threatening injuries (survival is probable)

A
  1. Multiple closed fractures
  2. Limb amputations
  3. Bilateral femur fractures
88
Q

Critical injuries (survival is uncertain)

A
  1. Multiple open fractures of the limbs
  2. Suspected pelvic fractures with hemodynamic instability
89
Q

Evaluation of an injured limb should include ___

A

The 6 Ps of musculoskeletal assessment

90
Q

The 6 Ps of musculoskeletal assessment

A
  1. Pain
  2. Paralysis
  3. Paresthesia
  4. Pulselessness
  5. Pallor
  6. Pressure
91
Q

Paresthesisa

A

Tingling or numbness

92
Q

For fractures, splint ___

A

The joint above and below the injury

93
Q

Patients with lower extremity injuries should lie ___

A

Supine with the affected limb elevated about 6 inches to minimize swelling

94
Q

If swelling is present ___

A

Apply cold packs to the affected area

95
Q

A patient with an isolated upper extremity injury will likely prefer the ___ position

A

Semi-fowler

96
Q

Keep the extremity above the level of the ___

A

Heart

97
Q

Any flexible or rigid device used to prevent motion in an injured bone or joint

A

Splint

98
Q

Used to splint the bony pelvis to reduce hemorrhage from bone ends, venous disruption, and pain

A

Pelvic binder

99
Q

A patient with a clavicle fracture will ___

A

Report pain in the shoulder and usually hold the arm across the front of the body

100
Q

A young child with a clavicle fracture will ___

A

Report pain throughout the entire arm and is unwilling to use any part of that limb

101
Q

The joint between the outer end of the clavicle and the acromion process of the scapula

A

Acromioclavicular (AC) joint

102
Q

AC joint dislocation signs

A

The distal end of the clavicle will stick out, patient will report pain, including point tenderness over the AC joint

103
Q

Fractures of the clavicle, scapula, and AC joint treatment

A

Splinted effectively with a sling and swathe

104
Q

Any bandage or material that helps support the weight of an injured upper extremity

A

Sling

105
Q

To be effective, a sling must ___

A

Apply gentle upward support to the olecranon process of the ulna

106
Q

Bandage that passes completely around the chest

A

Swathe

107
Q

To fully stabilize the shoulder region, a ___ must be used to bind the arm

A

Swathe

108
Q

Where the head of the humerus meets the glenoid fossa of the scapula

A

Glenohumeral joint

109
Q

The glenohumeral joint is also called ___

A

Shoulder joint

109
Q

The part of the scapula that joins with the humeral head to from the glenohumeral joint

A

Glenoid fossa

110
Q

In shoulder dislocations, the humeral head most commonly dislocates ___

A

Anteriorly, coming to lie infront of the scapula

111
Q

A dislocated shoulder will compress ___, causing ___

A
  1. The axillary nerve
  2. A numb patch on the outer aspect of the shoulder
112
Q

A patient will try to guard the dislocated shoulder and try to protect it by ___

A

Holding the dislocated arm in a fixed position away from the chest wall

113
Q

Distal humerus fracture

A

Supracondylar or intercondylar fracture, depending on location

114
Q

Fractures of the distal humerus is common in ___

A

Children

115
Q

With an elbow injury that has a weak or absent distal pulse, you may be splinting it if the hospital is further than ___

A

10 to 15 minutes away

116
Q

Any deformity close to a joint in children younger than 6 should be assumed to be a ___

A

Growth plate injury

117
Q

Colles fracture

A

Fracture of the distal radius

118
Q

Nightstick fracture

A

Isolated fracture of the ulna

119
Q

Most reliable sign of fracture of the pelvis

A

Simple tenderness or instability on firm compression and palpation

120
Q

Usual direction of hip dislocation

A

Posterior

121
Q

Suspect hip dislocation in any patient in a vehicle accident who has ___

A

A contusion, laceration, or obvious fracture in the knee region

122
Q

If the hip is dislocated anteriorly, the legs are ___

A

Suddenly and forcibly spread wide apart and locked in this position

123
Q

Posterior hip dislocation is frequently complicated by injury to the ___

A

Sciatic nerve

124
Q

Largest peripheral nerve in the body

A

Sciatic nerve

125
Q

The sciatic nerve is located

A

Directly behind the hip joint

126
Q

Controls the activity of the muscles in the posterior thigh and below the knee, and the sensation in most of the leg and foot

A

Sciatic nerve

127
Q

Sciatic nerve compression will typically impact the foots ability to ___

A

Point up

128
Q

Position of patient with posterior hip dislocation

A

Lie with hip joint flexed and the thigh rotated inward towed the midline of the body over the top of the other thigh

129
Q

Three types of proximal femur fractures

A
  1. Neck of the femur
  2. Intertrochanteric (middle) region
  3. Subtrochanteric (proximal shaft of the femur)
130
Q

The act of pulling on a body structure in the direction of its normal alighnment

A

Traction

131
Q

The amount of traction does not often exceed ___

A

15 lbs

132
Q

Dislocation of the knee may be associated with ___

A

Vascular occlusion

133
Q

Compartment syndrome often develops within ___

A

6 to 12 hours

Emergency Medical Technician (100 decks)

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