Incident Management Flashcards

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1
Q

Any call that involves three or more patients, any situation that places such a great demand on available equipment or personnel that the system would require a mutual aid response, or any incident that has the potential to create one of the previously mentioned situations

A

Mass-casualty incident

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2
Q

An agreement between neighboring EMS systems to respond when local resources are insufficient to handle the response

A

Mutual aid response

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3
Q

Two important underlying principles of the NIMS

A
  1. Flexibility
  2. Standardization
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4
Q

Allows various agencies to achieve common objectives by supporting each other while maintaining individual authorities

A

Unity of effort

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5
Q

The ability of agencies of different types or from different jurisdictions to communicate with each other

A

Interoperability

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6
Q

Three major NIMS components

A
  1. Communication and information management
  2. Resource management
  3. Command and coordination
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7
Q

NIMS standard incident command structures are based on three key constructs:

A
  1. ICS
  2. Multiagency coordination systems
  3. Public information systems
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8
Q

Purpose of ICS

A

Ensure responder and public safety, achieve incident management goals, and ensure the efficient use of resources

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9
Q

Individual units or different organizations make independent and often inefficient decisions about the next appropriate action

A

Freelancing

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10
Q

Span of control ideal ratio

A

1 supervisor for 5 subordinates

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11
Q

Responsible for a major functional area such as finance/administration, logistics, planning, or operations

A

Sections

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12
Q

In charge of activity directly related to the section

A

Branches

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13
Q

Branches are managed by the ___

A

Branch director

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14
Q

Branches may be ___

A

Functional or geographic

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15
Q

Branches tend to be established when ___

A

Span of control is a problem

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16
Q

Serve to align resources and/or crews under one supervisor

A

Divisions or groups

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17
Q

___ usually refer to crews working in the same geographic area

A

Divisions

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18
Q

___ usually refer to crews working in the same functional area

A

Groups

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19
Q

ICS General staff

A
  1. Command
  2. Finance/administration
  3. Logistics
  4. Operations
  5. Planning
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20
Q

Command staff include ___

A

Public information officer, safety officer, and liaison officer

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21
Q

Person in charge of the overall incident

A

Incident commander (IC)

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22
Q

Assesses the incident, establishes the strategic objectives and priorities, and develop a plan to manage the incident

A

Incident commander

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23
Q

A command system used in larger incidents in which there is a multiagency response or multiple jurisdictions are involved

A

Unified command system

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24
Q

A command system in which one person is in charge; generally used with small incidents that involve only one responding agency or jurisdiction

A

Single command system

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25
Q

___ is particularly important if a transfer of command takes place

A

Communication

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26
Q

Responsible for documenting all expenditures at an incident for reimbursement

A

Finance/administration section chief

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27
Q

Functions within the finance/administration section

A
  1. Time unit
  2. Procurement unit
  3. Compensation and claims unit
  4. Cost unit
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28
Q

Responsible for ensuring the daily recording of personnel time and equipment use

A

Time unit

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29
Q

Deals with all matters concerning vendor contracts

A

Procurement unit

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30
Q

Deals with claims as a result of the incident, and injury compensation

A

Compensation and claims unit

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31
Q

Responsible for collecting, analyzing, and reporting the costs related to an incident

A

Cost unit

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32
Q

Responsible for communications equipment, facilities, food and water, fuel, lighting, and medical equipment and supplies for patients and emergency responders

A

Logistics section

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33
Q

Responsible for managing the tactical operations usually handled by the IC on routine EMS calls

A

Operations section chief

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34
Q

Solves problems as they arise during the incident

A

Planning section

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35
Q

The central tool for planning during a response to a disaster emergency

A

Incident action plan

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36
Q

Three important positions that help the general staff and the IC

A
  1. Safety officer
  2. PIO
  3. Liaison officer
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37
Q

Monitors the scene for conditions or operations that may present a hazard to responders and patients

A

Safery officer

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38
Q

The safety officer has the authority to ___ whenever a rescuer is in danger

A

Stop an emergency operation

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39
Q

Provides the public and media with clear and understandable information

A

PIO

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40
Q

The designated PIO may cooperate with PIOs from other agencies in a ___

A

Joint information center (JIC)

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41
Q

Relays information and concerns among command, the general staff, and other agencies

A

Liaison officer

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42
Q

Size-up will be driven by three basic questions

A
  1. What do I have?
  2. What resources do I need?
  3. What do I need to do?
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43
Q

Incident that is not yet contained

A

Open incident

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44
Q

Incident that is contained and all casualties are accounted for

A

Closed incident

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45
Q

Priorities to keep in mind during size-up

A
  1. Safety
  2. Incident stabilization
  3. Preservation of property and the environment
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46
Q

Preferred communication method at an MCI

A

Face-to-face

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47
Q

Chief of the medical branch reports to the ___

A

Operations section

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48
Q

Primary roles of the medical branch

A

Triage, treatment, and transport of injured people

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49
Q

Ultimately in charge of counting and prioritizing patients

A

Triage supervisor

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50
Q

Will locate and set up the treatment area with a tier for each priority of patient

A

Treatment supervisor

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51
Q

Assists with moving patients to the transportation area

A

Treatment supervisor

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52
Q

Coordinates the transportation and distribution of patients to appropriate receiving hospitals and helps to ensure that hospitals do not become overwhelmed by a patient surge

A

Transportation supervisor

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53
Q

Assigned when an MCI or disaster requires a multivehicle or multiagency response

A

Staging supervisor

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54
Q

Establishes an area that provides protection for responders from the elements and the situation

A

Rehabilitation supervisor

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55
Q

Where should the rehabilitation area be located?

A

Away from exhaust fumes and crowds and out of view of the scene itself

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56
Q

Signs of stress the rehabilitation supervisor must monitor for

A
  1. Fatigue
  2. Altered thinking patterns
  3. Complete collapse
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57
Q

Determine the type of equipment and resources needed for the situation

A

Extrication supervisor or rescue supervisor

58
Q

Will work with area medical examiners, coroners, disaster mortuary assistance teams, and LE agencies to coordinate removal of the bodies and even, possible, body parts

A

Morgue supervisor

59
Q

To sort patients based on the severity of their injuries

A

Triage

60
Q

Goal of triage

A

Greatest good for the greatest number

61
Q

Triage groups patients based on their ___

A

Acuity

62
Q

Initial triage done in the field

A

Primary triage

63
Q

Done as the patient’s are brought to the treatment area

A

Secondary triage

64
Q

The main info needed on the triage tag

A

Unique number and triage category

65
Q

After the primary triage, the triage supervisor should report what to the medical branch director?

A
  1. Total number of patients
  2. Number of patients in each triage category
  3. Recommendations for extrication and movement of patients to the treatment area
  4. Resources needed to complete triage and begin movement of patients
66
Q

Mnemonic to remember triage categories

A

IDME

67
Q

IDME

A

Immediate (red)
Delayed (yellow)
Minor or minimal (green; hold)
Expectant (black; likely to die or dead)

68
Q

Immediate patients usually have problems with ___

A

The ABCs, head trauma, or signs and symptoms of shock

69
Q

Delayed patients usually have ___

A

Multiple injuries to bones or joints, including back injuries with or without spinal cord injury

70
Q

START

A

Simple Triage And Rapid Treatment

71
Q

One of the easiest methods of triage

A

START triage

72
Q

START triage uses a limited assessment of the patient’s ___

A

Respiratory status, hemodynamic status (pulse), and neurologic status

73
Q

1st step of the START triage

A

Call out and direct those who can walk to a landmark (green tag)

74
Q

Second step of the START triage

A

Assess respiratory status of non-ambulatory patients. If not breathing, open the airway with a simple maneuver. If they breath (red), if not (black). If breathing without opening airway over 30/min or slower than 10/min (red). If 10 - 29 /min, check bilateral pulses. Absent radial pulse (red). If present assess neurologic status. If able to understand and follow commands (yellow), if unconscious or unable to follow commands (red)

75
Q

SALT triage system

A

Sort, Assess, Lifesaving interventions, and treatment and/or transport

76
Q

JumpSTART triage system is intended for ___

A

Children younger than 8 or who weigh less than 100 lbs

77
Q

JumpSTART triage process

A
  1. Direct walking wounded and get infants and children with special needs to the treatment area
  2. Assess breathing, if not breathing check pulse. No pulse (black). Pulse present, open the airway, 5 rescue breaths. Still not breathing (black).
  3. Respirations less than 15/min or greater than 45/min (red)
  4. Respirations 15 to 45 /min, beck distal pulse. Absent pulse (red)
  5. Distal pulse present, check AVPU. Localizes or withdraws from pain (yellow), if worse (red)
78
Q

Preferable transport for red or yellow patients

A

Ground or air ambulance

79
Q

Immediate-priority patients should be transported ___ at a time until all are transported from the site

A

2

80
Q

Patients in the delayed category can be transported ___ at a time

A

2 to 3

81
Q

Widespread event that disrupts functions and resources of a community and threatens lives and property

A

Disaster

82
Q

Two good indicators of the possible presence of a hazardous material

A

Location and type of building

83
Q

Senses you can safely use to detect hazardous material

A

Sight and sound

84
Q

Any vessel or receptacle that holds a material

A

Container

85
Q

What about a container can provide important clues about the nature of the substance inside?

A

Type, size, and material of construction

86
Q

Two categories of containers based on capacity

A
  1. Bulk
  2. Nonbulk
87
Q

Include fixed tanks, highway cargo tanks, rail cars, totes, and intermodal tanks

A

Bulk storage containers

88
Q

In general, bulk storage containers are found in ___

A

Buildings that rely on and need to store large quantities of a particular chemical

89
Q

Often bulk storage containers at a manufacturing facility are surrounded by ___

A

A secondary containment system

90
Q

An engineered method to control spilled or released product if the main containment vessel fails

A

Secondary containment

91
Q

Large-volume horizontal tanks are also called ___

A

Aboveground or underground storage tanks

92
Q

The tote is also called an ___

A

Intermediate bulk container

93
Q

Most common tote sizes

A

275 and 330 gallons

94
Q

Portable plastic tank surrounded by a stainless steel web

A

Tote

95
Q

A tote can contain ___

A

Any type of chemical, including flammable liquids, corrosives, food-grade liquids, or oxidizers

96
Q

Intermodal tank size

A

4000 to 6000 gallons

97
Q

All types of containers other than bulk containers

A

Nonbulk storage vessels

98
Q

Nonbulk storage vessel capacity

A

A few ounces to 119 gallons

99
Q

Easily recognizable, barrellike containers

A

Drums

100
Q

Commonly used to store solids and powders

A

Bags

101
Q

A glass, plastic, or steel container that holds 1 to 15 gallons of product

A

Carboy

102
Q

Glass carboys are often placed in ___

A

A protective wood, foam, fiberglass, or steel box to prevent breakage

103
Q

Can often enable you to ID a released chemical

A

Presence of labels, placards, and other markings

104
Q

Diamond-shaped indicators that are placed on all four side of highway transport vehicles, railroad tank cars, and other forms of transportation carrying hazardous materials

A

Placards

105
Q

Placard size

A

At least 9.8” per side

106
Q

Smaller versions of placards that are place on the four sides of individual boxes and smaller packages being transported

A

Labels

107
Q

Label size

A

3.9” per side

108
Q

A placard IDs ___

A

The broad hazard class to which the material inside belongs

109
Q

This number on a placard IDs the specific material being shipped

A

Four-digit UN number

110
Q

Offers a certain amount of guidance for responders operating at a hazmat incident

A

Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG)

111
Q

How often is the ERG updated?

A

Every 3 to 4 years

112
Q

Common source of info about a particular chemical that is specific to that substance

A

Material safety data sheet

113
Q

Shipping papers for road and highway transportation are called ___

A

Bills of lading or freight bills

114
Q

Where are the bills of lading or freight bills located?

A

In the cab of the vehicle or on the driver’s person

115
Q

An agency that provides technical info for first responders who are called to respond to chemical incidents

A

Chemical Transportation Emergency Center (CHEMTREC)

116
Q

Number for CHEMTREC

A

1-800-262-8200

117
Q

How to pass chemical names to CHEMTREC

A

Spell them

118
Q

___ helps reduce the number of civilians and responders who may be exposed to the released substance

A

Setting control zones and limiting access

119
Q

Established at a hazmat incident based on the chemical and physical properties of the released material, the environmental factors at the time of the release, and the general layout of the scene

A

Control zones

120
Q

If the incident takes place inside a structure, the best place to control access is ___

A

At the normal points of ingress and egress

121
Q

Control zones at a hazmat incident

A
  1. Exclusionary zone (hot zone)
  2. Contamination reduction zone (warm zone)
  3. Outer perimeter (cold zone)
122
Q

An area immediately surrounding the release, which is also the most contaminated area

A

Hot zone

123
Q

Where personnel and equipment transition into and out of the hot zone

A

Warm zone

124
Q

The warm zone contains ___

A

Control points for access as well as the decontamination area

125
Q

The process of removing or neutralizing and properly disposing of hazardous materials from equipment, patients, and rescue personnel

A

Decontamination

126
Q

The water used for decontamination must be ___

A

Captured and delivered into special sealable containers

127
Q

The safe zone where personnel do not need to wear any special protective clothing for safer operation

A

Cold zone

128
Q

A system for the ID of hazardous materials according to health hazard or toxicity levels, fire hazard, chemical reactive hazard, and special hazards

A

NFPA 704

129
Q

Measures of the health risk that a substance poses to someone who comes in contact with it

A

Toxicity levels

130
Q

Toxicity levels

A

1 - 5

131
Q

PPE levels

A

A - D

132
Q

Level A PPE

A

Most hazardous, require fully encapsulated, chemical-resistant clothing that provides full-body protection, with SCBA

133
Q

Level B PPE

A

Nonencapsulated clothing that is designed to protect against a particular hazard

134
Q

Level C PPE

A

Like level B, requires nonpermeable clothing and eye protection. Face masks that filter all outside air must be used

135
Q

Level D PPE

A

Work uniform

136
Q

All levels of PPE require ___

A

Gloves, including two pairs of rubber gloves

137
Q

Health hazard 0

A

Little or no hazard (no protection)

138
Q

Health hazard 1

A

Slightly hazardous (SCBA level C suit)

139
Q

Health hazard 2

A

Slightly hazardous (SCBA level C suit)

140
Q

Health hazard 3

A

Extremely hazardous (full protection, with no exposed skin, level A or B suit)

141
Q

Health hazard 4

A

Minimal exposure causes death (Special hazmat gear, level A suit)

142
Q

Most serious injures and deaths from hazmat result from ___

A

Airway and breathing problems