Medical, Legal, & Ethical Issues Flashcards

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1
Q

A basic medical, legal, and ethical principle of emergency care is to first ___

A

Do no further harm

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2
Q

EMTs are better positioned to avoid professional legal problems when they ___

A

Act in good faith, follow an appropriate standard of care, and provide compassionate care

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3
Q

Immediate care or treatment

A

Emergency medical care

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4
Q

Typically, ___ is required from every conscious adult before care can be started

A

Consent

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5
Q

An adult who is ___ has the legal right to refuse care

A

Conscious, rational, and capable of making informed decisions

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6
Q

Consent can be expressed or ___

A

Implied

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7
Q

The foundation of consent is ___

A

Decision-making capacity

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8
Q

The ability of a patient to understand the information you are providing, coupled with the ability to process that information and make an informed choice regarding medical care

A

Decision-making capacity

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9
Q

The right of a patient to make decisions concerning their health

A

Patient autonomy

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10
Q

Generally regarded as a legal term and determinations regarding it are made by a court of law

A

Competence

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11
Q

The term more commonly used in health care to determine whether or not a patient is capable of making health care decisions

A

Decision-making competence

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12
Q

Factors to be considered when determining a patient’s decision-making competence

A
  1. Mental limitation/dementia
  2. Are they of legal age?
  3. Impaired by alcohol, drugs, or serious injury/illness
  4. Experiencing significant pain
  5. Have a significant injury that could distract from a more serious injury
  6. Hearing or visual problems
  7. Language barrier
  8. Do they understand you/ask rational questions?
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13
Q

The type of consent given when the patient specifically acknowledges that they want you to provide care or transport

A

Expressed consent

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14
Q

Expressed consent is also called ___

A

Actual consent

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15
Q

Expressed consent may be ___

A

Verbal or nonverbal

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16
Q

To be valid, the consent the patient provides must be ___

A

Informed consent

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17
Q

You explained the nature of the treatment being offered, along with the potential risks, benefits, and alternatives to treatment, as well as potential consequences of refusing treatment

A

Informed consent

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18
Q

Always document consent in your ___

A

Run report

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19
Q

A patient may agree to certain types of emergency medical care but ___

A

Not to others

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20
Q

When a person is unconscious or otherwise incapable of making a rational, informed decision about care and unable to give consent, the law assumes that the patient would consent to care and transport to a medical facility if they were able to do so

A

Implied consent

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21
Q

Implied consent applies only when ___

A

A serious medical condition exists and should never be used unless there is a threat to life or limb

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22
Q

The principle of implied consent is known at the ___

A

Emergency doctrine

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23
Q

Relating to medical jurisprudence or forensic medicine

A

Medicolegal

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24
Q

In most instances, the law allows a ___ to give consent for an injured person who is unable to do so

A

Spouse, a close relative, or next of kin

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25
Q

If a patient is being treated based on implied consent and regains consciousness and appear capable of making an informed decision, the doctrine of implied consent ___

A

Would no longer apply

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26
Q

Under certain circumstances ___ are legally permitted to give consent for any individual who is incarcerated or has been placed under arrest

A

LE and prison officials

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27
Q

A prisoner who is conscious and capable of making decisions may ___

A

Refuse care

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28
Q

Involuntary consent is similar to ___ and consent should be obtained from ___

A
  1. Those involving minors
  2. Someone legally responsible for the patient, such as a guardian or conservator
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29
Q

Minors require a ___ to give consent for treatment and transport

A

Parent or legal guardian

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30
Q

In every state, when a parent cannot be reached to provide consent, health care providers are allowed to ___

A

Give emergency care to a child

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31
Q

In some states, a minor can consent to receive medical care, depending on ___

A

The minor’s age and maturity

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32
Q

People who, despite being under the legal age in a given state, can be legally treated as adults based on certain circumstances

A

Emancipated minors

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33
Q

Many states consider minors to be emancipated if they are ___

A

Married, members of the armed forces, or if they are parents
Also if they are living away from and no longer relying on their parents for support

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34
Q

A minor who is a parent may also give consent for ___

A

Their own child

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35
Q

If a minor is injured and requires medical treatment in a school or camp setting, teachers and school officials may act ___

A

In loco parentis

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36
Q

In the position or place of a parent, and can legally give consent for treatment of the minor if the parent or guardian is not available

A

In loco parentis

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37
Q

Even if acting in loco parentis, you should still attempt to ___

A

Obtain consent from a parent or legal guardian whenever possible

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38
Q

If a parent or legal guardian is not present and a true emergency exists, the consent to treat the minor is ___

A

Implied

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39
Q

___ is sometimes necessary when you are confronted with a patient who is in need of medical treatment and transportation but is combative and presents a significant physical risk of danger to themselves or others

A

Forcible restraint

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40
Q

Typically you should consult ___ for authorization to restrain or ___

A
  1. Medical control
  2. Contact LE personnel who have the authority to restrain people
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41
Q

___ should always be attempted prior to considering physical restraints

A

Verbal de-escalation

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42
Q

After restraints are applied, they should not be removed en route unless ___

A

They pose a risk to the patient, even if the patient promises to behave

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43
Q

While restrained, it is essential that you ___

A

Protect the patient’s airway and monitor the patient’s respiratory and circulatory status to avoid asphyxia, aspiration, and other complications

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44
Q

Consider calling for ALS backup to provide ___, as this may be safer than physical restraint, depending upon the situation

A

Pharmacologic restraint

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45
Q

Adults who are ___ have the right to refuse treatment or withdraw from treatment at any time

A

Conscious, alert, and appear to have decision-making capacity

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46
Q

Calls involving refusal of treatment pose a risk of ___

A

Litigation

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47
Q

In all such cases of refusal of treatment, you should involve ___

A

Online medical control and document this consultation

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48
Q

What information should be given to the patient to guide their decision to accept or refuse care?

A
  1. What might be wrong with the patient
  2. Description of the treatment believed necessary
  3. Possible risks of treatment
  4. Availability of alternative treatments
  5. Possible consequences of refusing treatment
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49
Q

PCR

A

Patient Care Report

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50
Q

When treatment is refused, you must assess the patient’s ability to make an ___

A

Informed decision

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51
Q

Patients who have attempted or conveyed ___ intent should not be regarded as having normal mental capacity

A

Suicidal

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52
Q

When in doubt, providing treatment is usually a much more ___ than failing to treat a patient

A

Defensible position

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53
Q

Before leaving the scene where a patient has refused care, you should again encourage the patient up to ___ times if the situation allows, to permit treatment

A

3

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54
Q

Do what before leaving a patient who has refused care?

A
  1. Encourage them to change their mind
  2. Remind them to call 911 if it changes or gets worse
  3. Advise them to see their personal physician ASAP
  4. Have them sign a refusal of treatment form (signature should be witnessed by a family member or police officer)
  5. Notify medical control
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55
Q

Who must sign the refusal of care for for a child?

A

The individual who is refusing treatment

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56
Q

Communication between you and the patient is considered ___

A

Confidential

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57
Q

Disclosure of confidential information to anyone other than those providers directly involved in the care of the patient without proper authorization may result in liability for ___

A

Breach of confidentiality

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58
Q

Patient information may also be shared with ___

A

Third-party billing personnel

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59
Q

HIPAA considers all patient information that you obtain in the course of providing medical treatment to a patient to be ___

A

Protected health information

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60
Q

PHI

A

Protected health information

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61
Q

PHI includes not only medical information, but also any information that can ___

A

Be used to identify the patient

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62
Q

As an EMT, you have an obligation to guard all PHI from ___

A

Unlawful disclosure, either written or verbal

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63
Q

Safeguards to protect PHI include departmental ___

A

Security measures

64
Q

When an EMT’s role provides access to PHI of patients other than those for whom the EMT provided care, those records may be accessed only if there is a ___

A

Legitimate business reason to do so

65
Q

What PHI records may the EMT not access without appropriate permission granted by the department privacy and security officer?

A
  1. Celebrities
  2. The EMTs own
  3. The records of family members
66
Q

PHI may be disclosed for purposes of ___

A
  1. Treatment
  2. Payment
  3. Operations
67
Q

A DNR is a type of ___

A

Advance directive

68
Q

A ___ patient is able to make rational decisions about their well-being

A

Competent

69
Q

A written document that specifies medical treatment for a competent patient, should they become unable to make decisions

A

Advance directive

70
Q

An advance directive is often referred to as a ___ but may also be referred to as a ___

A
  1. Living will
  2. Health care directive
71
Q

DNR orders give you permission not to ___

A

Attempt resuscitation

72
Q

DNR requirements

A
  1. Clear statement of the patient’s medical problems
  2. Signature of the patient or legal guardian
  3. Signature of one or more physicians or other licensed health care providers
  4. In some states it might have an expiration date. If they do they must be dated in the preceding 12 months to be valid
73
Q

POLST

A

Physician Orders for Life-Sustaining Treatment

74
Q

MOLST

A

Medical Orders for Life-Sustaining Treatment

75
Q

You may encounter POLST and MOLST forms when caring for patients with ___

A

Terminal illnesses

76
Q

A POLST or MOLST form will ___

A

Explicitly describe acceptable interventions for the patient and must be signed by a physician, physician assistant, or nurse practitioner

77
Q

Some patients may have named surrogates to make decisions for them regarding their health care in the event that they are unable to make such decisions for themselves

A

Durable power of attorney for health care
or
health care proxy

78
Q

When presented with a power of attorney at the scene of a medical emergency, you must ___

A

Read it carefully to ascertain its meaning and validity

79
Q

If there is any question regarding a medical power of attorney, you should ___

A

Contact online medical control

80
Q

___ emergency care while efforts to interpret the power of attorney are made

A

Do not delay

81
Q

The person named in the power of attorney or health care proxy is only authorized to make decisions when ___

A

The patient is no longer capable of doing so

82
Q

Even in the presence of a DNR order, you are still obligated to ___

A

Provide supportive measures (oxygen, pain relief, and comfort) to a patient who is not in cardiac arrest

83
Q

When you are in doubt or the written orders are not present for a DNR order, you have an obligation to ___

A

Resuscitate

84
Q

Determination of the cause of death is the medical responsibility of a ___

A

Physician

85
Q

There are both ___ and ___ signs of death

A
  1. Definitive
  2. Presumptive
86
Q

In many states death is defined as ___. Many states have also adopted ___ provisions

A
  1. The absence of circulatory and respiratory function
  2. Brain death
87
Q

Brain death provisions refer to is as ___

A

Irreversible cessation of all functions of the brain and brainstem

88
Q

In questions of whether to begin BLS, the general rule is ___

A

If the body is still intact, and there are no definitive signs of death, initiate emergency medical care

89
Q

More evidence of death will be needed in cases of ___

A

Sudden death due to hypothermia, acute poisoning, or cardiac arrest

90
Q

Conclusive signs of death that are obvious and clear to even nonmedical people

A

Definitive signs of death

91
Q

Most medicolegal authorities will consider the presumptive signs of death, particularly when they follow a ___

A

Severe trauma or occur at the end stages of a long-term illness

92
Q

Presumptive signs of death

A
  1. Unresponsiveness to painful stimuli
  2. Lack of a carotid pulse or heartbeat
  3. Absence of chest rise and fall
  4. No deep tendon or corneal reflexes
  5. Absence of pupillary reactivity
  6. No systolic blood pressure
  7. Profound cyanosis
  8. Lowered or decreased body temperature
93
Q

Definitive signs of death

A
  1. Obvious mortal damage, such as decapitation
  2. Dependent lividity
  3. Rigor mortis
  4. Algor mortis
  5. Putrefaction
94
Q

Blood settling to the lowest point of the body, causing discoloration of the skin

A

Dependent lividity

95
Q

The stiffening of body muscles caused by chemical changes within the muscle tissure

A

Rigor mortis

96
Q

Rigor mortis progression

A

Develops first in the face and jaw, gradually extending downward until the body is in full rigor

97
Q

The rate of rigor mortis onset is affected by ___

A

The body’s ability to lose heat to its surroundings

98
Q

Rigor mortis occurs sometime between ___ after death

A

2 to 12 hours

99
Q

Refers to the cooling of the body until it matches the ambient temperature

A

Algor mortis

100
Q

Decomposition of body tissues

A

Putrefaction

101
Q

How long for putrefaction to take place?

A

Depending upon temperature conditions, sometime between 40 and 96 hours after death

102
Q

Once you have adequately determined death based on local protocols, ___

A

Remove yourself from the scene

103
Q

Outlines the care you are legally able to provide for the patient

A

Scope of practice

104
Q

Your medical director further defines the scope of practice by developing ___

A

Protocols and standing orders

105
Q

The manner in which you must act or behave as an EMT

A

Standard of care

106
Q

Your conduct must be judged in the light of the emergency situation, taking into account ___

A
  1. Scene safety
  2. General confusion at the scene of the emergency
  3. The needs of other patients
  4. The type of equipment available
107
Q

A serious situation, such as an injury or illness that arises suddenly, threatens the life or welfare of a person or group of people, and requires immediate intervention

A

Emergency

108
Q

In addition to standards imposed by law, professional or institutional standards may be admitted as evidence in determining the adequacy of an ___

A

EMTs conduct

109
Q

State health department regulations usually govern the ___

A

Scope and level of training

110
Q

Court decisions have resulted in case law defining standards of ___

A

Care

111
Q

An individual’s responsibility to provide patient care

A

Duty to act

112
Q

Responsibility comes from either ___

A

Statute or function

113
Q

The failure to provide the same care that a person with similar training would provide in the same or a similar situation

A

Negligence

114
Q

Deviation from the accepted standard of care that may result in further injury to the patient

A

Negligence

115
Q

Negligence is based on ___

A
  1. Duty
  2. Breach of duty
  3. Damages
  4. Causation
116
Q

It is possible to be held liable even when the plaintiff is unable to clearly demonstrate how an injury occurred

A

Theory of res ipsa loquitur

117
Q

Theory of res ipsa loquitur can apply if ___

A

It can be shown that an injury occurred, that the cause of the injury was in the control of the EMT, and that such injuries generally do not occur unless there is negligence

118
Q

A theory that may be used when the conduct of the person being sued is alleged to have occurred in clear violation of a statute

A

Negligence per se

119
Q

Civil wrongs

A

Torts

120
Q

All forms of negligence come under the general category known as ___

A

Torts

121
Q

The unilateral termination of care by the EMT without the patient’s consent and without making any provisions for continuing care by a medical professional who is competent to provide care for the patient

A

Abandonment

122
Q

Once care is started, you have assumed a duty that must not stop until ___

A

An equally competent medical provider assumes responsibility

123
Q

Unlawfully placing a person in fear of immediate bodily harm

A

Assault

124
Q

Threatening to restrain a patient who does not want to be transported could be considered ___

A

Assault

125
Q

Unlawfully touching a person

A

Battery

126
Q

___ lawsuits for battery are common in health care

A

Civil

127
Q

To sustain a criminal case of assault or battery, it is generally necessary to prove ___

A

The intent to cause harm

128
Q

Seizing, confining, abducting, or carrying away of a person by force

A

Kidnapping

129
Q

It is more likely for an EMT to be the target of a civil lawsuit for ___ rather than kidnapping since they are acting in good-faith to provide care for the patient

A

False imprisonment

130
Q

The unauthorized confinement of a person that lasts for an appreciable period of time

A

False imprisonment

131
Q

Communication of false information that damages the reputation of a person

A

Defamation

132
Q

Defamation in writing

A

Libel

133
Q

Defamation that is spoken

A

Slander

134
Q

Based on the common law principle that when you reasonably help another person, you should not be liable for errors and omissions that are made in giving good-faith emergency care

A

Good Samaritan Laws

135
Q

Good Samaritan laws are not intended to apply to ___

A

People who are at work being compensated for doing a job

136
Q

Good Samaritan laws apply when you are ___

A

Off-duty

137
Q

Conditions for the Good Samaritan law

A
  1. You acted in good faith rendering care
  2. You rendered care without expectation of compensation
  3. You acted within the scope of your training
  4. You did not act in a grossly negligent manner
138
Q

Conduct that constitutes a willful or reckless disregard for a duty or standard of care

A

Gross negligence

139
Q

Immunity statutes apply to EMS systems that are considered governmental agencies

A

Sovereign immunity

140
Q

___ could provide early warning of a disease outbreak

A

NEMSIS

141
Q

The philosophy of right and wrong, of moral principles, and of ideal professional behavior

A

Ethics

142
Q

The study of morality

A

Ethics

143
Q

A code of conduct that cen be defined by society, religion, or a person, affecting character and conscience and the definition of right versus wrong

A

Morality

144
Q

Field of ethics that addresses issues that arise in the practice of health care

A

Bioethics

145
Q

The manner in which principles of ethics are incorporated into professional conduct

A

Applied ethics

146
Q

A civil lawsuit begins with the service of a ___ and ___

A

Summons
Complaint

147
Q

Sets forth the details of the plaintiff’s case and provides the theory on which the plaintiff is relying to recover a judgement against you and your service

A

Complaint

148
Q

The response to the complaint is called an ___

A

Answer

149
Q

Time within which a claim must be initiated

A

Statute of limitations

150
Q

Generally applies only to EMS systems that are operated by municipalities or other governmental agencies

A

Governmental immunity

151
Q

Legal defense that may be raised when the defendant thinks that the conduct of the plaintiff somehow contributed to any injuries or damages that were sustained by the plaintiff

A

Contributory negligence

152
Q

The next phase of a trial after the answer to the summons

A

Discovery

153
Q

An opportunity for both sides to obtain information that will enable the attorneys to have a better understanding of the case and assist in negotiating a possible settlement or in preparing for a trial

A

Discovery

154
Q

Written questions that each side sends to the other

A

Interrogatories

155
Q

Oral questions asked of parties and witnesses under oath

A

Depositions

156
Q

These damages are intended to compensate the plaintiff for the injuries they sustained

A

Compensatory damages

157
Q

Not commonly awarded in negligence cases and are reserved for those cases where the defendant has acted intentionally or with a reckless disregard for the safety of the public

A

Punitive damages