operations exam Flashcards
At the scene of a hazardous materials incident, medical monitoring of patients and emergency personnel should occur:
A) in the hot zone
B) in the warm zone
C) in the cold zone
D) before decontamination
C) in the cold zone
The cold zone is a safe area where personnel do not need to wear any special protective clothing for safe operation. Personnel staging, the command post, EMS providers, and the area for medical monitoring, support, and/or treatment after decontamination are all located in the cold zone. The hot zone is the area immediately surrounding the release and is the most contaminated area; personnel should wear full protective clothing while in the hot zone, and the only operation that should occur is patient rescue. Decontamination of patients and rescue personnel should occur in the warm zone.
A patient is found unresponsive in his small bathroom. He is not breathing and is sitting in the corner. Two EMTs are able to reach him, but they are unable to stand side by side. He appears to weigh about 150 pounds and there is no evidence that he has been injured. Which of the following would be the quickest and MOST practical way of moving him out of the bathroom?
A) Extremity lift
B) Long backboard
C) Direct ground lift
D) Stair chair device
A) Extremity lift
A patient is found unresponsive in his small bathroom. He is not breathing and is sitting in the corner. Two EMTs are able to reach him, but they are unable to stand side by side. He appears to weigh about 150 pounds and there is no evidence that he has been injured. Which of the following would be the quickest and MOST practical way of moving him out of the bathroom?
Which of the following is considered minimum personal protective equipment (PPE) when suctioning an unresponsive patient’s airway?
A) Gloves and a mask
B) Gloves and full facial protection
C) Gloves, grown, and eye protection
D) Gloves, head cover, and eye protection
B) Gloves and full facial protection
You should wear gloves and eye protection when assessing or treating any patient. The level of personal protective equipment (PPE) used beyond this is dictated by the risk and type of exposure. When managing a patient’s airway (eg, suctioning, ventilating with a bag-mask device), you should use, at a minimum, gloves and full facial protection. This will protect you from oral and eye exposure if the patient coughs or vomits. A gown should be worn, in addition to gloves and full facial protection, anytime there is a risk of blood splatter. Examples of when this may occur include delivering a baby or caring for a combative patient with severe external bleeding. The level of PPE you use in a given situation should be guided by reasonable judgment and common sense.
Upon arriving at the scene of an overturned tanker truck, you see a clear liquid leaking from the rear of the tank. The driver is still in the vehicle, and you can see that his face is covered with blood. What should you do?
A) Put on gloves, a gown, and a mask and quickly remove the driver
B) Stage upwind from the incident and what for the fire department
C) Approach the rear of a tanker to identify the type of fluid leaking
D) Ensure that the ambulance is downwind and downhill from the tanker
B) Stage upwind from the incident and wait for the fire department
Upon determining that you are dealing with a potential hazardous materials incident, you should immediately request specially trained personnel (eg, fire department, Haz-Mat team) if they are not already en route to the scene. Do not approach a vehicle that may be leaking a hazardous material, even if the patient is still in the vehicle, or you may become a casualty as well. Most ambulances are not equipped with the personal protective equipment required for potential hazardous materials exposure. Park your ambulance in a location that is both upwind and uphill from the incident. Until additional personnel arrive, try to identify the material being carried by reading the United Nations (UN) number on the safety placard affixed to the tanker; however, this should be done from a safe distance and with the use of binoculars.
Medical control has ordered you to administer one tube of oral glucose to a hypoglycemic patient. Immediately after receiving this order, you should:
A) document the order on the prehospital care report
B) administer the medication and reassess the patient
C) ask medical control to repeat the order word for word
D) repeat the order back to medical control word for word
D) repeat the order back to medical control word for word
Immediately after receiving an order from medical control, you should repeat the order back to medical control word for word. This will ensure that you heard correctly and understand the order to be carried out. If you receive an order that seems inappropriate, you should ask the physician to repeat the order back to you for clarification. Reassess the patient after administering the medication and document the time and patient’s response (good or bad) on your patient care report.
During triage of multiple patients at a bus crash, you encounter a young man who is hysterical because he believes he caused the accident. Other than minor abrasions to his arms and face, he has no other apparent injuries. What should you do?
A) Assign him an immediate priority and remove him from the site
B) Ask another uninjured patient to stay with the patient at all times
C) Direct him to go to the area where the walking wounded patients are
D) Remain with him until he is calm and then assign him a delayed category
A) Assign him an immediate priority and remove him from the site
There are a few special situations in triage. Patients who are hysterical and disruptive to triage and rescue efforts may need to be handled as an immediate priority and transported off the site, even if they are not seriously injured. Panic breeds panic, and this type of behavior could have a negative impact on other patients and on the responders.
While triaging patients at a mass-casualty incident, you encounter a responsive middle-aged woman with a respiratory rate of 26 breaths/min. What should you do next?
A) Triage her as immediate (red tag)
B) Assess for bilateral radial pulses
C) Administer high-flow oxygen at once
D) Assess her ability to follow commands
B) Assess for bilateral radial pulses
According to the Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment (START) method, if you encounter an adult patient with a respiratory rate that is less than 10 breaths/min or greater than 29 breaths/min, you should triage him or her as immediate (red tag) and move to the next patient. However, if the patient’s respiratory rate is between 10 and 29 breaths/min, you should assess his or her hemodynamic status by checking for bilateral radial pulses. If the patient’s radial pulses are absent, triage him or her as immediate and move to the next patient. If the patient’s radial pulses are present, assess his or her ability to follow simple commands. If the patient is able to follow simple commands, triage him or her as delayed (yellow tag) and move to the next patient. If the patient is unable to follow simple commands, triage him or her as immediate and move to the next patient. Treatment does not occur during the initial triage process.
The MOST effective means of preventing the spread of disease is:
A) Effective handwashing
B) up-to-date immunizations
C) Wearing gloves with all patients
D) Wearing a mask with pall patients
A) effective handwashing
According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), the most effective way of preventing the spread of disease is to frequently and effectively wash your hands, especially in between patients. The regular use of gloves with all patients and wearing a mask when managing a patient with a communicable disease (eg, tuberculosis) will decrease your chance of disease exposure. Keeping up-to-date with your immunizations will reduce your risk of contracting certain diseases if you are exposed to them
Failure of the EMT to obtain consent from a responsive patient before taking his or her blood pressure may constitute:
A) Battery
B) Negligence
C) Abandonment
D) Assault
A) Battery
Battery is defined as unlawfully touching another person without his or her consent. Obtaining consent from every responsive patient prior to rendering care is of paramount importance. Assault is defined as instilling fear into another person, but does not necessarily involve actually touching him or her. Laws can vary from state to state as to these definitions. Negligence occurs when the EMT fails to act as another prudent EMT would have acted in the same or similar situation. Abandonment occurs when the EMT terminates patient care without the patient’s consent or transfers care of a patient to a provider of lesser training.
While transporting a patient with chest pain, the patient asks the EMT if he is going to die. Which of the following would be the EMT’s MOST appropriate response?
A) “I don’t know, but I’m going to take very good care of you.”
B) “Everything will be okay, so please try to remain calm.”
C) “No. Most cases of chest pain are not related to the heart.”
D) “There is nothing to worry about; I will not let that happen.”
A) “I don’t know, but I’m going to take very good care of you.”
When caring for any patient, the EMT should provide emotional reassurance; however, he or she must be honest with the patient. If a patient asks you if he or she is going to die, the honest answer is “I do not know,” because the fact is, you do NOT know. Comfort the patient by reassuring him or her that you are going to provide the best care possible, but do NOT lie. Speak to the patient like a clinician, not a technician with what you feel is an appropriate canned response
Which of the following statements regarding the use of an escort vehicle when en route to an emergency call is correct?
A) An escort vehicle will allow you to arrive at the scene more quickly
B) To avoid getting separated from the escort vehicle you should follow it closely
C) An escort vehicle should be used only if you are unfamiliar with the patient’s location
D) With an escort vehicle, the risk of an accident at an intersection is reduced significantly
C) An escort vehicle should be used only if you are unfamiliar with the patient’s location
Generally, escort vehicles should not be used when responding to an emergency scene. The biggest danger of using an escort occurs at intersections, which is where most ambulance crashes occur. Drivers may yield to the escort vehicle, but may not be prepared for a second vehicle following the escort (a wake effect collision). The only time that an escort may be required is when you are unfamiliar with the location of the patient and need assistance getting there. If an escort must be used, you must follow at a safe distance of at least 500 feet.
The scene size-up includes all of the following components, EXCEPT:
A) Determining if the scene is safe
B) Donning personal protective gear
C) Assessing the need for assistance
D) evaluating the mechanism of injury
B) Donning personal protective gear
The components of the scene size-up include determining scene safety, assessing the mechanism of injury (MOI) or nature of illness (NOI), determining the number of patients, and requesting additional help if needed. Personal protective equipment (PPE) should be donned prior to beginning the scene size-up.
An ambulance and fire apparatus are the first to arrive at a motor vehicle crash on a three-lane highway. There is one vehicle involved and it is located in the far left-hand lane. Where should the ambulance be positioned?
A) In between the fire apparatus and crashed motor vehicle
B) 100 feet past the crashed vehicle, on the same side of the highway
C) Alongside the crashed vehicle in the middle lane of the highway
D) 100 feet past the crashed vehicle on the opposite side of the highway
B) 100 feet past the crashed vehicle, on the same side of the highway
Emergency operations on the highway can be especially dangerous, and it is important to position emergency vehicles in a manner that will ensure responder safety, while at the same time allowing efficient traffic control and flow around the crash scene. Do not park alongside the scene, as you may block the movement of other emergency vehicles. The first emergency vehicle to arrive on scene should park 100 feet before the scene on the same side of the road as the accident. The first vehicle should create a barrier between the scene and oncoming traffic. If other responders have not arrived on scene, the ambulance can be positioned to block the scene and prevent oncoming traffic from getting too close to the scene and emergency personnel. If fire apparatus or law enforcement officers are on scene, they should position their vehicles before the scene, while the ambulance is parked 100 feet beyond the scene. Park the ambulance on the same side of the highway as the crash; this will prevent personnel from crossing the road unnecessarily.
When the incident command system is activated at the scene, you should expect to:
A) Receive instructions and then function independently
B) Be immediately directed to the established treatment area
C) Report back to your section officer in between assignment
D) Be assigned one responsibility for the duration of the incident
C) Report back to your section officer in between assignment
The incident command system (ICS) was established to maximize effective operations at the scene and maximize the number of lives saved. Deviation from the ICS jeopardizes lives and increases the risk of losing control over the situation. When you arrive at a scene where the ICS has been activated, you should report to the staging area; you will then be directed to the area in which you are needed. Report to the section officer of that area, receive your instructions, and carry them out. When you have completed your assignment, you must return to the section officer for further instructions. Depending on the situation, you may be sent to another section. The sections that you work in and the responsibilities that you are given may change during the incident. At no time should you attempt to function independently (freelancing); this defeats the purpose of the ICS and puts lives in jeopardy.
You and your partner have secured a trauma patient to a long backboard and are preparing to lift the backboard onto the stretcher. When doing so, you should:
A) Lift the backboard from the sides instead of the ends
B) Be sure to lift the backboard with the powerful muscles of your back
C) Recall that most of the patient’s weight is at the foot end of the backboard
D) Ensure that the strongest EMT is positioned at the head of the backboard
D) Ensure that the strongest EMT is positioned at the head of the backboard
Since most of the patient’s weight is distributed to the head end of a backboard, you should always ensure that the strongest EMT is at that position. This will reduce the risk of injury to less strong personnel as well as the risk of dropping the patient. The backboard should be lifted from the ends, not the sides; you have less control over the board if it is lifted from the sides. When lifting any patient, you should use the powerful muscles of your thighs, not your back, to lift. Keep your back straight and in a locked-in position.
EMTs are dispatched to a nursing home for a 78-year-old woman who is running a fever. When they arrive, the nurse advises them that the patient’s physician wants her to be taken to the hospital, and that her daughter is en route to the nursing home. The patient is conscious, alert, and oriented, and refuses to go to the hospital. In this case, consent to treat and transport this patient:
A) Has not been obtained because the patient is alert and oriented
B) Is implied because the patient is elderly and lives in a nursing home
C) Can only be obtained once the patient’s daughter
D) Is expressed since her physician, wants her to be taken to the hospital
A) Has not been obtained because the patient is alert and oriented
You must obtain consent to assess and treat any patient who is of legal age and has decision-making capacity. The patient is conscious, alert, and oriented and has decision-making capacity. If she refuses transport, even if her physician requests it, you have NOT obtained consent. Many believe that residents who live in skilled nursing facilities or assisted-living centers relinquish their right to direct their own healthcare; this is NOT true. If a patient is of legal age and has decision-making capacity, consent to treat and transport must be given by them, not a family member. If the patient does not have decision-making capacity, then consent to treat is implied. In this situation, as with any situation in which the patient should be transported to the hospital, you should talk to the patient and explain to her that she could be seriously ill, and that evaluation by a physician would be in her best interest.
You arrive at the scene of an 80-year-old woman who is weak and lightheaded. Her son, who called 911, is present and asks you to transport his mother to the hospital. You should:
A) Advise the son that he can probably drive his mother to the hospital
B) Comply with the son’s request and transport the woman to the hospital
C) Take the woman’s vital signs and apply supplemental oxygen if necessary
D) Assess the woman and determine if she wishes to be treated and transported
D) Assess the woman and determine if she wishes to be treated and transported
You must obtain consent from any mentally competent adult patient prior to initiating treatment. Just because the patient is 80 years old does not mean that she does not have decision-making capacity. Also, just because her son wants her to be transported does not mean that she agrees with this request. Ask her if she wishes to be treated and transported to the hospital. If she does, then you have obtained consent and should proceed accordingly. If she does not, you should determine if she has decision-making capacity–that is, whether she is mentally competent. If she is determined to have decision-making capacity, then you cannot legally treat or transport her. If she does not have decision-making capacity (eg, she is confused, she is under the influence of drugs or alcohol), then you may treat and transport under the law of implied consent. It is not the EMT’s decision to determine, let alone recommend, that a patient be taken to the hospital via privately owned vehicle (POV). If the patient requests EMS treatment and transport, you are legally obligated to do so.
The ultimate goal of any EMS quality improvement program is to:
A) Deliver a consistency high standard of care to all patients who are encountered
B) Ensure that all personnel receive an adequate number of continuing education hours
C) Provide protocol to all EMTs and hold them accountable if protocols are not followed
D) Recognize all EMTs who demonstrate consistency in providing competent patient care
A) Deliver a consistency high standard of care to all patients who are encountered
Providing continuing education to all personnel, recognizing those who consistently provide competent patient care, and holding all personnel accountable for adhering to the EMS protocols are all components of any EMS quality improvement program. The ultimate goal, however, is to provide, as a system, a consistently high standard of care to all patients who are encountered.
At the scene of a mass-casualty incident, you notice a bystander who is emotionally upset. An appropriate action to take would be to:
A) Tell the bystander to leave the scene at once
B) Have the bystander assist you with patient care
C) Notify the police and have the bystander removed
D) Assign the bystander a simple, non-patient-care task
D) Assign the bystander a simple, non-patient-care task
One of the most effective ways to reduce stress in a bystander at the scene of a mass-casualty incident is to assign the bystander a task that is not related to patient care. This may involve assisting other bystanders who are having difficulties as well or providing water to the rescuers. An obviously distressed bystander should not simply be sent away from the scene, but should be looked at as a patient as well. Clearly, if the bystander becomes aggressive or violent, law enforcement personnel should get involved.
Which of the following actions demonstrates the EMT’s knowledge of crime scene preservation?
A) At the scene fo a shooting, the EMT removes the bullets from a handgun and gives them to a police officer
B) The EMT places a shooting victim’s blood-soaked shirt in to a clean plastic bag and then gives it to the police officer
C) While caring for a patient who was stabbed, the EMT moved a coffee table and then informs a police officer afterward
D) After assessing a patient with a single stab wound to the chest, the EMT requests law enforcement permission to treat
C) While caring for a patient who was stabbed, the EMT moved a coffee table and then informs a police officer afterward
After ensuring the safety of you and your crew, your next priority when functioning at a crime scene is to provide emergency patient care. If you need to move a piece of furniture to gain access to a critically injured patient, you should move the furniture, treat the patient, and then advise a law enforcement officer of what you moved and where you moved it to. In this way, you provide immediate care to the patient, but remain aware that the location of any obstacles between you and the patient may serve as evidence. Clearly, you would not request approval from a law enforcement officer before treating a critically injured patient. Items that may have evidence on them, such as article of clothing, should be placed in a paper bag; condensation can accumulate in plastic bags, potentially destroying any evidence. Handling weapons used in the crime can contaminate any fingerprints that may be present and would clearly be inappropriate. Unloading of firearms is a function of law enforcement, not EMS.
An 92-year-old man is unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. His skin is warm and his face and chest are cyanotic. In this circumstance, you and your partner should:
A) Ask for a do not resuscitate order before starting CPR
B) Contact medical control to determine if CPR is indicated
C) Begin CPR and apply the AED as soon as it is available
D) Recognize that resuscitation is not indicated for him
C) Begin CPR and apply the AED as soon as it is available
Pulselessness, apnea, and cyanosis are presumptive signs of death, not definitive. Therefore, you should begin resuscitative measures, including CPR and defibrillation (if indicated). Resuscitation is not indicated if definitive signs of death are present, such as rigor mortis, livor mortis (pooling), putrefaction, or injuries that are clearly not compatible with life (ie, decapitation). It is acceptable to ask if a do not resuscitate (DNR) order is present; however, this should be done after you have initiated CPR. If a valid out of hospital DNR is presented, then resuscitation is not indicated; follow your local protocols. If there is question regarding the validity of a DNR, begin CPR and contact medical control.
The technique of rapid extrication from a vehicle involves:
A) Applying a cervical collar, grasping the patient by the clothing and quickly removing him or her onto the stretcher
B) Manually stabilizing the head, applying a cervical collar, and removing the patient from the vehicle onto a long backboard
C) Applying a vest-style extrication device, sliding a long backboard under the patient’s buttocks, and removing him or her from the vehicle
D) Grabbing the patient by his or her clothing, protecting his or her spine as much as possible, and dragging him or her from the vehicle
B) Manually stabilizing the head, applying a cervical collar, and removing the patient from the vehicle onto a long backboard
The rapid extrication technique is indicated if the patient has life-threatening injuries and/or is in need of treatment that requires a supine position. It is performed by manually stabilizing the patient’s head (an EMT in the backseat typically does this), applying a cervical collar, sliding a backboard under the patient’s buttocks, and removing the patient from the vehicle and onto the backboard. The vest-style extrication device is not appropriate to use when performing the rapid extrication technique; it takes too long to correctly apply. Do not confuse the rapid extrication technique with an emergency move. An emergency move, which is indicated if your own or the patient’s safety is in imminent danger, involves grabbing the patient by the clothing, protecting his or her spine as much as possible, and dragging him or her from the vehicle to a safe place.
When sizing up a motor vehicle crash in which a small passenger car struck a bridge pillar and sustained severe damage, you should:
A) Immediately approach the vehicle and determine if it is stable
B) Break the driver’s side window and gain rapid access to the patient
C) Disconnect the battery cables and then request heavy extrication tools
D) Ensure that there are no hazards and then try to open one of the doors
D) Ensure that there are no hazards and then try to open one of the doors
After ensuring your own safety, you should attempt simple means to gain access to the patient, trying to reach him or her as simply and quickly as possible without using any tools or breaking any glass. It may be necessary to use tools or other forcible entry methods, some of which may require specialized extrication equipment (eg, Jaws of Life). Many times, however, the patient can be accessed by just opening a door, even if the door is badly damaged. If the door is locked and the patient is responsive, ask him or her to unlock the door. Stabilizing the vehicle (eg, placing shoring blocks under the car) and disconnecting the car’s battery cables are typical functions of the fire department.
As you step out of the ambulance at the scene of a nighttime motor vehicle crash on the highway, your MOST immediate concern should be:
A) The presence of oncoming traffic
B) Whether the car will catch on fire
C) Placing safety flares by the ambulance
D) Rapid assessment of all injured patients
A) The presence of oncoming traffic
Nighttime traffic crashes, especially those that occur on a highway, pose a significant risk to the safety of the EMT. Therefore, immediately upon exiting the ambulance, concerns about oncoming traffic should be at the front of the EMT’s mind. Drivers can be blinded by all of the emergency lighting and inadvertently veer off of the road and strike the rescuer. Safety flares are used less commonly now than in the past; they have been known to blow off the road and start grass fires or ignite gasoline leaking from a vehicle. Reflective cones or triangles are safer and are used more often than flares. After ensuring your own safety, which includes notifying the fire department if the vehicle is leaking gas, you should then proceed to the patients.