operations exam Flashcards
At the scene of a hazardous materials incident, medical monitoring of patients and emergency personnel should occur:
A) in the hot zone
B) in the warm zone
C) in the cold zone
D) before decontamination
C) in the cold zone
The cold zone is a safe area where personnel do not need to wear any special protective clothing for safe operation. Personnel staging, the command post, EMS providers, and the area for medical monitoring, support, and/or treatment after decontamination are all located in the cold zone. The hot zone is the area immediately surrounding the release and is the most contaminated area; personnel should wear full protective clothing while in the hot zone, and the only operation that should occur is patient rescue. Decontamination of patients and rescue personnel should occur in the warm zone.
A patient is found unresponsive in his small bathroom. He is not breathing and is sitting in the corner. Two EMTs are able to reach him, but they are unable to stand side by side. He appears to weigh about 150 pounds and there is no evidence that he has been injured. Which of the following would be the quickest and MOST practical way of moving him out of the bathroom?
A) Extremity lift
B) Long backboard
C) Direct ground lift
D) Stair chair device
A) Extremity lift
A patient is found unresponsive in his small bathroom. He is not breathing and is sitting in the corner. Two EMTs are able to reach him, but they are unable to stand side by side. He appears to weigh about 150 pounds and there is no evidence that he has been injured. Which of the following would be the quickest and MOST practical way of moving him out of the bathroom?
Which of the following is considered minimum personal protective equipment (PPE) when suctioning an unresponsive patient’s airway?
A) Gloves and a mask
B) Gloves and full facial protection
C) Gloves, grown, and eye protection
D) Gloves, head cover, and eye protection
B) Gloves and full facial protection
You should wear gloves and eye protection when assessing or treating any patient. The level of personal protective equipment (PPE) used beyond this is dictated by the risk and type of exposure. When managing a patient’s airway (eg, suctioning, ventilating with a bag-mask device), you should use, at a minimum, gloves and full facial protection. This will protect you from oral and eye exposure if the patient coughs or vomits. A gown should be worn, in addition to gloves and full facial protection, anytime there is a risk of blood splatter. Examples of when this may occur include delivering a baby or caring for a combative patient with severe external bleeding. The level of PPE you use in a given situation should be guided by reasonable judgment and common sense.
Upon arriving at the scene of an overturned tanker truck, you see a clear liquid leaking from the rear of the tank. The driver is still in the vehicle, and you can see that his face is covered with blood. What should you do?
A) Put on gloves, a gown, and a mask and quickly remove the driver
B) Stage upwind from the incident and what for the fire department
C) Approach the rear of a tanker to identify the type of fluid leaking
D) Ensure that the ambulance is downwind and downhill from the tanker
B) Stage upwind from the incident and wait for the fire department
Upon determining that you are dealing with a potential hazardous materials incident, you should immediately request specially trained personnel (eg, fire department, Haz-Mat team) if they are not already en route to the scene. Do not approach a vehicle that may be leaking a hazardous material, even if the patient is still in the vehicle, or you may become a casualty as well. Most ambulances are not equipped with the personal protective equipment required for potential hazardous materials exposure. Park your ambulance in a location that is both upwind and uphill from the incident. Until additional personnel arrive, try to identify the material being carried by reading the United Nations (UN) number on the safety placard affixed to the tanker; however, this should be done from a safe distance and with the use of binoculars.
Medical control has ordered you to administer one tube of oral glucose to a hypoglycemic patient. Immediately after receiving this order, you should:
A) document the order on the prehospital care report
B) administer the medication and reassess the patient
C) ask medical control to repeat the order word for word
D) repeat the order back to medical control word for word
D) repeat the order back to medical control word for word
Immediately after receiving an order from medical control, you should repeat the order back to medical control word for word. This will ensure that you heard correctly and understand the order to be carried out. If you receive an order that seems inappropriate, you should ask the physician to repeat the order back to you for clarification. Reassess the patient after administering the medication and document the time and patient’s response (good or bad) on your patient care report.
During triage of multiple patients at a bus crash, you encounter a young man who is hysterical because he believes he caused the accident. Other than minor abrasions to his arms and face, he has no other apparent injuries. What should you do?
A) Assign him an immediate priority and remove him from the site
B) Ask another uninjured patient to stay with the patient at all times
C) Direct him to go to the area where the walking wounded patients are
D) Remain with him until he is calm and then assign him a delayed category
A) Assign him an immediate priority and remove him from the site
There are a few special situations in triage. Patients who are hysterical and disruptive to triage and rescue efforts may need to be handled as an immediate priority and transported off the site, even if they are not seriously injured. Panic breeds panic, and this type of behavior could have a negative impact on other patients and on the responders.
While triaging patients at a mass-casualty incident, you encounter a responsive middle-aged woman with a respiratory rate of 26 breaths/min. What should you do next?
A) Triage her as immediate (red tag)
B) Assess for bilateral radial pulses
C) Administer high-flow oxygen at once
D) Assess her ability to follow commands
B) Assess for bilateral radial pulses
According to the Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment (START) method, if you encounter an adult patient with a respiratory rate that is less than 10 breaths/min or greater than 29 breaths/min, you should triage him or her as immediate (red tag) and move to the next patient. However, if the patient’s respiratory rate is between 10 and 29 breaths/min, you should assess his or her hemodynamic status by checking for bilateral radial pulses. If the patient’s radial pulses are absent, triage him or her as immediate and move to the next patient. If the patient’s radial pulses are present, assess his or her ability to follow simple commands. If the patient is able to follow simple commands, triage him or her as delayed (yellow tag) and move to the next patient. If the patient is unable to follow simple commands, triage him or her as immediate and move to the next patient. Treatment does not occur during the initial triage process.
The MOST effective means of preventing the spread of disease is:
A) Effective handwashing
B) up-to-date immunizations
C) Wearing gloves with all patients
D) Wearing a mask with pall patients
A) effective handwashing
According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), the most effective way of preventing the spread of disease is to frequently and effectively wash your hands, especially in between patients. The regular use of gloves with all patients and wearing a mask when managing a patient with a communicable disease (eg, tuberculosis) will decrease your chance of disease exposure. Keeping up-to-date with your immunizations will reduce your risk of contracting certain diseases if you are exposed to them
Failure of the EMT to obtain consent from a responsive patient before taking his or her blood pressure may constitute:
A) Battery
B) Negligence
C) Abandonment
D) Assault
A) Battery
Battery is defined as unlawfully touching another person without his or her consent. Obtaining consent from every responsive patient prior to rendering care is of paramount importance. Assault is defined as instilling fear into another person, but does not necessarily involve actually touching him or her. Laws can vary from state to state as to these definitions. Negligence occurs when the EMT fails to act as another prudent EMT would have acted in the same or similar situation. Abandonment occurs when the EMT terminates patient care without the patient’s consent or transfers care of a patient to a provider of lesser training.
While transporting a patient with chest pain, the patient asks the EMT if he is going to die. Which of the following would be the EMT’s MOST appropriate response?
A) “I don’t know, but I’m going to take very good care of you.”
B) “Everything will be okay, so please try to remain calm.”
C) “No. Most cases of chest pain are not related to the heart.”
D) “There is nothing to worry about; I will not let that happen.”
A) “I don’t know, but I’m going to take very good care of you.”
When caring for any patient, the EMT should provide emotional reassurance; however, he or she must be honest with the patient. If a patient asks you if he or she is going to die, the honest answer is “I do not know,” because the fact is, you do NOT know. Comfort the patient by reassuring him or her that you are going to provide the best care possible, but do NOT lie. Speak to the patient like a clinician, not a technician with what you feel is an appropriate canned response
Which of the following statements regarding the use of an escort vehicle when en route to an emergency call is correct?
A) An escort vehicle will allow you to arrive at the scene more quickly
B) To avoid getting separated from the escort vehicle you should follow it closely
C) An escort vehicle should be used only if you are unfamiliar with the patient’s location
D) With an escort vehicle, the risk of an accident at an intersection is reduced significantly
C) An escort vehicle should be used only if you are unfamiliar with the patient’s location
Generally, escort vehicles should not be used when responding to an emergency scene. The biggest danger of using an escort occurs at intersections, which is where most ambulance crashes occur. Drivers may yield to the escort vehicle, but may not be prepared for a second vehicle following the escort (a wake effect collision). The only time that an escort may be required is when you are unfamiliar with the location of the patient and need assistance getting there. If an escort must be used, you must follow at a safe distance of at least 500 feet.
The scene size-up includes all of the following components, EXCEPT:
A) Determining if the scene is safe
B) Donning personal protective gear
C) Assessing the need for assistance
D) evaluating the mechanism of injury
B) Donning personal protective gear
The components of the scene size-up include determining scene safety, assessing the mechanism of injury (MOI) or nature of illness (NOI), determining the number of patients, and requesting additional help if needed. Personal protective equipment (PPE) should be donned prior to beginning the scene size-up.
An ambulance and fire apparatus are the first to arrive at a motor vehicle crash on a three-lane highway. There is one vehicle involved and it is located in the far left-hand lane. Where should the ambulance be positioned?
A) In between the fire apparatus and crashed motor vehicle
B) 100 feet past the crashed vehicle, on the same side of the highway
C) Alongside the crashed vehicle in the middle lane of the highway
D) 100 feet past the crashed vehicle on the opposite side of the highway
B) 100 feet past the crashed vehicle, on the same side of the highway
Emergency operations on the highway can be especially dangerous, and it is important to position emergency vehicles in a manner that will ensure responder safety, while at the same time allowing efficient traffic control and flow around the crash scene. Do not park alongside the scene, as you may block the movement of other emergency vehicles. The first emergency vehicle to arrive on scene should park 100 feet before the scene on the same side of the road as the accident. The first vehicle should create a barrier between the scene and oncoming traffic. If other responders have not arrived on scene, the ambulance can be positioned to block the scene and prevent oncoming traffic from getting too close to the scene and emergency personnel. If fire apparatus or law enforcement officers are on scene, they should position their vehicles before the scene, while the ambulance is parked 100 feet beyond the scene. Park the ambulance on the same side of the highway as the crash; this will prevent personnel from crossing the road unnecessarily.
When the incident command system is activated at the scene, you should expect to:
A) Receive instructions and then function independently
B) Be immediately directed to the established treatment area
C) Report back to your section officer in between assignment
D) Be assigned one responsibility for the duration of the incident
C) Report back to your section officer in between assignment
The incident command system (ICS) was established to maximize effective operations at the scene and maximize the number of lives saved. Deviation from the ICS jeopardizes lives and increases the risk of losing control over the situation. When you arrive at a scene where the ICS has been activated, you should report to the staging area; you will then be directed to the area in which you are needed. Report to the section officer of that area, receive your instructions, and carry them out. When you have completed your assignment, you must return to the section officer for further instructions. Depending on the situation, you may be sent to another section. The sections that you work in and the responsibilities that you are given may change during the incident. At no time should you attempt to function independently (freelancing); this defeats the purpose of the ICS and puts lives in jeopardy.
You and your partner have secured a trauma patient to a long backboard and are preparing to lift the backboard onto the stretcher. When doing so, you should:
A) Lift the backboard from the sides instead of the ends
B) Be sure to lift the backboard with the powerful muscles of your back
C) Recall that most of the patient’s weight is at the foot end of the backboard
D) Ensure that the strongest EMT is positioned at the head of the backboard
D) Ensure that the strongest EMT is positioned at the head of the backboard
Since most of the patient’s weight is distributed to the head end of a backboard, you should always ensure that the strongest EMT is at that position. This will reduce the risk of injury to less strong personnel as well as the risk of dropping the patient. The backboard should be lifted from the ends, not the sides; you have less control over the board if it is lifted from the sides. When lifting any patient, you should use the powerful muscles of your thighs, not your back, to lift. Keep your back straight and in a locked-in position.
EMTs are dispatched to a nursing home for a 78-year-old woman who is running a fever. When they arrive, the nurse advises them that the patient’s physician wants her to be taken to the hospital, and that her daughter is en route to the nursing home. The patient is conscious, alert, and oriented, and refuses to go to the hospital. In this case, consent to treat and transport this patient:
A) Has not been obtained because the patient is alert and oriented
B) Is implied because the patient is elderly and lives in a nursing home
C) Can only be obtained once the patient’s daughter
D) Is expressed since her physician, wants her to be taken to the hospital
A) Has not been obtained because the patient is alert and oriented
You must obtain consent to assess and treat any patient who is of legal age and has decision-making capacity. The patient is conscious, alert, and oriented and has decision-making capacity. If she refuses transport, even if her physician requests it, you have NOT obtained consent. Many believe that residents who live in skilled nursing facilities or assisted-living centers relinquish their right to direct their own healthcare; this is NOT true. If a patient is of legal age and has decision-making capacity, consent to treat and transport must be given by them, not a family member. If the patient does not have decision-making capacity, then consent to treat is implied. In this situation, as with any situation in which the patient should be transported to the hospital, you should talk to the patient and explain to her that she could be seriously ill, and that evaluation by a physician would be in her best interest.
You arrive at the scene of an 80-year-old woman who is weak and lightheaded. Her son, who called 911, is present and asks you to transport his mother to the hospital. You should:
A) Advise the son that he can probably drive his mother to the hospital
B) Comply with the son’s request and transport the woman to the hospital
C) Take the woman’s vital signs and apply supplemental oxygen if necessary
D) Assess the woman and determine if she wishes to be treated and transported
D) Assess the woman and determine if she wishes to be treated and transported
You must obtain consent from any mentally competent adult patient prior to initiating treatment. Just because the patient is 80 years old does not mean that she does not have decision-making capacity. Also, just because her son wants her to be transported does not mean that she agrees with this request. Ask her if she wishes to be treated and transported to the hospital. If she does, then you have obtained consent and should proceed accordingly. If she does not, you should determine if she has decision-making capacity–that is, whether she is mentally competent. If she is determined to have decision-making capacity, then you cannot legally treat or transport her. If she does not have decision-making capacity (eg, she is confused, she is under the influence of drugs or alcohol), then you may treat and transport under the law of implied consent. It is not the EMT’s decision to determine, let alone recommend, that a patient be taken to the hospital via privately owned vehicle (POV). If the patient requests EMS treatment and transport, you are legally obligated to do so.
The ultimate goal of any EMS quality improvement program is to:
A) Deliver a consistency high standard of care to all patients who are encountered
B) Ensure that all personnel receive an adequate number of continuing education hours
C) Provide protocol to all EMTs and hold them accountable if protocols are not followed
D) Recognize all EMTs who demonstrate consistency in providing competent patient care
A) Deliver a consistency high standard of care to all patients who are encountered
Providing continuing education to all personnel, recognizing those who consistently provide competent patient care, and holding all personnel accountable for adhering to the EMS protocols are all components of any EMS quality improvement program. The ultimate goal, however, is to provide, as a system, a consistently high standard of care to all patients who are encountered.
At the scene of a mass-casualty incident, you notice a bystander who is emotionally upset. An appropriate action to take would be to:
A) Tell the bystander to leave the scene at once
B) Have the bystander assist you with patient care
C) Notify the police and have the bystander removed
D) Assign the bystander a simple, non-patient-care task
D) Assign the bystander a simple, non-patient-care task
One of the most effective ways to reduce stress in a bystander at the scene of a mass-casualty incident is to assign the bystander a task that is not related to patient care. This may involve assisting other bystanders who are having difficulties as well or providing water to the rescuers. An obviously distressed bystander should not simply be sent away from the scene, but should be looked at as a patient as well. Clearly, if the bystander becomes aggressive or violent, law enforcement personnel should get involved.
Which of the following actions demonstrates the EMT’s knowledge of crime scene preservation?
A) At the scene fo a shooting, the EMT removes the bullets from a handgun and gives them to a police officer
B) The EMT places a shooting victim’s blood-soaked shirt in to a clean plastic bag and then gives it to the police officer
C) While caring for a patient who was stabbed, the EMT moved a coffee table and then informs a police officer afterward
D) After assessing a patient with a single stab wound to the chest, the EMT requests law enforcement permission to treat
C) While caring for a patient who was stabbed, the EMT moved a coffee table and then informs a police officer afterward
After ensuring the safety of you and your crew, your next priority when functioning at a crime scene is to provide emergency patient care. If you need to move a piece of furniture to gain access to a critically injured patient, you should move the furniture, treat the patient, and then advise a law enforcement officer of what you moved and where you moved it to. In this way, you provide immediate care to the patient, but remain aware that the location of any obstacles between you and the patient may serve as evidence. Clearly, you would not request approval from a law enforcement officer before treating a critically injured patient. Items that may have evidence on them, such as article of clothing, should be placed in a paper bag; condensation can accumulate in plastic bags, potentially destroying any evidence. Handling weapons used in the crime can contaminate any fingerprints that may be present and would clearly be inappropriate. Unloading of firearms is a function of law enforcement, not EMS.
An 92-year-old man is unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. His skin is warm and his face and chest are cyanotic. In this circumstance, you and your partner should:
A) Ask for a do not resuscitate order before starting CPR
B) Contact medical control to determine if CPR is indicated
C) Begin CPR and apply the AED as soon as it is available
D) Recognize that resuscitation is not indicated for him
C) Begin CPR and apply the AED as soon as it is available
Pulselessness, apnea, and cyanosis are presumptive signs of death, not definitive. Therefore, you should begin resuscitative measures, including CPR and defibrillation (if indicated). Resuscitation is not indicated if definitive signs of death are present, such as rigor mortis, livor mortis (pooling), putrefaction, or injuries that are clearly not compatible with life (ie, decapitation). It is acceptable to ask if a do not resuscitate (DNR) order is present; however, this should be done after you have initiated CPR. If a valid out of hospital DNR is presented, then resuscitation is not indicated; follow your local protocols. If there is question regarding the validity of a DNR, begin CPR and contact medical control.
The technique of rapid extrication from a vehicle involves:
A) Applying a cervical collar, grasping the patient by the clothing and quickly removing him or her onto the stretcher
B) Manually stabilizing the head, applying a cervical collar, and removing the patient from the vehicle onto a long backboard
C) Applying a vest-style extrication device, sliding a long backboard under the patient’s buttocks, and removing him or her from the vehicle
D) Grabbing the patient by his or her clothing, protecting his or her spine as much as possible, and dragging him or her from the vehicle
B) Manually stabilizing the head, applying a cervical collar, and removing the patient from the vehicle onto a long backboard
The rapid extrication technique is indicated if the patient has life-threatening injuries and/or is in need of treatment that requires a supine position. It is performed by manually stabilizing the patient’s head (an EMT in the backseat typically does this), applying a cervical collar, sliding a backboard under the patient’s buttocks, and removing the patient from the vehicle and onto the backboard. The vest-style extrication device is not appropriate to use when performing the rapid extrication technique; it takes too long to correctly apply. Do not confuse the rapid extrication technique with an emergency move. An emergency move, which is indicated if your own or the patient’s safety is in imminent danger, involves grabbing the patient by the clothing, protecting his or her spine as much as possible, and dragging him or her from the vehicle to a safe place.
When sizing up a motor vehicle crash in which a small passenger car struck a bridge pillar and sustained severe damage, you should:
A) Immediately approach the vehicle and determine if it is stable
B) Break the driver’s side window and gain rapid access to the patient
C) Disconnect the battery cables and then request heavy extrication tools
D) Ensure that there are no hazards and then try to open one of the doors
D) Ensure that there are no hazards and then try to open one of the doors
After ensuring your own safety, you should attempt simple means to gain access to the patient, trying to reach him or her as simply and quickly as possible without using any tools or breaking any glass. It may be necessary to use tools or other forcible entry methods, some of which may require specialized extrication equipment (eg, Jaws of Life). Many times, however, the patient can be accessed by just opening a door, even if the door is badly damaged. If the door is locked and the patient is responsive, ask him or her to unlock the door. Stabilizing the vehicle (eg, placing shoring blocks under the car) and disconnecting the car’s battery cables are typical functions of the fire department.
As you step out of the ambulance at the scene of a nighttime motor vehicle crash on the highway, your MOST immediate concern should be:
A) The presence of oncoming traffic
B) Whether the car will catch on fire
C) Placing safety flares by the ambulance
D) Rapid assessment of all injured patients
A) The presence of oncoming traffic
Nighttime traffic crashes, especially those that occur on a highway, pose a significant risk to the safety of the EMT. Therefore, immediately upon exiting the ambulance, concerns about oncoming traffic should be at the front of the EMT’s mind. Drivers can be blinded by all of the emergency lighting and inadvertently veer off of the road and strike the rescuer. Safety flares are used less commonly now than in the past; they have been known to blow off the road and start grass fires or ignite gasoline leaking from a vehicle. Reflective cones or triangles are safer and are used more often than flares. After ensuring your own safety, which includes notifying the fire department if the vehicle is leaking gas, you should then proceed to the patients.
As soon as you begin transport of a patient to the hospital, you should:
A) Contact medical control
B) Notify the receiving facility
C) Advise dispatch of your status
D) Conduct a detailed examination
C) Advise dispatch of your status
Immediately upon departing the scene with a patient, you should first inform the dispatcher that you are en route to the hospital. Never leave the dispatcher in the dark, because it is the dispatcher’s job to know which units are available to answer emergency calls. Notifying the receiving facility, contacting medical control, and performing a detailed assessment of your patient all can occur while you are en route to the hospital.
When arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash at night, you determine that the safest place to park the ambulance is in a direction that faces oncoming traffic. What should you do?
A) Position road flares around the front of the ambulance
B) Turn all emergency lighting off to avoid blinding traffic
C) Turn the high-beam headlights own to alert oncoming traffic
D) Turn your headlights off, but keep the emergency lights on
D) Turn your headlights off, but keep the emergency lights on
Emergency operations on the highway at night can be especially dangerous for responders; it is important to position emergency vehicles correctly, while at the same time ensuring visibility for oncoming traffic without blinding them. First of all, road flares near an automobile crash are dangerous because leaking fluids, such as gasoline, may not be immediately apparent; safety triangles are safer. If your emergency vehicle is facing oncoming traffic, you should keep your emergency lights on, but turn your headlights off. Bright lights, such as high-beam headlights, can effectively blind and disorient an oncoming driver, and could cause them to crash into the scene.
You are called to transport a patient with terminal lung cancer from a skilled nursing facility to the emergency department for evaluation of possible pneumonia. As you are reviewing the transfer paperwork, you see that the patient has a valid do not attempt resuscitation order. During transport, you should:
A) Perform CPR for only 2 minutes if the patient develops cardiac arrest
B) Disregard the DNAR order because it is only valid in the hospital setting
C) Provide supportive care, such as oxygen, and keep the patient comfortable
D) Monitor the patient because a DNAR order prohibits you from providing care
C) Provide supportive care, such as oxygen, and keep the patient comfortable
A valid do not attempt resuscitation (DNAR) order gives you the legal authority not to initiate resuscitative efforts if the patient develops cardiac arrest. Because laws vary from state to state, you must be familiar with the DNAR laws in the state in which you work as an EMT. Many states have adopted out-of-hospital DNAR orders; these are legal documents and should be adhered to if they are valid. Generally speaking, a valid DNAR order must clearly state the patient’s medical problem(s), be signed by the patient or legal guardian, and be signed by one or more physicians. In some states, DNAR orders have an expiration date, while in others, no expiration date is included. Contact medical control for guidance if the validity of a DNAR order is questionable. Even in the presence of a valid DNAR order, you are still obligated to provide supportive measures, such as oxygen, pain relief, and comfort. DNAR does NOT mean do not treat.
Which of the following is an example of gross negligence?
A) EMTs accidentally drop a patient when they are moving him from his bed to the wheeled ambulance stretcher.
B) The EMT elects not to use spinal precautions on a patient, and the patient is later diagnosed with a spinal fracture.
C) During the ambulance check, the EMT documents that the oxygen cylinder is full, knowing that it is empty.
D) The EMT removes expired aspirin from the ambulance, but forgets to replace it and then has a call for chest pain.
C) During the ambulance check, the EMT documents that the oxygen cylinder is full, knowing that it is empty.
In the context of medicine, negligence is defined as the failure to provide the same care that a person with similar training would provide in the same or a similar situation. Negligence can further be classified as ordinary and gross. Ordinary negligence is a mere failure to exercise reasonable care. Gross negligence, however, is a conscious and voluntary disregard of the need to provide reasonable care, which is likely to cause foreseeable grave injury or harm to a patient. Of the options listed, documenting that an oxygen cylinder is full, knowing that it is empty, meets the definition of gross negligence because the EMT knowingly and voluntarily chose to falsify the ambulance check. The EMT who elects not to use spinal precautions on a patient who is later diagnosed with a spinal fracture may constitute ordinary negligence, especially if spinal precautions were clinically indicated. The remaining examples do not depict negligence because they were not done voluntarily and wantonly.
You arrive at the scene of a young man who was stabbed. Law enforcement officers are present. The patient, who is unresponsive with several stab wounds to the chest, is lying in a narrow space between a couch and coffee table. You should:
A) treat the patient where he is, without moving the coffee table.
B) move the coffee table, begin patient care, and notify a police officer.
C) obtain permission from law enforcement before moving any furniture.
D) move the coffee table, document what you did, and begin treatment.
B) move the coffee table, begin patient care, and notify a police officer.
After ensuring your own safety, your primary responsibility when functioning at a crime scene is to provide patient care. Optimally, you should help preserve the scene at the same time. In this situation, however, the patient requires immediate treatment; he is unresponsive and has life-threatening injuries. It would be difficult to provide effective care in his present position, and notifying law enforcement before you move any furniture would unnecessarily delay care. Therefore, you should move the coffee table out of the way and begin treatment. When possible, notify a law enforcement officer of what you moved, where you moved it to, and why you moved it. You should also document this action on the patient care report, AFTER you have cared for the patient.
You are the first ambulance to arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle crash. As you approach the scene, you see three patients: two have been ejected from their vehicles and the other is still in his vehicle. You should:
A) begin triaging and treating the most critically injured patients.
B) request additional ambulances to respond to the scene.
C) call medical control and apprise him or her of the situation.
D) notify the local trauma center so personnel there can prepare for the patients.
B) request additional ambulances to respond to the scene.
One of the most important aspects of the scene size-up is determining the need for additional resources. A single EMS unit and two EMTs cannot effectively manage three patients, especially if those patients are critically injured. Therefore, you must first request additional ambulances at the scene. After requesting additional resources, begin the processes of triage and treatment. Notify the local trauma center early, if possible, so personnel there can prepare to take care of the patients; however, your first priority is to maximize patient care at the scene by requesting additional ambulances.
Which of the following components is NOT part of an injury or illness prevention program?
A) Inspecting the home of young parents for child safety locks
B) Teaching new parents how to properly install a child safety seat
C) Educating teenage students on the dangers of drinking and driving
D) Training a group of daycare employees on infant and child CPR
D) Training a group of daycare employees on infant and child CPR
The operative word in injury and illness prevention is prevention. An injury or illness prevention program should focus on actions that prevent illness or injury. These include, but are not limited to, teaching new parents how to properly install a child safety seat, educating teenage students on the dangers of drinking and driving, and conducting a courtesy inspection of the home of young parents for the presence of child safety locks. Training laypeople in CPR, although a critical service, is not part of a prevention program; CPR is not needed until an injury or illness has already occurred.
Which of the following statements would NOT be appropriate to include in your patient care report?
A) “The patient stated that he wanted to kill himself.”
B) “The patient’s breath smelled strongly of alcohol.”
C) “The patient’s wife stated that he is drunk again.”
D) “The patient requires inpatient psychiatric care.”
D) “The patient requires inpatient psychiatric care.”
Documentation in the patient care report (PCR) should be factual, objective, and free of personal opinion. Statements made by the patient, family members, or bystanders should be included, but should be placed in quotation marks exactly as they were spoken. Notation of the odor of alcohol on a patient’s breath is an objective assessment finding. On the other hand, stating that a patient is drunk would be subjective because you cannot make that legal determination. Stating that a patient requires inpatient psychiatric care is also a subjective statement that is reflective of one’s personal opinion.
After arriving at a mass-casualty incident where other ambulances are already present, you should:
A) repeat the triage process.
B) report to the staging area.
C) initiate care for the most critically injured patients.
D) obtain information from the fire service commander.
B) report to the staging area.
Once you arrive at the scene of a mass-casualty incident where an incident command system has already been established, you should report to the staging area, the area designated for all incoming ambulances and resources. The staging officer will know where help is needed the most and will be able to direct your actions accordingly.
A man who was recently diagnosed with advanced cancer tells the EMT that he doesn’t think that chemotherapy is necessary because his cancer is “not that bad.” What stage of the grieving process is this consistent with?
A) Anger
B) Denial
C) Bargaining
D) Acceptance
B) Denial
This scenario depicts classic denial. Despite the fact that the patient was diagnosed with advanced cancer, he refuses to believe that the situation is very serious. During the anger phase of the grieving process, the patient may make statements such as “why me?” During the bargaining phase, the patient may make promises (for example, being a better person or going to church) in exchange for additional time to live. The acceptance phase, which is usually the most difficult phase for the patient’s family, occurs when the patient fully realizes and accepts the significance of the situation and comes to peace with it. It is important to note that the stages of grieving do not always follow a specific order.
A red placard indicates that the material inside a tanker is:
A) radioactive.
B) explosive.
C) corrosive.
D) flammable.
D) flammable.
Placards are diamond-shaped indicators that are placed on all four sides of highway transport vehicles, railroad tank cars, and other forms of transportation carrying hazardous materials. They identify the broad hazard class to which the material inside belongs. Red placards indicate that the material is flammable. Orange placards indicate that the material is explosive. White and yellow placards indicate that the material is radioactive. Black and white placards indicate that the material is corrosive. Refer to the Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) for detailed information regarding placard colors and numbers.
At the scene of a mass-casualty incident in which the incident command system has been established, an EMT arrives in his personal vehicle and begins treating patients independently. This EMT’s action would MOST likely lead to:
A) reduced efficiency of the operation.
B) faster treatment of critical patients.
C) rapid identification of critical patients.
D) faster transport of the critically injured.
A) reduced efficiency of the operation.
When the incident command system (ICS) has been established, incoming personnel report to the staging area, where they are assigned to a specific section to perform specific tasks. When these tasks are completed, the individual should report back to the assigning individual for further assignment. Personnel who take it upon themselves to function independently outside of the ICS structure are called freelancers. Freelancing is NOT beneficial in any way; it reduces the efficiency of the entire operation. Furthermore, freelancing does not allow faster identification and transport of critical patients; in fact, it only creates confusion. The ICS is established to facilitate a smooth, efficient operation and minimize loss of life. Freelancing, on the other hand, is completely counterproductive and could actually result in unnecessary loss of life.
Most crashes involving ambulances occur:
A) at stop signs.
B) on the highway.
C) at stop lights.
D) at intersections.
D) at intersections.
Intersection crashes are the most common and usually the most serious type of collision in which ambulances are involved. When approaching an intersection, you should come to a complete stop, look in both directions for pedestrians and other motorists, and then proceed with caution. Remember, your lights and siren do NOT give you the right of way; they simply ask other motorists for the courtesy of the right of way. If you proceed through an intersection without stopping and strike another vehicle that had the right of way, you will be held liable. Whether your lights and siren were in use at the time of the incident is irrelevant.
While en route to the scene of an injured person, dispatch advises you that law enforcement personnel are at the scene. This indicates that:
A) a crime has been committed.
B) the scene is potentially unsafe.
C) the patient is critically injured.
D) the scene is safe for you to enter.
B) the scene is potentially unsafe.
The presence of law enforcement at the scene indicates, at a minimum, that the scene is potentially unsafe; otherwise, they would not have been summoned. While you are en route, you should make radio contact with the police officers at the scene to determine if it is safe for you to enter; you should also inquire about the severity of the patient’s injuries. The more information you obtain before you arrive, the better. For all you know, you could arrive and find yourself in the middle of a firefight! The mere presence of law enforcement at the scene does NOT ensure a safe environment.
Which of the following patients has the highest priority at the scene of a mass-casualty incident?
A) 29-year-old man who is pulseless and apneic with an abdominal evisceration
B) 35-year-old unresponsive woman with snoring respirations and severe burns
C) 38-year-old woman who remains apneic after you manually open her airway
D) 44-year-old unresponsive man with an open head injury and agonal gasps
B) 35-year-old unresponsive woman with snoring respirations and severe burns
The goal of triage is to provide the greatest good for the greatest number of people. Relative to the other patients, who are either in respiratory or cardiac arrest or have injuries incompatible with life, the woman with snoring respirations and severe burns has the best chance for survival. Therefore, she is the highest treatment priority.
You are caring for a man with terminal cancer when his caretaker presents you with a Physician Order for Life-Sustaining Treatment (POLST) form. The purpose of this form is to:
A) advise medical providers that resuscitation is not to be attempted.
B) describe acceptable patient interventions in the form of medical orders.
C) enable the caretaker to make healthcare decisions on the patient’s behalf.
D) limit the treatment provided to the patient to basic life support care.
B) describe acceptable patient interventions in the form of medical orders.
As an EMT, you may encounter Physician Orders for Life-Sustaining (POLST) or Medical Orders for Life-Sustaining Treatment (MOLST) forms when caring for patients with terminal illnesses. These documents explicitly describe acceptable interventions in the form of medical orders. These forms must be signed by an authorized medical provider in order to be valid; this may be a physician, physician assistant, or nurse practitioner, and varies by state. If you encounter these documents, follow your agency protocols or contact medical control for guidance. A POLST or MOLST form is NOT a do not resuscitate (DNR) order or living will, nor does it limit treatment to basic or advanced life support. The interventions listed on the document vary, depending on the patient’s needs. An out-of-hospital DNR order is a legal document that informs EMS personnel that resuscitation is not indicated. A durable power of attorney for healthcare enables a family member or other designated individual to make healthcare decisions on the patient’s behalf.
Your partner, a veteran EMT of 20 years, has been showing up late to work with increasing frequency over the last several shifts. When he arrives, he is in a bad mood and is clearly not interested in being at work. His behavior is MOST consistent with:
A) burnout.
B) delirium.
C) drug use.
D) acute stress.
A) Burnout
Your partner’s behavior is consistent with burnout. Burnout is a condition of chronic fatigue, irritability, and frustration that results from mounting stress over time. Although burnout typically manifests after years of service in EMS, some EMTs begin to experience it in a very short period of time, especially if they work in EMS systems with a high call volume and low morale. Some people with burnout abuse drugs or alcohol; if you suspect this behavior, you should report it to your supervisor immediately. The best way to prevent burnout is to recognize the signs of stress and take action to reduce it. An acute stress reaction occurs in response to a sudden, unexpected event; it is clear that your partner has experienced many stressful events over his career. Delirium is an acute change in cognitive ability; it commonly results from conditions such as hypoxia, hypoglycemia, and drug toxicity.
You arrive at the scene of a traffic accident in which multiple vehicles are involved. You see at least two patients who are lying on the road and are not moving. You should:
A) begin triaging the patients.
B) begin immediate patient care.
C) notify medical control for advice.
D) request additional ambulances.
D) request additional ambulances.
As soon as you determine that there are more patients than you and your partner can effectively manage, you should immediately request additional help. Waiting until you are overwhelmed with critically injured patients is not the time to call for help. When in doubt, it is best to call for help. You can always cancel any incoming ambulances if you later determine that they are not needed. After you have called for assistance, you should begin triaging and caring for the patients to the best of your ability.
Which of the following statements BEST describes a mass-casualty incident?
A) More than five patients are involved.
B) At least half of the patients are critically injured.
C) The number of patients overwhelms your resources.
D) More than three vehicles are involved in the incident.
C) The number of patients overwhelms your resources.
A mass-casualty incident (MCI) occurs anytime the number of injured patients overwhelms your available resources. It is not necessarily defined by the number of patients, but rather by your ability to effectively manage them. For example, if you and your partner arrive at a scene and find two critically injured patients, you have an MCI (albeit a small-scale MCI) because two EMTs and one ambulance can care for only one critically ill or injured patient effectively.
Upon arriving at the scene of a crash involving a large truck, you immediately note the presence of an orange placard on the side of the tank that the truck is pulling. This indicates that the vehicle is carrying which type of agent?
A) Corrosive
B) Flammable
C) Radioactive
D) Explosive
D) Explosive
The color of a warning placard indicates the general classification of agent being carried, while the United Nations (UN) number in the center of the placard indicates the exact agent being carried. For example, a red placard bearing the UN number 1203 indicates gasoline; red indicates the classification (flammable), and 1203 indicates the exact agent (gasoline). Orange placards indicate explosive or blasting agents, placards that are half yellow and half white indicate radioactive agents, and black placards indicate corrosive agents. Use your emergency response guidebook (and binoculars, if appropriate) to identify both the classification and the exact agent involved.
While caring for an injured patient, you remove blood-soaked clothing to treat his injuries. You should dispose of the clothing by:
A) leaving it at the scene.
B) leaving it at the hospital.
C) placing it in a biohazard bag.
D) placing it in a regular trashcan.
C) placing it in a biohazard bag.
The appropriate method for disposing of soiled clothing or any other “nonsharp” contaminated item is to place it in a red biohazard bag. The biohazard insignia as well as the red color alerts others that the items within the bag are contaminated. Blood-soaked items should not be placed in a regular trashcan.
When calling in your radio report to the receiving hospital, you should:
A) include the patient’s name.
B) be brief, concise, and factual.
C) give your report only to a physician.
D) break your report into 60-second increments.
B) be brief, concise, and factual.
A radio report should be brief, concise, and factual. It should include the patient’s age and sex, his or her chief complaint, associated assessment findings, vital signs, treatment that you provided, and the patient’s response to your treatment. Avoid speculative statements regarding the patient’s condition; report only what you know to be fact. Longer radio reports should be broken into 30-second increments; after 30 seconds, pause and ensure the listener heard your previous traffic. The patient’s name is not vital to your report; thus, there is no need to disclose it. Unless you are requesting medical direction, it is acceptable, and routine practice, to give your report to a registered nurse.
Which of the following is an example of the EMT providing care based on standing orders?
A) Following assessment of a patient with a terminal illness, the EMT contacts the patient’s personal physician to determine whether he or she requires any special care.
B) Prior to administering oral glucose to a patient with hypoglycemia, the EMT confirms the proper dosage and requests authorization from the base station physician.
C) The EMT defibrillates a patient with the automated external defibrillator, directs immediate resumption of CPR, and then contacts medical control for further guidance.
D) After confirming that a patient’s blood pressure is adequate, the EMT contacts medical control and requests permission to assist the patient with his prescribed nitroglycerin.
C) The EMT defibrillates a patient with the automated external defibrillator, directs immediate resumption of CPR, and then contacts medical control for further guidance.
Standing orders define certain treatment interventions that the EMT is authorized to perform prior to contacting medical control. For example, the EMT knows that a cardiac arrest patient requires CPR, cardiac rhythm analysis with the AED, and defibrillation (if indicated); contacting medical control before performing these crucial interventions would simply waste time and increase the chance of a negative patient outcome. Standing orders generally apply to interventions that the patient requires to prevent immediate death. Follow your local protocols regarding which interventions you are authorized to perform prior to contacting medical control.
In most states, the EMT is required to report which of the following occurrences?
A) Animal bite
B) Drug overdose
C) Injury to a minor
D) Motor vehicle crash
A) Animal bite
Although each state may have slightly differing reporting laws, most require the EMT to report cases such as child or elderly abuse, sexual assault, animal bites, and injury that occurs during the commission of a crime. Injury to a minor is typically not a reportable case unless abuse is suspected. Motor vehicle crashes and drug overdoses are not reportable cases either, unless they occur during the commission of a crime.
When arriving at a chemical plant fire, the incident commander should expect a plant representative to present a/an:
A) bill of lading (freight bill).
B) material safety data sheet.
C) company policy handbook.
D) Emergency Response Guidebook.
B) material safety data sheet.
All facilities that use or store chemicals are required by law to have a material safety data sheet (MSDS) on file for each chemical used or stored in the facility. Many sites, especially those that stock many different chemicals, may keep this information archived on a computer. The MSDS provides basic information about the chemical makeup of a substance, the potential hazards it presents, appropriate first aid in the event of an exposure, and other pertinent data for safe handling of the chemical. Shipping papers, called bills of lading (freight bills), are required whenever chemicals are being transported from one place to another. Drivers transporting chemicals are required by law to have a set of shipping papers on their person or within easy reach inside the cab at all times. The company’s policy handbook is of no real value to the incident commander. The Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) is a tool for emergency responders; it is typically not present at a chemical plant or similar site.
While you are inside a crashed vehicle assessing a patient who is entrapped, the rescue team should be:
A) awaiting specific instructions from you as to how to proceed with the extrication process.
B) assessing exactly how the patient is trapped and determining the safest way to extricate him or her.
C) actively extricating the patient using whichever extrication method they deem necessary.
D) preparing for a simple extrication process since you were obviously able to access the patient.
B) assessing exactly how the patient is trapped and determining the safest way to extricate him or her.
Your ability to access the patient, with or without difficulty, does not indicate the extent of entrapment or method of extrication necessary. The EMT’s job is to assess and treat the patient; the rescue team’s job is to determine the degree of entrapment and decide how to extricate the patient. As you are assessing the patient and providing any care that you can within the confines of the vehicle, the rescue team should be assessing the vehicle and the degree of patient entrapment; this will enable them to determine the safest, most effective extrication approach. It is critical for the EMT in the vehicle and the rescue team outside the vehicle to be in constant communication. Once the patient has been assessed and provided with any immediate life-saving care, and the rescue team has determined the best extrication approach, extrication can begin.
All of the following are considered key components at the scene of a mass-casualty incident, EXCEPT:
A) an adequately staffed treatment area.
B) an on-site communication system.
C) an on-scene emergency physician.
D) a supply area near the treatment area.
C) an on-scene emergency physician.
On-site communications, an adequately staffed treatment area, and a supply area near the treatment area are some of the key components at a mass-casualty incident. Although the physician medical director has ultimate authority for all patient care activities at the scene, he or she typically communicates with the incident commander via mobile phone or two-way radio from the base hospital. Physical presence of the physician at the scene, although optimal, is often not possible.
All of the following are considered key components at the scene of a mass-casualty incident, EXCEPT:
A) an adequately staffed treatment area.
B) an on-site communication system.
C) an on-scene emergency physician.
D) a supply area near the treatment area.
C) an on-scene emergency physician.
On-site communications, an adequately staffed treatment area, and a supply area near the treatment area are some of the key components at a mass-casualty incident. Although the physician medical director has ultimate authority for all patient care activities at the scene, he or she typically communicates with the incident commander via mobile phone or two-way radio from the base hospital. Physical presence of the physician at the scene, although optimal, is often not possible.
During the triage process, which of the following injuries or conditions would classify a patient as a high priority?
A) Pulselessness and apnea
B) Unilateral femur fracture and tachycardia
C) Partial-thickness burns with no respiratory difficulty
D) A large avulsion to the arm and an altered mental status
D) A large avulsion to the arm and an altered mental status
During triage, patients with an altered mental status, who are in shock, or who have problems with their airway, breathing, or circulation are potentially salvageable and are given immediate priority. Patients who are pulseless and apneic have low priority in a mass-casualty situation. If you focus your efforts on cardiac arrest patients, who will most likely not survive anyway, patients who could have potentially been saved will die as well. Remember, the goal of triage is to provide the greatest good for the greatest number of patients.
You are caring for a 6-year-old child with a swollen, painful deformity to the left forearm. As you communicate with the parents of this child, you should:
A) ask them repeatedly how the child was injured.
B) use appropriate medical terminology at all times.
C) make sure that they remain aware of what you are doing.
D) tell them that the child will be transported to the hospital.
C) make sure that they remain aware of what you are doing.
When caring for any patient, it is important to keep both the patient and the family aware of what you are doing. You should avoid medical terminology whenever possible because most laypeople will not understand what you are saying. The plain English approach is much more effective. When caring for children specifically, you should inform the parents of the need for ambulance transportation and why; doing so will provide them with the information necessary to make an informed decision. Asking the parents repeatedly how the child was injured may be construed by some as implying that the child was abused.
Which of the following statements regarding the high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) respirator is correct?
A) HEPA respirator should be placed on any patient with tuberculosis.
B) Long sideburns or a beard will prevent the proper fit of a HEPA respirator.
C) A surgical mask provides better protection against tuberculosis than a HEPA respirator.
D) A HEPA respirator is necessary only if the patient with suspected tuberculosis is coughing.
B) Long sideburns or a beard will prevent the proper fit of a HEPA respirator.
If you are caring for a patient with known or suspected tuberculosis (TB) or COVID-19, regardless of whether the patient is coughing, you should place a surgical mask (or high-flow oxygen, if indicated) on the patient and a high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) respirator (N-95 or higher) on yourself. Unlike a surgical mask, the HEPA respirator is specifically designed to prevent exposure to the bacterium that causes TB; it can also filter out particles of the SARS-CoV-2 virus, the virus that causes COVID-19. A surgical mask, however, will reduce the transmission of germs from the patient into the air. Do not place a HEPA respirator on the patient; it is unnecessary and uncomfortable. Use of a HEPA respirator should comply with OSHA standards, which state that facial hair, such as long sideburns or beards, will prevent a proper fit.
Following a call in which a 6-week-old infant in cardiac arrest did not survive, your partner has severe anxiety and is irritable. What should you do?
A) Allow him to voice his feelings to you.
B) Tell him that he needs psychiatric help.
C) Recommend at least 12 hours of sleep.
D) Report his behavior to the medical director.
A) Allow him to voice his feelings to you.
Your partner is clearly having difficulty coming to terms with this call’s bad outcome. As his partner, you can be most effective during this time by simply listening and allowing him to voice his feelings. Bad feelings should never be kept bottled up. If your partner is still having difficulties, a formal critical incident stress debriefing (CISD) may be needed. Some EMS providers may require psychiatric or psychological assistance; however, this is not a determination that you can make. At least 8 hours of sleep is healthy; however, in the face of a crisis, sleep does not make the problem go away.
While you are caring for an emotionally disturbed 30-year-old male, he suddenly becomes violent and needs to be physically restrained. During the restraint procedure, you should:
A) place him in a prone position and secure straps across his back.
B) ensure that at least three people are available to safely restrain him.
C) approach the patient from the front and converge on him quickly.
D) maintain communication with him and closely monitor his airway.
D) maintain communication with him and closely monitor his airway.
Physical restraint may be necessary if a patient is a threat to himself or herself or to others. If it becomes necessary to physically restrain a violent patient, specific guidelines must be followed. Use a minimum of four people to restrain the patient, one assigned to each extremity. Approach the patient from the front and the sides; this will prevent him or her from getting away from you. Someone, preferably you or your partner, should talk to the patient throughout the restraint process, even if the patient is not listening to you. Never restrain a patient face down (prone); it is impossible to adequately monitor the patient and this position may inhibit the breathing of an impaired or exhausted patient (positional asphyxia). Use just enough force to effectively restrain the patient; the patient’s gender, body size, strength, and mental status can be used to determine the appropriate amount of force. Reassess airway and breathing continuously, regardless of the patient’s position, and continue to talk to him or her during transport.
The role of triage officer at a mass-casualty incident should be assumed by the:
A) most knowledgeable EMS provider.
B) EMS provider with the most years in EMS.
C) first EMS provider who is willing to perform the task.
D) EMS medical director via telephone communication.
A) most knowledgeable EMS provider.
The role of triage officer should be assumed by the most knowledgeable EMS provider at the scene. Knowledge and experience will enable this person to most effectively manage the triage process. Just because a person has been in the EMS profession for a long period of time does not mean that he or she has been active or has maintained clinical competence.
Upon arriving at a scene in which a tanker truck overturned and is spilling an unknown liquid on the ground, you should:
A) quickly identify the material.
B) stay downhill from the scene.
C) turn off your warning lights.
D) park upwind from the scene.
D) park upwind from the scene.
At the scene of a potential or actual hazardous materials incident, you should park the ambulance in an area that is both upwind and uphill from the incident. However, you must be prepared to quickly relocate if the wind direction changes. Staying uphill is important because many hazardous materials collect in low-lying areas, such as valleys. After ensuring that you are in a safe place, attempt to identify the chemical involved by reading the placard on the tanker (with binoculars) and referencing the placard number in the Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG).
Which of the following situations is an example of abandonment?
A) An EMT gives a verbal report to an emergency nurse.
B) An EMT departs the scene after a paramedic arrives.
C) An EMT transfers care of a patient to a paramedic.
D) A paramedic transfers care to an advanced EMT.
D) A paramedic transfers care to an advanced EMT.
Abandonment occurs anytime you disengage from a patient while he or she still requires care or you relinquish your responsibility of patient care to a provider of lesser training. If a paramedic transfers patient care to an advanced EMT (AEMT)–a provider with a lower level of training–then the paramedic has abandoned his or her patient. When delivering a patient to the emergency department, you must give your verbal report to a registered nurse or a physician.
You receive a call at 3:00 a.m. for a patient who is slumped over the steering wheel of his car, which is parked on the shoulder of the road. Your unit and a police officer arrive at the scene at the same time. You should:
A) stay in your unit until the police officer checks the patient.
B) park the ambulance 25 feet in front of the patient’s vehicle.
C) shine a spotlight in the side view mirror of the patient’s vehicle.
D) approach the vehicle from the front to ensure maximum visibility.
A) stay in your unit until the police officer checks the patient.
Unfortunately, it is not uncommon for people to fake illness or injury with the intent of harming responding personnel. In this situation, you should utilize the safety resource at the scene: the police officer. You and your partner should stay in the unit until the police officer checks the patient to ensure it is safe for you to approach. Remember, the safety of you and your partner comes first!
Following an apparent terrorist attack, numerous patients present with shortness of breath and persistent coughing. A green haze is noted in the area in which the patients are located. Which of the following agents should you suspect they were exposed to?
A) V agent (VX)
B) Tabun (GA)
C) Chlorine (CL)
D) Phosgene oxime
C) Chlorine (CL)
The patients’ signs and symptoms are indicative of a pulmonary (choking) agent, specifically chlorine (CL). Chlorine was the first chemical agent ever used in warfare. It has a distinct odor of bleach and creates a green haze when released as a gas. Initially, it produces upper airway irritation and a choking sensation. Later signs and symptoms include shortness of breath, chest tightness, hoarseness and stridor as the result of upper airway swelling, and gasping or persistent coughing. Phosgene, not to be confused with phosgene oxime (a blistering [vesicant] agent), is also a pulmonary (choking) agent. Tabun (GA) and V agent (VX) are examples of chemical nerve agents. Nerve agents are among the most deadly chemicals developed. Designed to kill large numbers of people with small quantities, nerve agents can cause cardiac arrest within seconds to minutes of exposure.
Following an apparent terrorist attack, numerous patients present with shortness of breath and persistent coughing. A green haze is noted in the area in which the patients are located. Which of the following agents should you suspect they were exposed to?
A) V agent (VX)
B) Tabun (GA)
C) Chlorine (CL)
D) Phosgene oxime
C) Chlorine (CL)
The patients’ signs and symptoms are indicative of a pulmonary (choking) agent, specifically chlorine (CL). Chlorine was the first chemical agent ever used in warfare. It has a distinct odor of bleach and creates a green haze when released as a gas. Initially, it produces upper airway irritation and a choking sensation. Later signs and symptoms include shortness of breath, chest tightness, hoarseness and stridor as the result of upper airway swelling, and gasping or persistent coughing. Phosgene, not to be confused with phosgene oxime (a blistering [vesicant] agent), is also a pulmonary (choking) agent. Tabun (GA) and V agent (VX) are examples of chemical nerve agents. Nerve agents are among the most deadly chemicals developed. Designed to kill large numbers of people with small quantities, nerve agents can cause cardiac arrest within seconds to minutes of exposure.
Which of the following is an example of informed consent?
A) Prior to starting treatment, the EMT asks a patient if he has permission to begin treatment
B) The EMT informs a conscious patient of the risks of refusing EMS treatment and transport
C) The EMT informs a patient of the potential risks associated with his proposed treatment
D) EMTs treat an unresponsive patient under the assumption that he would consent if he was conscious
C) The EMT informs a patient of the potential risks associated with his proposed treatment
EMTs should obtain consent to assess and treat from every patient who is of legal age and has decision-making capacity. In order for consent to be informed, the patient must be informed of the EMT’s proposed treatment plan, as well as the risks and benefits of said treatment. If this information is not disclosed to the patient, then consent is not informed. If a patient refuses EMS treatment, the EMT must inform him or her, in layman’s terms, of the risks of refusing EMS treatment; this is called an informed refusal. Regardless of whether the patient accepts or refuses EMS treatment, he or she must be properly informed of risks and benefits. Treating an unresponsive patient based on the assumption that he or she would otherwise accept treatment is called implied consent.
The safest emergency vehicle operator is one who:
A) is physically fit.
B) has a positive attitude.
C) drives with due regard.
D) drives with lights and siren.
C) drives with due regard.
One of the most important attributes of a safe emergency vehicle operator is the ability to drive with due regard for others. This means that the operator must be aware of others around him or her and to keep their safety in mind. The EMT should never assume that all drivers will see or hear the ambulance. A positive attitude about one’s ability to safely operate an emergency vehicle is also an important attribute. Although sometimes indicated because of the patient’s condition, the use of lights and siren increases the risk of an ambulance crash.
When driving in emergency mode on a multilane highway, the emergency vehicle operator should keep to the:
A) right shoulder so that traffic flow is not disrupted
B) extreme left lane so motorists can yield to the right.
C) extreme right lane so motorists can yield to the left.
D) center lane so the traffic can flow around the ambulance.
B) extreme left lane so motorists can yield to the right.
When traveling on a highway with more than one lane, the emergency vehicle operator should remain in the extreme left-hand (fast) lane. This allows other motorists to yield to the right as they see you approach. A motorist’s typical initial reaction upon seeing an approaching ambulance is to slam on the brakes and then look for the best direction to yield; this may be to the left or right, depending on the traffic. Do not attempt to pass a motorist until he or she is clearly aware of your presence and has yielded accordingly. Passing other motorists on the right is unsafe and should be avoided.
While triaging patients at a mass-casualty incident, you encounter a 4-year-old child who is breathing at a rate of 54 breaths/min. What should you do?
A) Apply high-flow oxygen
B) Tag the child as immediate
C) Assess for distal pulses
D) Ventilate with a bag-mask device
B) Tag the child as immediate
According to the JumpSTART triage process, a child who is breathing fewer than 15 breaths/min or more than 45 breaths/min is tagged as an immediate (red) priority. You should then move to the next patient. If the respirations are within the range of 15 and 45 breaths/min, the child’s hemodynamic status is assessed by checking for distal pulses. If distal pulses are absent, the child is tagged as immediate. If distal pulses are present, assess the child’s neurologic status using an age-appropriate AVPU score. Stopping the triage process to begin treatment will delay triage of other patients.
You are dispatched to a call for an unresponsive patient. Which of the following is the MOST important information that you should initially obtain from the dispatcher?
A) The exact location of the patient
B) The call-back number of the caller
C) The patient’s sex and approximate age
D) Whether the patient is breathing
A) The exact location of the patient
You should attempt to obtain as much patient information from the dispatcher as you can. However, to help the patient, you must know his or her location; therefore, this is the most important initial question to ask. Once you determine where the patient is, you should then try to ascertain the sex and approximate age of the patient, whether he or she is breathing, and any other information that can help you prepare to provide care. The caller’s phone number is generally not disclosed to the responding EMTs, although it is important information for the dispatcher to obtain. In many dispatch systems, the caller’s phone number (and location in some cases) automatically appears on the computer screen when the 911 call is answered.
During a review of all critical trauma calls in the last month, it is noted that the average time spent at the scene was 18 minutes. None of the calls involved extenuating circumstances that would explain the lengthy scene times. Which of the following actions would be the MOST beneficial in this case?
A) Following up with the hospitals to determine the final outcomes of the patients involved
B) Providing training that focuses on recognition and treatment of critical trauma patients
C) Implementing a protocol to routinely use air transport on all critically injured patients
D) Identifying the EMTs involved in these calls and taking disciplinary action against them
B) Providing training that focuses on recognition and treatment of critical trauma patients
Any EMS quality assurance (QA)/quality improvement (QI) program should focus on taking deliberate actions to enhance the quality and level of care provided by the system. In this case, crews are spending too long at the scene of critically injured patients. In the absence of extenuating circumstances (ie, delayed extrication, safety issues), these lengthy scene times would suggest that systemwide focused training on recognizing and treating critically injured patients is warranted. Taking disciplinary action against the crews would be counterproductive; it should be addressed at the system level. Patient follow-up after the call is an important component of the QA/QI process; however, this occurs after the event. Air medical transport can benefit critically injured patients, especially when ground transport times are lengthy. However, it would not be appropriate to implement a protocol that mandates air transport for all critically injured patients.
A 10-year-old child was struck by a car while crossing the street. He has bilateral femur fractures and a head injury. His father has been notified and is 20 minutes away from the scene. The EMT should:
A) contact medical control to see if he/she will take custody of the child.
B) attempt to contact the child’s mother to see if she can be there sooner.
C) begin immediate transport and have law enforcement update the father.
D) stabilize the child at the scene until the father arrives and gives consent.
C) begin immediate transport and have law enforcement update the father.
The child in this scenario is critically-injured and needs immediate treatment and transport. In the interest of the child, it should be presumed that the parents would give consent to treat and transport if they were at the scene (implied consent). Begin emergency care, transport without delay, and ask a law enforcement officer to apprise the child’s parents of your transport destination.
When providing care to multiple patients at the scene of a mass-casualty incident, your goal should remain focused on:
A) transporting patients to the hospital.
B) immobilizing all patients at the scene.
C) initiating CPR for those patients in cardiac arrest.
D) keeping all bystanders at a safe distance.
A) transporting patients to the hospital.
At the scene of a mass-casualty incident (MCI), you will be faced with many challenges, including ensuring your own safety, extrication, triage, and patient care. In the midst of all of these activities, however, you must never lose sight of your ultimate goal, which is to transport all patients to the appropriate hospital as soon as possible. At the scene of an MCI, patients who are pulseless and apneic are not treated.
A patient presents with severe bradycardia, hypersalivation, vomiting, and excessive tearing. Which of the following agents would MOST likely cause his signs and symptoms?
A) Soman
B) Anthrax
C) Chlorine
D) Phosgene
A) Soman
Nerve agents (eg, V agent [VX], sarin [GB], soman [GD], tabun [GA]) are among the most deadly chemicals developed. Designed to kill large numbers of people with small quantities, nerve agents can cause cardiac arrest within seconds to minutes of exposure. Nerve agents, which were discovered by researchers looking for a superior pesticide, are classified as organophosphates; these chemicals are found in household bug sprays, agricultural pesticides, and some industrial chemicals. Organophosphates block an essential enzyme in the nervous system, which causes the body’s organs to become overstimulated. The mnemonic DUMBELS can help you recall the signs and symptoms of nerve agent exposure; it stands for Diarrhea; Urination; Miosis (constricted pupils); Bradycardia; Emesis (vomiting), Lacrimation (excessive tearing); and Seizures, Salivation, and Sweating. You can also use the mnemonic SLUDGEM, which stands for Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, Defecation, Gastrointestinal distress, Emesis, and Miosis.
Who has ultimate authority for all issues regarding patient care at the scene of a mass-casualty incident?
A) Incident commander
B) Treatment officer
C) Most experienced EMT
D) EMS medical director
D) EMS medical director
The incident commander (IC) is responsible for all logistical and operational aspects of a mass-casualty incident (MCI), such as designating section officers and working in collaboration with other agencies (eg, police, fire, EMS). For all issues regarding patient care, the EMS medical director has ultimate authority. Although the treatment officer is responsible for overseeing all emergency care provided at the scene, and EMTs working in the treatment area provide direct patient care, these personnel are still functioning under the physician’s license. During an MCI, the IC (or his or her designee) is typically in contact with the medical director, who is located at the base station hospital, via mobile phone or two-way radio. In some cases, the medical director may be physically present at the incident.
Which of the following situations would necessitate treatment using implied consent?
A) 17-year-old pregnant woman with an isolated extremity injury
B) An 18-year-old man who is now fully alert after receiving oral glucose
C) A 25-year-old man who is restless and has severe chest pain and diaphoresis
D) A 65-year-old man who is confused and suspected of having a severe stroke
D) A 65-year-old man who is confused and suspected of having a severe stroke
A patient may be treated under the law of implied consent, also called the emergency doctrine, anytime he or she is unresponsive or otherwise lacks decision-making capacity (ie, confused, under the influence of drugs or alcohol). In cases such as these, the EMT should assume that the patient would consent to treatment and transport if he or she were able to make an informed decision. Examples of such patients include those who are intoxicated or who otherwise have an altered mental status (ie, stroke, hypoglycemia). Patients younger than 18 years of age may also be treated under the law of implied consent, unless the patient is female and is emancipated or pregnant.
According to the United States Department of Transportation (USDOT), minimum staffing for a basic life support ambulance includes:
A) an EMT who functions as the driver.
B) at least one EMT in the patient compartment.
C) at least two EMTs in the patient compartment.
D) a minimum of two EMTs in the ambulance.
B) at least one EMT in the patient compartment.
The United States Department of Transportation (USDOT) requires at least one EMT in the patient compartment of a basic life support (BLS) ambulance. Although the driver does not have to be an EMT, it is preferable. Regardless, the person operating the ambulance must be able to safely and effectively operate an emergency vehicle. Regulations regarding minimum staffing of an ambulance vary from state to state.
How does a unified incident command system differ from a single incident command system?
A) In a unified incident command system, a single incident commander is identified and will function as such, regardless of the type of incident.
B) In a unified incident command system, a single person is in charge of the entire incident, even if multiple agencies respond to the scene.
C) In a unified incident command system, plans are made in advance by all agencies that assume a shared responsibility for decision making.
D) In a unified incident command system, one agency with several incident commanders has the majority of responsibility for incident management.
C) In a unified incident command system, plans are made in advance by all agencies that assume a shared responsibility for decision making.
Regardless of the type of incident command system (ICS) used, a single incident commander (IC) must be in charge. In a unified incident command system, plans are drawn up in advance by all cooperating agencies that assume a shared responsibility for decision making. The response plan should designate the lead and support agencies for several types of mass-casualty incidents (MCIs). For example, the Haz-Mat team will take the lead in a chemical leak and the medical team will take the lead in a multi-vehicle crash. Large MCIs often require a unified incident command system. A single incident command system is one in which one person is in charge, even if multiple agencies respond to the scene. It is generally used with incidents in which one agency has the majority of responsibility for incident management. Ideally, it is used for short-duration, limited incidents that require the services of a single agency.
Upon arriving at a mass-casualty incident, the EMT is assigned to the treatment area. Upon completion of duties in the treatment area, the EMT should:
A) notify the incident commander and return to service.
B) report to the treatment officer for further instructions.
C) report to the transportation area to assist with transport.
D) report to the triage section to check for remaining patients.
B) report to the treatment officer for further instructions.
Organized operations at the scene of a mass-casualty incident are crucial in order to achieve the best possible outcome and maximize the number of lives saved. When the EMT is given an assignment, he or she should complete the assignment and then return to the individual who gave the assignment for further instructions. Self-assigning at the scene (freelancing) is dangerous and can compromise the effectiveness of the overall operation.
Which of the following is an example of an error that was caused by knowledge-based failure?
A) The EMT administers a medication that his protocols do not allow him to administer
B) EMTs accidentally drop a patient during off-loading at the emergency department
C) The EMT administers nitroglycerin to a hypotensive patient and the patient’s BP drops further
D) The EMT improperly inserts an oropharyngeal airway and is unable to ventilate an apneic patient
C) The EMT administers nitroglycerin to a hypotensive patient and the patient’s BP drops further
Errors in patient care can stem from three possible sources. They can occur as a result of a rules-based failure, a knowledge-based failure, or a skills-based failure (or any combination of these). For example, if the EMT administers a medication or performs an intervention that the medical director has not authorized him or her to perform, a rules-based failure has occurred. If the EMT administers an inappropriate drug to a patient, such as giving nitroglycerin to a hypotensive patient, then a knowledge-based failure has occurred. If equipment is not used properly, such as an improperly-sized oropharyngeal airway, then a skills-based failure has occurred. Any error can come from multiple sources. Accidents do not fall into any of the failure categories; however, an investigation should occur to determine, if possible, how and why the accident occurred, as well as how to prevent it from happening again.
Which of the following personal protective items is the MOST important to don before exiting the ambulance at the scene of a motor vehicle crash on the highway?
A) Gloves
B) Eyewear
C) Helmet
D) Reflective vest
D) Reflective vest
From a safety standpoint, when you arrive at a scene that is on a road or highway, your first order of action should be to make yourself visible to oncoming traffic when you exit the ambulance. Therefore, of the items listed, the reflective vest would be the most important to don initially. Gloves and eyewear should be applied at any point before you make patient contact. Depending on your degree of involvement in rescue or extrication, a safety helmet may or may not be required.
When should you complete your patient care report for a critically ill or injured patient?
A) Promptly after the primary assessment
B) Any time before you arrive at the hospital
C) As soon as all patient care activities are completed
D) After the ambulance has been restocked at the station
C) As soon as all patient care activities are completed
Patient care activities, especially when the patient’s condition is critical, take priority over the completion of your patient care report (PCR). Once all patient care activities have been completed, you can complete the PCR. This is usually accomplished at the hospital or immediately upon returning to quarters.
If the EMT could initially only take two pieces of equipment to the side of a patient in cardiac arrest, which of the following should he or she select?
A) AED and suction device
B) AED and oxygen cylinder
C) Pocket mask and oxygen cylinder
D) Bag-mask and suction devices
A) AED and suction device
Determining the equipment that should be taken to the patient’s side is often guided by the nature of the call and/or departmental policy. For a cardiac arrest patient, the AED would clearly need to be taken in immediately since defibrillation is a critical intervention and has been directly linked to positive patient outcomes. The suction device, which may be needed to clear secretions from the airway, should also be taken immediately; mortality increases significantly if aspiration occurs. Oxygen and ventilation equipment are important; however, chest compressions and defibrillation have clearly been shown to provide the greatest benefit to cardiac arrest patients.
While caring for a trauma patient, blood splashes into an EMT’s eyes. This is an example of:
A) exposure.
B) infection.
C) transmission
D) indirect contact.
A) exposure.
Exposure occurs when an individual comes in direct contact with blood or other bodily fluids. Examples of direct exposure include blood splashing into the eyes or mouth and an accidental stick with a contaminated needle or other sharp object. Exposure does not always result in disease transmission and subsequent infection; that depends on whether the patient has an infectious disease. Routine use of standard precautions will afford the EMT the best protection from exposure to an infectious disease.
A 29-year-old woman complains of sharp chest pain that began when she was exercising. She is conscious and alert, her blood pressure is 114/66 mm Hg, her pulse rate is 82 beats/min, and her respiratory rate is 14 breaths/min and unlabored. She denies any past medical history. Which of the following transport modes would be the MOST appropriate for her?
A) Lights and siren
B) Lights, no siren
C) Siren, no lights
D) No lights or siren
D) No lights or siren
Although the patient is complaining of chest pain, the nature of the pain is not consistent with a cardiac problem. Furthermore, her vital signs are stable and there are no apparent life-threats. She should be evaluated by a physician to rule out an occult condition; however, she does not require emergent transport. When transporting any patient, you should assess the risks and benefits of using lights and sirens. Numerous studies have been conducted to determine whether the use of lights and sirens save time getting the patient to the hospital. The findings of these studies show that while time is saved, the time you do save is minimal. If emergency lights are used, an audible alert system (ie, siren) must also be used. State laws generally prohibit the use of one or the other.
Regardless of their location in the ambulance, portable oxygen cylinders should always:
A) have a flowmeter attached to them.
B) be secured by fixed clasps or housings.
C) contain at least 1,000 psi of pressure.
D) be stored together with an oxygen mask.
B) be secured by fixed clasps or housings.
Regardless of where portable oxygen cylinders are stored in the ambulance, they must always be secured by fixed clasps or housings to prevent accidental damage and to prevent them from becoming projectiles. While the oxygen cylinder that you take to the patient’s side (for example, the cylinder in your jump kit) should have a flowmeter attached and be stored with a variety of oxygen administration devices (ie, nonrebreathing mask, nasal cannula), spare cylinders may not necessarily have a flowmeter attached. The safe residual pressure for a portable oxygen cylinder, or the minimum pressure in the cylinder, is 200 psi (many agencies have a safe residual pressure of 500 psi). When the oxygen cylinder falls below the safe residual pressure, it should be removed from service and refilled.
The set of regulations and ethical considerations that define the extent or limits of an EMT’s job is called:
A) a duty to act.
B) confidentiality.
C) the scope of practice.
D) the Medical Practices Act.
C) the scope of practice.
The set of legal regulations and ethical considerations that define the job of the EMT is called the scope of practice. The scope of practice provides a clear delineation of the EMT’s roles and responsibilities. Duty to act is defined as a legal obligation to respond to every call for help while on duty and in your jurisdiction, whether you are paid for your services or not. Confidentiality entails not releasing any patient information to those not directly involved in the care of the patient. The Medical Practices Act describes the minimum qualifications of those who may engage in emergency medical care and establishes a means of certification.
A 30-year-old woman crashed her car into a tree at a high rate of speed. She is conscious and alert and has stable vital signs. She has some small lacerations and abrasions to her arms and face, but no obviously life-threatening injuries. As you are loading her into the ambulance, she tells you that she does not want to go to the hospital. You should:
A) advise her that she is probably too emotionally upset to be able to refuse EMS treatment and transport.
B) ask a law enforcement officer to administer a breathalyzer test to determine if she has been drinking alcohol.
C) advise the patient that she should be transported to the hospital because of the seriousness of the crash.
D) obtain a signed refusal from the patient and ask a law enforcement officer to transport her to the hospital.
C) advise the patient that she should be transported to the hospital because of the seriousness of the crash.
The consequences of refusal should be explained to any patient who refuses EMS treatment and/or transport. After establishing that the patient can legally refuse treatment and transport (eg, he or she is of legal age AND has decision-making capacity), you must advise her that because of the significant mechanism of injury, the potential for critical injury cannot be ruled out in the field, even though she may feel fine now. It should also be explained, in a manner that the patient can understand, that a hidden significant injury could result in death if untreated. Once this is explained, and the patient understands and is willing to accept the possible consequences, obtain a signed refusal and ask an impartial person (eg, police officer) to witness the signed refusal.
A patient injured his arm and asks to be transported to a specific hospital because he has been there before. The EMT states that he does not feel the doctors there are competent and recommends a different hospital. The EMT’s behavior is:
A) legal and ethical.
B) ethical, but illegal.
C) legal, but unethical.
D) illegal and unethical.
C) legal, but unethical.
The EMT’s actions in this case are not illegal; he cannot go to jail for making such comments. However, his actions are clearly unethical and unprofessional, and could lead to allegations of slander by the physician; this would be a civil case, not a criminal one. You must not allow your personal feelings to influence a patient’s decision as to who treats him or her, or where he or she is treated.
Which of the following is the MOST practical method of standard precautions when treating multiple patients during a mass-casualty incident?
A) Thoroughly washing your hands in between patient contacts
B) Changing your gloves in between contact with different patients
C) Placing clean gloves over soiled gloves in between patient contacts
D) Asking each patient you treat if he or she has a communicable disease
B) Changing your gloves in between contact with different patients
Although the most effective means of preventing the spread of disease is thorough handwashing, this is not practical at the scene of a mass-casualty incident; you usually do not have the time or facilities to do this. In a situation where you are treating multiple patients, you should change your gloves in between patients; this will help prevent cross-contamination. The concept of standard precautions is based on the assumption that ALL bodily fluids are potentially infectious; thus, there is no need to ask a patient if he or she has a communicable disease. Furthermore, to make such an inquiry is unethical.
EMTs deliver a patient to the emergency department. One of the EMTs tries to give the receiving nurse a verbal report, but the nurse is busy with the patient and is not paying attention. The EMT should:
A) ask the unit secretary to relay your verbal report to the nurse.
B) contact medical control and give the verbal report to him or her.
C) wait until the nurse is freed up and then provide the verbal report.
D) return to service and document that a verbal report was attempted.
C) wait until the nurse is freed up and then provide the verbal report.
Proper patient care transfer at the emergency department involves giving a verbal report to the receiving nurse or physician, not a unit secretary or technician. Failure to do so could constitute abandonment. If the nurse or physician is busy and cannot take your verbal report, you must wait until they are freed up. It would not be appropriate to contact medical control and give your report to him or her because medical control is not who is accepting your patient.
A 70-year-old man is in cardiac arrest. His wife tells you that he collapsed about 5 minutes before your arrival. As you and your partner begin resuscitation, the man’s wife tells you that she wants you to let him die in peace. You should:
A) continue full resuscitation and ask her if he has a living will.
B) comply with her request and cease all resuscitative efforts.
C) perform rescue breathing only and contact medical control.
D) cease resuscitation only if the AED does not indicate a shock.
A) continue full resuscitation and ask her if he has a living will.
When faced with a situation in which a family member does not wish for you to attempt resuscitation of a loved one, you should inquire about the presence of a living will or out-of-hospital do not attempt resuscitation (OOH-DNAR) order. If a valid living will or OOH-DNAR order is produced, it is acceptable to cease resuscitative efforts; consult medical control as needed. If a valid living will or OOH-DNAR order is not available, the most prudent action would be to continue full resuscitative efforts and contact medical control. Even in the absence of such documentation, medical control may advise you to cease resuscitation based on the wishes of the family and the patient’s medical history. When in doubt, err on the side of the patient and attempt resuscitation. Few would argue that it is preferable to defend why resuscitation was attempted as opposed to why it was not.
Which of the following vaccinations is NOT currently recommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)?
A) Smallpox
B) Hepatitis B
C) Measles, mumps, rubella
D) Tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis
A) Smallpox
Immunization requirements are usually set by the state department of health, but generally follow recommendations made by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). Recommended immunizations for health care providers include tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis (Tdap, DTaP) boosters (every 10 years); measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) booster; influenza vaccine (yearly); and hepatitis B vaccine (single or three-shot series). Smallpox vaccinations ceased in 1972 after the World Health Organization (WHO) officially declared the disease eradicated.
The process of removing dirt, dust, blood, or other visible contaminants from a surface or equipment is called:
A) cleaning.
B) disinfection.
C) sterilization.
D) high-level disinfection.
A) cleaning.
The process of removing dirt, dust, blood, or other visible contaminants from a surface or equipment is called cleaning. Disinfection is the killing of pathogenic agents by directly applying a chemical made for that purpose to a surface or equipment. High-level disinfection is the killing of pathogenic agents by the use of potent means of disinfection. Sterilization is a process, such as the use of heat, to remove all microbial contamination.
A man armed with a shotgun has taken two people hostage and has shot one of them. Upon arriving at the scene, you should:
A) be sure and turn up your portable radio loud enough so that you can remain aware of the entire situation.
B) leave your lights and siren on because this will let the injured person know that you have arrived and are there to help.
C) have the incident commander guide you to a shielded staging area and wait for the tactical team to bring the patient to you.
D) inform the incident commander that you will assume responsibility for the entire incident since there is a confirmed patient.
C) have the incident commander guide you to a shielded staging area and wait for the tactical team to bring the patient to you.
Upon arriving at the scene of a tactical situation, such as a hostage situation, the presence of a sniper, or any exchange of gunfire, you should report to the incident commander, who will take you to a shielded, safe staging area that has been selected for the ambulance and for treatment of casualties. Remain there until the tactical team brings the patient or patients to you. As an EMT, you are responsible for patient care once the patient has been brought to you; you are not in charge of the entire incident. When you arrive at the scene, turn your lights and siren off to avoid agitating the gunman. You should also keep your portable radio turned down and minimize radio traffic. If possible, use an ear speaker.
In which of the following situations would proximate causation on the part of the EMT MOST likely be established?
A) Shortly after administering oral glucose to a conscious patient, the patient becomes unresponsive and stops breathing.
B) The EMT administers high-flow oxygen to a severely hypoxemic COPD patient and the patient suddenly stops breathing.
C) A patient involved in a motor vehicle crash refuses spinal precautions in the field and is later diagnosed with a spinal fracture.
D) A cardiac arrest patient receives CPR in the field, but is not defibrillated for 5 minutes and is pronounced dead at the hospital.
D) A cardiac arrest patient receives CPR in the field, but is not defibrillated for 5 minutes and is pronounced dead at the hospital.
Proximate causation, one of the four components needed to prove negligence, is defined as a direct relationship between the provider’s action (or inaction) and the patient’s injury, illness, or death. Had the patient in cardiac arrest been defibrillated, the outcome may have been very different. Therefore, one could conclude that failure to defibrillate directly contributed to the patient’s death. The other examples in this question do not demonstrate proximate causation because the EMT either acted appropriately (for example, administering oxygen to a severely hypoxemic patient or administering oral glucose to a conscious patient), or the patient refused treatment that would have otherwise been indicated for his or her injury.
Upon returning to quarters after working a major car accident involving an entire family, a member of the press calls and requests information regarding the call. What should you do?
A) Disclose the general extent of the patient’s injuries, but avoid disclosing which facility they were transported to
B) Disclose the ages of the patients and the facility to which they were transported, but avoid discussing their injuries
C) Inform him that the patients were transported to the hospital, but that you cannot disclose the extent of their injuries
D) Provide information requested on the patients who are not minors, but avoid disclosing your name or badge number
C) Inform him that the patients were transported to the hospital, but that you cannot disclose the extent of their injuries
The BEST practice is to NOT talk to the media. Your department should have a public information officer (PIO), whose job is to do just that. If, for whatever reason, talking to the media is unavoidable, you should give the absolute minimum information. In this case, advise the reporter that the patients were transported to the hospital; however, you are not authorized to disclose any other information, including the extent of their injuries, their names, or their ages.
A 52-year-old woman crashed her minivan into a tree. She is pinned at the legs by the steering wheel and is semiconscious. After gaining access to the patient, you should:
A) perform a primary assessment and provide any life-saving care before extrication.
B) immediately apply high-flow oxygen to the patient and allow extrication to begin.
C) rapidly assess her from head to toe, obtain vital signs, and apply a cervical collar.
D) have the fire department disentangle the patient and quickly remove her from the car.
A) perform a primary assessment and provide any life-saving care before extrication.
Unless there is an immediate threat of fire, explosion, or other danger, you should perform a primary assessment and begin any life-saving care as soon as you have gained access to the patient. If you wait to do this until after the patient has been disentangled, it may be too late; the patient may already be dead. After you have assessed the patient and treated any immediate threats to life, allow extrication to commence. Once the patient has been freed from the vehicle, continue any lifesaving care and perform a rapid head-to-toe assessment to identify and treat other life-threatening injuries. Another EMT can obtain vital signs as you rapidly assess the patient. Prepare for immediate transport after the rapid head-to-toe assessment has been performed and spinal precautions have been taken (if indicated).
While functioning at a large-scale terrorist incident, it is important for the EMT to:
A) use triage and base patient care on available resources.
B) identify the person or persons responsible for the event.
C) begin immediate treatment of the most critically injured patients.
D) avoid placing any casualty in a “delayed” treatment status.
A) use triage and base patient care on available resources.
During a terrorist incident, the basic foundations of triage and patient care remain the same; however, the treatment can and will vary. Terrorist incidents can produce a single casualty, hundreds of casualties, or thousands of casualties. When presented with mass casualties, you must remember the importance of situational awareness. What you do in one situation may not be appropriate for another situation. In large-scale terrorist incidents, it is important to use triage and base patient care on available resources. When triaging casualties, use the same triage process that you would for any other mass-casualty incident. Remain focused on providing the greatest good for the greatest number of people, not the person or persons responsible for the incident.
Proper guidelines for safe reaching include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) avoiding twisting of your back.
B) avoiding hyperextension of your back.
C) keeping your back in a locked-in position.
D) reaching no more than 30 inches in front of your body.
D) reaching no more than 30 inches in front of your body.
Safe reaching practices are critical to the prevention of a back injury. When reaching, you should keep your back in a locked-in position. You should avoid twisting or hyperextending your back, and should reach no more than 15 to 20 inches in front of your body.
You are called to a residence for a woman in cardiac arrest. Shortly after you start CPR, the patient’s husband presents you with an unsigned document that states “do not attempt resuscitation.” You should:
A) stop all resuscitative efforts in accordance with the document.
B) stop CPR until the document can be validated by a physician.
C) continue CPR until you have contacted medical control for guidance.
D) contact medical control prior to continuing any resuscitative efforts.
C) continue CPR until you have contacted medical control for guidance.
Do not attempt resuscitation (DNAR) orders can be challenging for EMS providers. When presented with documentation, especially if it does not appear to be valid (in this case, an unsigned document), you should err on the side of patient care and continue resuscitative efforts until medical control orders you to stop.
When using the power lift to lift a stretcher, you should:
A) maintain a slight inward curve to your back.
B) bend at the waist and keep your back straight.
C) ensure that you lift with your palms facing up.
D) maintain a slight outward curve to your back.
C) ensure that you lift with your palms facing up.
To achieve the best grip and to avoid injury to your wrists, you should lift a stretcher, backboard, or other carrying device with your palms facing up. Do not bend at the waist; rather, bend at the knees and keep your back in a straight, locked-in position.
When called to the scene of a structural fire to stand by in case any injuries occur at the scene, you should:
A) park the ambulance close to the fire so you can rapidly access any patients.
B) ensure that your ambulance does not block or hinder other arriving fire apparatus.
C) depart the scene and return to service after the fire has been completely extinguished.
D) enter the structure with the firefighters so you can provide immediate care to any victims.
B) ensure that your ambulance does not block or hinder other arriving fire apparatus.
When standing by at the scene of a structural fire, you must ensure that the ambulance is parked at a safe distance; this will not only keep you safe from the fire itself, but also minimize your risk of injury if the structure collapses. You must also ensure that the ambulance does not block or hinder access to the fire by fire apparatus that arrives after you. You should receive instructions from the fire officer in charge regarding the appropriate location to park the ambulance. It is not the EMT’s job, nor is it safe, to enter a structure on fire; if victims are located by firefighters, they will be brought to you. Do not depart the scene and return to service until the fire officer in charge releases you; many dangers still exist after the fire has been extinguished.
A conscious and alert 92-year-old woman with chest pain is refusing EMS treatment and transport to the hospital. Her family insists that you transport her. What should you do?
A) Transport the patient as the family wishes.
B) Advise the patient of the risks of refusing care.
C) Obtain a signed refusal from a family member.
D) Transport the patient as you explain your actions.
B) Advise the patient of the risks of refusing care.
Just because the patient is 92 years old does not mean that she does not have decision-making capacity and cannot make an informed decision. In cases where any patient refuses care, after determining that the patient has decision-making capacity (ie, is of legal age, is not impaired by drugs or alcohol), you must inform the patient of the potential risks of refusing care, including permanent injury, illness, or death. If the patient is aware of and willing to accept the potential consequences of his or her refusal, a refusal of treatment and/or transport form should be signed by the patient. A nonbiased witness (ie, law enforcement officer, emergency medical responder [EMR]) should also sign the refusal form. Transporting a patient with decision-making capacity against his or her will is kidnapping and false imprisonment.
A 72-year-old woman fell and has a hip injury. She is on the second floor of her home. Which of the following devices should you use to move her down the flight of stairs
A) Stair chair
B) Long backboard
C) Wheeled stretcher
D) Scoop stretcher
D) Scoop stretcher
Of the options listed, the scoop stretcher, also called an orthopaedic stretcher or split litter, would be the most appropriate to use. The scoop stretcher is contoured and allows for the placement of straps to secure the patient; it also allows you to place padding around and under the patient. The long backboard, unlike the scoop stretcher, is flat; therefore, the patient can slide from side to side or top to bottom, even when straps are placed. The wheeled ambulance stretcher is top heavy and is not safe for patient movement down a flight of stairs or across rough terrain. Because the patient has a hip injury, the stair chair would not be appropriate to use.
You are called to treat a 55-year-old man who is experiencing difficulty breathing. After making contact with your patient, he extends his arm out to allow you to take his blood pressure. This is an example of:
A) actual consent.
B) informed consent.
C) implied consent.
D) formal consent.
Actual consent, also referred to as expressed consent, is when the patient asks for your help outright. This may also include nonverbal gestures, such as extending the arm to you to allow you to take the blood pressure. Informed consent involves explaining your proposed treatment to the patient, including the potential benefits and risks of the treatment. Implied consent involves treating an unresponsive patient or minor child (when the parents are not present) based on the assumption that the patient (or the parents of a minor) would consent to emergency treatment.
Which of the following practices will provide you with the highest degree of safety when responding to an emergency call?
A) Routinely using the lights and siren
B) Asking the police to escort you to the scene
C) Always requesting fire department assistance
D) Wearing your seat belt and shoulder harness.
D) Wearing your seat belt and shoulder harness.
Consistent safety practices, such as wearing your seat belt and shoulder harness, driving with due regard for others, and avoiding excessive speed, will afford you the highest degree of safety when responding to an emergency call. Unless used to guide you to an area with which you are unfamiliar, escort vehicles should be avoided. Escort vehicles are especially dangerous at intersections; as the escort vehicle proceeds through the intersection, other motorists often do not expect a second emergency vehicle to follow. As a result, they may pull out into the intersection, thinking it is clear, and collide with your ambulance (a wake effect collision). The use of lights and siren increases the danger factor, especially if used in conjunction with excessive speed. Lights and siren ask for, not demand, the courtesy of the right of way.
You are called to a local state park where a hiker fell from a cliff into a thick, wooded area with rough terrain. It is cold and foggy, and a thunderstorm is approaching. You will MOST likely move the patient to the ambulance by:
A) placing the patient in a basket stretcher and using at least four people to carry him to the ambulance.
B) bringing the ambulance stretcher to the patient, loading him onto it, and removing him from the wooded area.
C) assisting the patient in walking from the wooded area to the ambulance if his injuries are not life threatening.
D) requesting a helicopter to hoist the patient out of the wooded area and carry him to a site near the ambulance.
A) placing the patient in a basket stretcher and using at least four people to carry him to the ambulance.
The basket stretcher, also called a Stokes basket, is ideal for moving patients across rough terrain. Because the patient fell from a cliff, the risk of a spinal injury is high; therefore, he will require spinal motion restriction precautions. Secure him to a long backboard and place the backboard in the basket stretcher. When carrying a patient across rough terrain, you should utilize at least four people to ensure a safe patient move. Clearly, the patient should not walk; he should be suspected of having a spinal injury due to the fall. A wheeled ambulance stretcher is impractical in situations were the patient must be moved over rough terrain. In many cases, a helicopter can be used to move patients from remote areas to a landing site near the ambulance or directly to the hospital. However, in this case, the weather (eg, fog, approaching thunderstorm) will likely prohibit a helicopter from being able to fly safely.
The EMT should avoid focusing all of his or her attention on a single critical patient during the triage process because:
A) three EMTs are required to effectively manage a critical patient.
B) other patients may die from causes that could have been prevented.
C) all of his or her supplies will likely be depleted on that one patient.
D) the patient will most likely die before he or she can be transported.
B) other patients may die from causes that could have been prevented.
Triage is the process of rapidly assessing patients to determine their treatment priority. Focusing your attention on one patient during the triage process not only defeats the purpose of triage (to do the greatest good for the greatest number of people), but also neglects other patients who might die from injuries or conditions that could have been corrected if detected earlier.
The EMT fails to administer oxygen to a severely hypoxic patient. As a result, the patient develops respiratory arrest. The patient is delivered to the emergency department; however, the EMTs leave without providing a verbal hand-off report. Which of the following does this scenario depict?
A) Assault and battery
B) Assault and negligence
C) Negligence and abandonment
D) Battery and abandonment
C) Negligence and abandonment
While laws may vary from state to state, assault is generally defined as instilling fear in an individual, whereas battery is defined as unlawfully touching a patient. Neither of these has occurred in this scenario. However, because the EMT did not deliver oxygen to a hypoxic patient who subsequently stopped breathing, he did not follow the standard of care as a prudent EMT would have in the same or similar circumstance; therefore, his inaction constitutes negligence. Furthermore, he abandoned the patient because he did not provide a verbal hand-off report to a nurse or physician. One cannot simply deliver a patient to the emergency department and leave without properly notifying someone.
While transporting a patient in non-emergency mode, the ambulance operator notices another motorist following too close behind. The ambulance operator should:
A) gently tap on the brakes to cause the motorist to slow his speed.
B) slow the speed of the ambulance to encourage the motorist to pass.
C) increase the speed of the ambulance to increase the cushion of safety.
D) stop the ambulance and ask the motorist to maintain a safe distance.
B) slow the speed of the ambulance to encourage the motorist to pass.
If a vehicle is tailgating the ambulance, whether you are driving in emergency or non-emergency mode, the safest and most appropriate action would be to slow the speed of the ambulance, pull to another lane, and allow the motorist to safely pass. Tapping on your breaks to encourage the motorist the slow down (break-checking) could cause the motorist to rear-end the ambulance; it could also induce road rage. Do NOT exit the ambulance and verbally engage the motorist; this is dangerous and could turn into a physical confrontation without warning. Increasing the speed of the ambulance will only encourage the motorist to increase his or her speed as well; this too is dangerous as it could cause a crash.
What are the recommended dimensions for a helicopter landing zone?
A) 50 feet by 50 feet
B) 75 feet by 75 feet
C) 100 feet by 100 feet
D) 200 feet by 200 feet
C) 100 feet by 100 feet
The helicopter landing zone (LZ) should be a hard or grassy level surface. While various flight services may have slightly different recommended LZ dimensions, 100 feet by 100 feet is recommended by the majority of them. The LZ should be no less than 60 feet by 60 feet.
In which of the following situations is an emergency move of a patient from his or her wrecked vehicle clearly indicated?
A) The patient appears unresponsive and a high-power line is lying across the hood.
B) Your primary assessment reveals that the patient has signs and symptoms of shock.
C) The patient has an altered mental status; diaphoresis; and rapid, shallow breathing.
D) Gas is leaking from the vehicle and there is a small fire in the engine compartment.
D) Gas is leaking from the vehicle and there is a small fire in the engine compartment.
An emergency move is indicated if your own or the patient’s life is in immediate danger. Gas leaking from the vehicle and a fire in the engine compartment are clear indicators that you and the patient are in imminent danger. An emergency move involves grabbing the patient by the clothing, protecting his or her spine as much as possible, and dragging the patient from the vehicle to a safe place. The rapid extrication technique, which involves manually stabilizing the patient’s head, applying a cervical collar, and removing the patient from the vehicle onto a long backboard, is indicated if the patient’s condition is unstable and/or he or she is in need of treatment that requires a supine position. Never approach or touch a vehicle that is in contact with a high-power line; have the power company cut the power to the line first and then remove the patient from the vehicle.
The primary clinical feature associated with exposure to a vesicant agent is:
A) tachycardia.
B) skin blistering.
C) vomiting blood.
D) muscle twitching.
B) skin blistering.
The primary route of exposure to blister agents, or vesicants, is the skin. If vesicants are left on the skin or clothing long enough, they produce vapors that can enter the respiratory tract. Vesicants cause burn-like blisters to form on the victim’s skin as well as in the respiratory tract (if inhaled). Vesicant agents include sulfur mustard (H), Lewisite (L), and phosgene oxime (CX). The symbols H, L, and CX are military designations. Vesicants usually cause the most damage to damp or moist areas of the body, such as the armpits, groin, and respiratory tract.
Proper body mechanics when lifting and moving a patient include:
A) maintaining a slight curvature of your back.
B) using the muscles of your lower back to lift.
C) keeping the weight as close to you as possible.
D) twisting at the waist when moving around a corner.
C) keeping the weight as close to you as possible.
General guidelines for safe lifting and moving include keeping the weight as close to your body as possible; keeping your back in a straight, locked-in position; using the muscles of your thighs to lift; and avoiding twisting when moving a patient around a corner. Back injuries are the most common injury sustained by the EMT and can be easily avoided if proper lifting and moving techniques are observed.
When requesting medical direction for a patient who was involved in a major motor vehicle accident, you should do all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) use radio codes to describe the situation.
B) question an order if it seems to be inappropriate.
C) use proper medical terminology when speaking.
D) describe the severity of damage to the patient’s vehicle.
A) use radio codes to describe the situation.
When giving a report to medical control or requesting medical direction, you should avoid the use of radio codes, such as “10-50”; The physician may not be familiar with such codes. There is clearly less risk of confusion if you use plain English. At the same time, you should use proper medical terminology, especially when describing the patient’s injuries. Information regarding the severity of damage to the patient’s vehicle is important information and should be relayed to the physician; this can help him or her appreciate the significance of the situation. Do not be afraid to question an order that is contrary to your training or protocols; the physician may have simply made an error. Repeating an order back to the physician, word for word, will minimize the risk of this occurring.
The process of removing or neutralizing and properly disposing of hazardous materials from equipment, patients, and rescue personnel is called:
A) autoclaving.
B) sterilization.
C) detoxification.
D) decontamination.
D) decontamination.
Decontamination is the process of removing or neutralizing and properly disposing of hazardous materials from equipment, patients, and rescue personnel. Decontamination should occur in the warm zone of a hazardous materials incident. The process of autoclaving involves the use of heat to sterilize instruments; clearly, this is not practical in the prehospital setting. Sterilization involves making an object free from bacteria or other living organisms; sterilization at an emergency incident is generally not possible. Detoxification involves the removal of toxic substances from a living organism; while the process of decontamination may remove or neutralize toxins, it does not kill them.
While responding to a call for a child in cardiac arrest, the ambulance approaches a school bus that is stopped and has its red lights flashing. The ambulance operator should:
A) use a different siren tone, slow the ambulance to 20 mph, and carefully pass the bus on the left.
B) turn the siren off and wait for the bus driver to close the doors and turn the red flashing lights off.
C) use the public address (PA) system to alert the children to remain in the bus until the ambulance passes.
D) turn off the lights and siren and carefully pass the bus on the right while watching carefully for children.
B) turn the siren off and wait for the bus driver to close the doors and turn the red flashing lights off.
It is NEVER appropriate (or legal) to pass a school bus when its red lights are flashing, regardless of the situation! When, and only when, the bus driver turns off the red flashing lights is it legal to pass; even then, you should pass with great caution. None of the other answer options are correct because they all involve passing the school bus when its red lights are flashing.
You arrive at the scene where a man fell approximately 40 feet and landed on his head. He is unresponsive, has agonal gasps, and has a weak carotid pulse. Further assessment reveals an open head injury with exposed brain matter. Upon identifying this patient as an organ donor, you should:
A) request authorization from medical control not to initiate care.
B) manage the patient aggressively and provide rapid transport.
C) recognize that the patient’s injuries disqualify him as an organ donor.
D) provide rapid transport only because the patient likely will not survive.
B) manage the patient aggressively and provide rapid transport.
It is unlikely that the patient will survive his injury; however, he is still breathing, albeit very poorly, and has a weak carotid pulse. Therefore, you should begin immediate and aggressive treatment and transport him promptly, just as you would with any other critically injured patient. It would clearly be inappropriate to request authorization to provide no care at all. If it is determined by a physician that the patient will not survive his injury, his organs can potentially be harvested and save several lives.
