Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

REHS > NEHA Book Questions (Incomplete) > Flashcards

NEHA Book Questions (Incomplete) Flashcards

1
Q

What is the MOST common cause of bacterial meningitis in children under five years of age?

A

Haemophilus influenzae type B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How is “Giardiasis” USUALLY transmitted to others?

A

Person-to-person transfer of cysts from the feces of the infected individual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following duties of state and local health agencies is intended to ensure that the public’s health and welfare are protected?:
community-intensive planning
statutory administrative action
regulatory responsibilities
plan implementation

A

Regulatory resposibilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the measure of the amount of light scattered by particles suspended in a water test sample?

A

Nephelometric Turbidity Units (NTU)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is an epidemic?

A

The occurrence in a community or region of cases of an illness clearlytin excess of expectancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What portal of entry should a field sanitarian protect to avoid contracting Lyme disease?

A

skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Swimmer’s itch is a common name for which disease?

A

Schistosomiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following factors would LEAST contribute to the emergence of a new infectious disease?:
human behavior
heat disinfection
antibiotic use
disinfectant use

A

Heat disinfection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Listeriosis is COMMONLY associated with what source?

A

contaminated food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome is caused by infection with which bacteria?

A

Escheria coli 0157:H7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The basic principles of disease control include all of the following EXCEPT:
lag phase
control of disease source
mode of transmission
susceptibility

A

lag phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following phrases MOST accurately describes the term pandemic?:
sporadic occurrence of an illness
illnesses that exceed expected levels
all illnesses present at any one time
constant presence of an illness

A

constant presence of an illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The interval between exposure to an infectious agent and the appearance of the first symptom is called what?

A

incubation period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

An establishment known to have imminent health hazard is not closed by the inspecting regulatory authority. This example BEST fits the definition of a:

A

nonfeasance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Vehicleborn, vectorborne, or airborne are all examples of what?

A

Indirect mode of transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Define statutes

A

laws enacted by either the state or federal legislature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Define ordinances

A

Laws enacted by local elected officials, such as in municipalities and counties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Define litigation

A

a civil action to settle a dispute in a court of law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Define arbitration

A

involves the services of a disinterested person out of court in a binding settlement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Define mediation

A

nonbinding settlement between the interested parties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

at is an administrative/enforcement/abatement order?

A

a legal document from a state or federal agency directing an individual, business, or agency to correct or stop an activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is an embargo?

A

a legal order prohibiting the removal or use of something

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is a seizure order?

A

The legal permission to confiscate, retail, or dispose of something

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is condemnation?

A

legal judgment that finds a structure or property too dangerous or unfit for human use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is civil law?

A

involves individuals or groups acting in a nonpublic capacity in which some form of compensation is sought by liability, not guilt, is established

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is a prohibitory injunction?

A

an order to cease and desist a particular action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is a mandatory injunction?

A

an order to act, such as applying for a permit, changing a procedure, reporting an activity, or correcting a violation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the purpose of criminal law?

A

to prevent harm to society
always an action bya government body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is an arraignment?

A

a judge summons defendant to court to enter a plea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is Prima Facie evidence?
Provide examples

A

comprises of more persuasive forms of evidence than recollections alone
ex: detailed records, original handwritten investigative reports, photographs, samples, and scientific lab results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are torts?

A

civil wrongs
injuries to an individual’s person, property, or reputation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the exclusionary role?

A

a principle that disallows illegally obtained evidence to be admitted in court

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What six pollutants were addressed in the Clean Air Act of 1970?

A

carbon monoxide
lead
NO2
ozone
particulate matter
sulfur dioxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the criteria pollutants which are known human and animal carcinogens?

A

asbestos
benzene
beryllium
mercury
radionuclides
vinyl chloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What does RCRA stand for?

A

Resource Conservation and Recovery Act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What does CERCLA stand for?

A

Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the big nine allergens?

A

milk
soy
eggs
wheat
finfish
shellfish
peanuts
tree nuts
sesame seeds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What year did the Food Allergen Labeling and Consumer Protection Act get established?

A

2004

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

An employer is held liable for the tortsof its employees committed within the scope of their employment. This is referred to as

A

respondent superior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Performance of an authorized act in an unauthorized manner is called

A

misfeasance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

An action authorized by law to restrict or prevent the movement of goods for the protection of public health, safety, and welfare is called an order of

A

embargo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the federal agency that regulates food additives?

A

Food and Drug Administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

When a legal action is being prepared, one of the first steps a sanitarian should take is to

A

keep accurate records

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the most common toxin forming bacteria in foodborne illness? (3)

A

Bacillus cereus - vomiting type
Clostridium botulinum
Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the most common spore-forming bacteria in foodborne illness? (3)

A

Bacillus cereus
Clostridium botulinum
Clostridium perfringens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the most common toxin-mediated bacteria in foodborne illness?

A

Clostridium perfringens
Bacillus cereus
Shigella
Escherichia coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the common illness-causing parasites? Where are they typically found? (5)

A

inadequately cooked food, contaminated drinking water
Trichinella spiralis
Entamoeba histolytica
Giardia lamblia
Anisakis species
Cryptosporidium species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is Trichinella spiralis?

A

roundworm present in undercooked or raw pork, among other meats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is Entamoeba histolytica?

A

has many names - traveler’s diarrhea, Montezuma’s revenge, and others
caused by an amoeba found in contaminated water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is Giardia lablia?

A

a protozoan transmitted by infected food handlers or contaminated water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are Anisakis species?

A

roundworms found in certain species of fish that can be destroyed by cooking or freezing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the pH range for Time/Temperature Control for Safety (TCS) foods?

A

4.6 to 7.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are some examples of TCS foods?

A

meat and poultry
shellfish and crustaceans
tofu and soy
milk and milk products
garlic and oil mixtures
cooked rice, beans, pasta, potatoes
raw seed sprouts
sliced melons

54
Q

What is the temperature danger zone?

A

41 degrees F to 135 degrees F
provides optimal conditions for bacterial growth

55
Q

What is protocol for reheating food items?

A

the complete portion must reach an internal temperature of 160 degrees F for 15 seconds

56
Q

What are the employee illnesses that must be reported to the person in charge of a food facility? (6)

A

Norovirus
Hepatitis A
Shigella
Enterohemorrhagic or Shiga toxin-producing E. coli
Salmonella typhi
Non-typhoidal Salmonella

57
Q

How is the term “contamination” defined when used in connection with a communicable disease?

A

Presence of pathogenic agents on a surface, article, or substance

58
Q

What is the MOST common contributing factor to foodborne illness?
Insect and rodent infestations
dirty equipment
incorrect labeling of containers
improper holding temperatures

A

Improper holding temperatures

59
Q

Why are some foods classified as time/temperature control for safety?

A

they support rapid growth of pathogenic microorganisms

60
Q

Which food does not require refrigeration at 41 degrees F?
open container of garlic in oil
tofu
sliced/cut cantaloupe
UHT creamers

A

UHT creamers - ultra heat treated creamer that is shelf-stable until opening

61
Q

What is the BEST means of inhibiting growth of microorganisms in fresh meat?
topical use of approved hypochlorite solutions
exposure to ultraviolet light for 30 mins
chemical preservatives
adequate refrigeration and cleanliness

A

adequate refrigeration and cleanliness

62
Q

What is the MAXIMUM accumulated time that time/temp control for safety food can safely be exposed to the temperature danger zone?

A

Six hours
Must reach a temperature of 70 within the first 2 hours

63
Q

If time only is used as a public health control, the MAXIMUM period of time recommended by the FDA for time/temp control for safety food to be held is

A

6 hours if the warmest part of the food does not exceed 70 degrees F

64
Q

What is the MINIMUM period of time that the FDA recommends employees wash their hands and arms up to the elbow?

A

20 seconds

65
Q

Unpasteurized eggs NOT intended for immediate service should be cooked to

A

155 degrees F for 15 seconds

66
Q

What is the usual mode of infection from Salmonella?

A

Ingestion of contaminated food

67
Q

What is the source of scromboid poisoning?

A

Histamines in the muscle of fish

68
Q

All of the following are signs of spoiled fish EXCEPT:
strong odor
elastic flesh
gray gills
sunken eyes

A

elastic flesh

69
Q

Which of the following shellfish are MOST likely to cause illness?
oysters
crabs
shrimp
scallops

A

oysters - Because oysters feed by filtering water, Vibrio and other harmful germs can concentrate in their tissues. When someone eats raw or undercooked oysters, germs that might be in the oyster can cause illness.

70
Q

The laboratory reports a positive coliform test that exceeds permissible limits on a bottle of pasteurized milk. What does this indicate?

A

improper bactericidal treatment of the equipment

71
Q

What is the MOST effective practice for preventing trichinosis in people?

A

Ensure fresh pork is cooked thoroughly

72
Q

An HACCP plan is NOT required when

A

cooling and reheating TCS foods in bulk

73
Q

What should NOT be done with food samples collected during a foodborne illness investigation?
refrigerate
freeze
seal
label

A

freeze

74
Q

What is the PRIMARY requirement in designing a food service facility?

A

cleanability

75
Q

What is the MOST important rule of food storage?

A

“first in, first out” rule

76
Q

Insecticides/pesticides may be stored in all ways EXCEPT:
metal locked cabinet
lowest shelf in the storage room
above the dishwashing sinks
in the basement separate from food and other chemicals

A

above dishwashing sinks

77
Q

What is a public water system defined as?

A

Provides water for human consumption to at least 15 connections or at least 25 individuals for 60 days out of the year

78
Q

Define a community water system

A

a public water system that supplies water to the same population year-round

79
Q

Define non-transient Non-community water systems
Provide examples

A

regularly supplies water to at least 25 of the same people at least six months per year, but not year round
ex: schools, factories, office buildings, hospitals

80
Q

Define transient non-community water systems

A

provides water in a place such as a gas station or campground where people do not remain for long periods of time

81
Q

What is the microbiological quality of potable water?

A

expressed in terms of concentration, frequency, presence, or absence of a particular species of bacteria

82
Q

Under the SDWA, who is charged with ensuring safe public drinking water?

A

The EPA

83
Q

What contaminants were addressed in the SDWA?

A

inorganic, volatile organic, and synthetic organic chemicals
pesticides
herbicides
polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs)
radionuclides
trihalomethanes
microbial contaminants

84
Q

What are the three contaminant bacteria addressed by the surface water treatment rule?

A

giardia
cryptosporidium
legionella

85
Q

What is the hydrologic cycle?

A

the constant movement of water above, on, and below the earth’s surface
surface water and groundwater are interconnected by this cycle

86
Q

What is groundwater?

A

water that has drained downward and finally reached a zone of saturation at which all the openings or voids in the earth’s materials are filled with water

87
Q

What are the diseases that are usually associated with contaminated drinking water?

A

bacterial and viral gastroenteritis
cryptosporidiosis
giardiasis
infectious hepatitis
shigellosis
typhoid fever
cholera
paratyphoid fever

88
Q

What are some inorganic compounds found in drinking water that may cause illness?

A

mercury
lead
copper
nitrates
nitrites
asbestos

89
Q

What are water contaminants that might produce acute health effects?

A

nitrate
nitrite
contamination from E. coli

90
Q

What contaminants in water may lead to chronic health effects?

A

benzene
vinyl chloride
tri-halomethanes
PCBs
dioxin

91
Q

What are disinfectants used in water systems?

A

free and combined chlorine
chlorine dioxide
ozone
ultraviolet irradiation
iodine (in emergency situations)

92
Q

What are examples of disinfectant byproducts?

A

trihalomethane
haloacetic acid
four most common trihalomethane:
chloroform
bromoform
dibromochloromethane
bromodichloromethane

93
Q

What is the minimum requirement for free chlorine in drinking water?

A

0.2 ppm

94
Q

What is the Coagulation and Flocculation process and how is it achieved? (Two steps)

A

the process of combining small, suspended particles into large aggregates in order to trap and remove microbiological organisms and turbidity
1. a chemical, such as alum (dehydrated aluminum sulfate) is added to the water to destabilize particles - rapid mixing promotes particle collisions.
2. flocculation - slow mixing process that transforms smaller particles into larger aggregates aka flocs

95
Q

What are the sedimentation and flotation processes in water treatment?

A

solid-liquid gravity separation process
sedimentation promotes the gravity-settling of solid particles to the bottom of the water column where accumulated solids are then removed
floatation introduces gas bubbles into the water that attach to solid particles and create bubble-solid agglomerates that float to the top of the water column where accumulated solids are the removed

96
Q

What are common particulates removed in water treatment filtration? (8)

A

clay
silt
colloidal and precipitated natural organic matter
metal salt
particulates from coagulation
lime-softening precipitates
iron and manganese precipitates
microorganisms

97
Q

What are the most common materials used in granular media filters in water treatment? (6)

A

sand
crushed anthracite coal
garnet
diatomaceous earth
ilmenite
granular activated carbon

98
Q

Describe a slow sand filter, including grain size.
Where are the solids removed?

A

Grain size of 0.25-0.35 mm, uniform coefficient no greater than 2.5
low filtration with no use of coagulation in pretreatment
relatively inexpensive
found particularly effective for removal of Giardia from low-turbidity water
solids removed almost entirely in thin layer on top of sand bed

99
Q

Describe rapid filtration, including grain size.
Where are the solids removed?

A

grain size of 0.5 to 0.7 mm with uniform coefficient of 1.5
usually consists of a passage of treated water through a granular media bed with greater sand depth then slow sand filter
solids removed within the voids and on top surface

100
Q

What are pressure filters?

A

Filter media contained in a steel pressure vessel
Water enters at a higher pressure than it leaves due to head loss in the filter medium, underdrain, and pipe connection
Generally recommended for drinking water

101
Q

Describe diatomaceous earth filters

A

contain natural, powder-like material composed of the shells of microscopic organisms called diatoms as media
powder is supported in a thin layer on either a metal screen or fabric
water pimped through the layer

102
Q

What type of well is LEAST likely to become contaminated?
drilled
bored
driven
dug

A

drilled

103
Q

Diatomaceous earth filters:
should be supplemented by a chlorination system
should be integrated into a rapid sand filtration system
can be used for public water treatment system
can be used in a public sewer treatment system

A

should be supplemented by a chlorination system

104
Q

Microbial pollution travels only a short distance through:
sandstone
smooth clay
fissured rock
limestone

A

smooth clay

105
Q

What type of filter is recommended for use in small communities and rural places?

A

slow sand

106
Q

All of the following are used to disinfect water EXCEPT:
chlorine
bromine
fluorine
iodine

A

fluorine

107
Q

Backsiphonage may be prevented by all of the following methods EXCEPT
hydrostatic loops
vacuum breakers
sir gap separation
backpressure units

A

hydrostatic loops

108
Q

Which of the following is the LEAST effective method for cadmium removal from drinking water?
activated carbon
iron coagulation
lime softening
ion exchange

A

activated carbon

109
Q

Before a drinking water sample is taken, the sampling tap should be clean, free of leaks, and flushed for how long?

A

2-3 mins

110
Q

What contaminant has been associated with learning and cognitive disorders in children who drink contaminated water?

A

lead

111
Q

What are degradable pollutants found in water?

A

organic matter
oil and grease
phenols
cyanides
nitrogen
nitrites
ammonia

112
Q

What are nondegradable pollutants found in water?

A

chlorinated hydrocarbons
nitrates
sulfates
metallic salts
hard detergents
phosphates
colloidal matter

113
Q

The wastewater from flushing of a water closet, latrine, or privy is referred to as

A

black water

114
Q

If a septic tank is pumped during a wet period, the:
water may flow into the tank
field may flood the tank
tank may float out of the ground
tank may be crushed by wet earth

A

tank may float out of the groun

115
Q

Nutrients associated with eutrophication include all of the following EXCEPT
organic carbon
potassium
nitrogen
phosphates

A

potassium

116
Q

Which of the following is LEAST important when reducing sewage to gases?
anaerobic bacteria
earthworms
protazoa
aerobic bacteria

A

earthworms

117
Q

A septic tank maintenance worker has checked an empty tank for the presence of hydrogen sulfide. The test was negatic, and there are no odors indicating the presence of other hazardous gases. Is the tank safe to enter without a respirator?

A

No, because oxygen and methane were not tested

118
Q

All of the following are true about ozone as a disinfectant EXCEPT
nontoxic to aquatic organisms
source of dissolved oxygen
excellent viricide
long-lasting residual

A

long-lasting residual

119
Q

Aerobic bacteria require all of the following EXCEPT
carbon
magnesium
phosphorus
nitrogen

A

magnesium

120
Q

What does a mottled brown and red soil indicate?

A

Inadequate aeration methods

121
Q

Alternative small wastewater treatment systems are considered UNLESS
impervious formations are found at a depth of 10 ft
space is limited and surface water supplies are inadequate
highly porous formations exist
high groundwater exists

A

impervious formations are found at 10 ft

122
Q

Lime coagulation, mixed media filtration, and activated carbon filtration will greatly reduce

A

EPA priority pollutants

123
Q

It is known that some common pathogenic organisms found in wastewater will survive more than __ of harsh temperature extremes

A

2 years

124
Q

A storm sewer is used to

A

remove rain other standing surface water

125
Q

Stream pollution is sometimes apparent by

A

a zone of degradation

126
Q

A young lake is considered to be

A

oligotrophic

127
Q

If the septic tank will also have a garbage disposal unit feeding into it, what needs to happen?

A

size of tank should be increased by 50%

128
Q

Sludge accumulation in a tank serving a normal home has been estimated at

A

18 to 21 gals per person per year

129
Q

How often should a septic tank for a private home be serviced?

A

Every 3 to 5 years

130
Q

Human disease from aerosols of wastewater:
are related primarily to wastewater treatment by the activated sludge, trickling filter, and spray irrigation processed
has been demonstrated from pathogens recovered in aerosols from the spray irrigation of treated wastewater
may be caused by very small numbers of organisms
is a hazard even to those who have had subclinical infections, and thus should have been immunized

A

are related primarily to wastewater treatment by the activated sludge, trickling filter, and spray irrigation processes

131
Q

Plants absorb certain constituents of wastewater; using wastewater for irrigation of consumable plant products may present a heal hazard to humans if the water contains:
nitrates
iron
cadmium
chlorides

A

cadmium

REHS (47 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions