MSK-EoB

Question 1

What is the primary function of the posterior cruciate ligament?
A-limit excessive anterior displacement of the tibia
B-limit excessive lateral rotation of the femur
C-limit excessive medial rotation of the femur
D-limit excessive posterior displacement of the tibia

Answer 1

D

Question 2

what statements are true regarding the medial meniscus?
A-almost complete O-shape
B-connected to the lateral meniscus by the transverse ligament
C-less risk of injury than lateral meniscus
D-made of synovial cartilage
E-very mobile

Answer 2

B

Question 3

which of the following statements regarding the intervertebral discs is true?
A-an intervertebral disc is found between the atlas and axis
B-the intervertebral disc has an Annulus fibrosis which prevents over rotation of the vertebrae
C-the intervertebral disc is completely composed of hyaline cartilage
D-the nucleus pulposus can rupture causing herniation of the annulus fibrosis-slipped disc
E-the nucleus pulposus is from the sclerotome

Answer 3

B

Question 4

what structure below is a secondary stabiliser of the knee?
A-anterior cruciate ligament 
B-arcuate ligament 
C-long head of biceps femoris 
D-medial collateral ligament 
E-posterior cruciate ligament

Answer 4

C

Question 5

which of the following statements regarding the innervation of the upper limb is true?
A-the brachial plexus is formed from the dorsal rami of C5-T1
B-the musculocutaneous nerve innervates coracobrachialis
C-the radial nerve is motor to the intrisic muscles of the hands
D-the ulnar nerve innervates the triceps brachii
E-the ulnar nerve is related to the lateral epicondyle of the humerus

Answer 5

B

Question 6

the muscle primarily responsible for dorsiflexion and inversion of the foot is:
A-extensor digitorum longus 
B-fibularis tertius
C-gastrocnemius 
D-tibialis anterior 
E-tibialis posterior

Answer 6

D

Question 7

which of the following statements regarding the limb is true?
A-the femoral triangle if formed by boundaries of the inguinal ligament, soleus and vastus lateralis
B-the gluteus maximus medially rotates the hip
C-the gluteus medius acts to adduct the hip
D-the lower limb predominantly supplied by the femoral artery, a branch of the internal iliac artery
E-the rectus femoris acts to flex the hip and extend the knee

Answer 7

E

Question 8

At what point in the gait cycle does the first double limb support occur?
A-initial contact
B-mid stance
C-midswing
D-terminal stance

Answer 8

D

Question 9

bone formation
A-is a rapid process mediated by osteoblasts and requires acid phosphatase
B-is timulated by high levels of pyrophosphate and sclerostin
C-only takes place during growth and after a fracture
D-starts by synthesis of collagen type 2 followed by osteopontin
E-takes several months and involves synthesis of osteoid and deposition of mineral

Answer 9

E

Question 10

what is the main blood supply to the femoral head in an adult?
A-inferior gluteal artery
B-lateral circumflex artery
C-lateral epiphyseal arter 
D-ligamentum teres 
E-obturator artery

Answer 10

C

Question 11

what joint related substance is nonsulfated glycosaminoglycan?
A-cathepsin K
B-hyaluronic acid
C-lubricin
D-serralysin 
E-type I collagen

Answer 11

B

Question 12

what is the distal most muscle insertion on the anterior aspect of the radius?
A-flexor digitorum superficialis 
B-flexor pollicis longus
C-pronator quadratus 
D-pronator teres
E-supinator

Answer 12

C

Question 13

At what point in the gait cycle does the first double limb support occur?
A-initial contact
B-mid stance
C-midswing
D-terminal stance

Answer 13

A

Question 14

Bones grow in length due to activity in the...
A-epiphyseal plate 
B-medullary cavity 
C-perichondrium 
D-periosteum 
E-vertebrae

Answer 14

A

Question 15

Collagen type I…
A-is a heterodimer consisting of one alpha1 chain and one alpha2 chain
B-is a protein that forms fibres inside the osteoblast and is subsequently secreted onto the bone surface
C-is a protein that is specific to the bone matrix
D-is degraded by osteocytes to provide space for haematopoiesis
E-is secreted as an immature protein, which undergoes cleavage of the telepeptides outside the cell

Answer 15

E

Question 16

The main hormones regulating calcium homeostasis are:
A-25(OH) vitamin D and FGF23
B-leptin and testosterone
C-oestrogen and parathyroid hormone
D-OPG and sclerostin
E-parathyroid hormone and 1,25(OH)2 vitamin D

Answer 16

E

Question 17

what are the main structural and compositional difference between tendon and ligament?
A-ligament has higher proteoglycan and elastin content and its collagen fibres are less parallel orientated
B-ligament only have higher amount elastin present
C-only difference is in the structure of collagen fibres
D-tendon has a higher elastin and proteoglycan content and its collagen fibres are parallel orientated
E-they both have a similar extracellular matrix composition with no structural differences

Answer 17

A

Question 18

In endochondral ossification what happens to the hypertrophic chondrocytes:
A-some dies in hypertrophic zone but others differentiate into osteoblasts
B-they develop into osteocytes
C-they dies in the calcified matrix that surrounds them and form the medullary cavity
D-they group together to form the primary ossification centre
E-they grow and form the periosteum

Answer 18

A

Question 19

what is Newtons 2nd law of motion?
A-every object will remain at rest of in uniform motion in a straight line unless compelled to change its state by the action of an external force
B-for every action-force-there is an equal and opposite reaction
C-there is a force equal to change in momentum (mass x velocity) per change in time
D-total entropy of an isolated system can never decrease over time, and it constant if and only if all processes are reversible
E-when energy passes into or out of a system-as work, heat, or matter-the system internal energy changes in accord with the law of conservation of energy

Answer 19

C

Question 20

intramembranous bone formation is dependent on:
A-cartilage chondrocytes 
B-collagen type II expression 
C-mesenchymal condensation 
D-RANKL
E-sox9 transcription factor

Answer 20

C

Question 21

we can use histology to identify the different types of muscle as:
A-both cardiac and skeletal. muscle have clear striations, while smooth muscle does not. Nuclei are peripheral in skeletal muscle fibres while they are central in cardia muscle
B-in cardiac muscle, fibres are separated by matrix containing mostly type II collagen while this is type III for smooth muscle and type I for skeletal
C-smooth muscle fibres only have a single nucleus per fibre and th fibres are connected by intercalated discs while both cardiac and skeletal muscle fibres have multiple nuclei per fibre however the nuceli are located central in cardiac muscle and peripheral in skeletal muscle
D-using a Masson’s trichrome stain smooth muscle stains green skeletal muscle stains pink and cardiac muscle stains blue
E-using ATPase stain, the smooth, skeletal and cardiac muscle fibres have different staining intensities

Answer 21

A

Question 22

regarding evolution in what perspective in Tinbergen's "how" question represented:
A-devonian 
B-diachronic
C-proximate 
D-synchronic 
E-ultimate

Answer 22

C

Question 23

biceps brachii is innervated by this nerve 
A-coracobrachialis 
B-the median nerve 
C-lateral cutaneous nerve 
D-musculocutaneous nerve 
E-radial nerve

Answer 23

D

Question 24

which nerve is a continuation of the femoral nerve
A-genitofemoral nerve
B-obturator nerve
C-saphenous nerve 
D-sciatic nerve 
E-sural nerve

Answer 24

C

Question 25

this nerve runs alongside the short saphenous vein 
A-common peroneal nerve 
B-genitofemoral nerve 
C-lateral cutaneous nerve 
D-sciatic nerve 
E-sural nerve

Answer 25

E