IS - VIRAL/VIRUS Flashcards

1
Q

Rubella is known as

A

Acquired rubella, German measles or 3-day measles,

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2
Q

enveloped, single-stranded RNA virus of the Togaviridae family.

A

rubella

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3
Q

highly contagious and is transmitted through respiratory secretions

A

Rubella

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4
Q

Rubella incubation period

A

incubation period: from 10 to 21 days, and 12 to 14 days is typical.

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5
Q

rubella is contagious for ________, beginning ______ before the appearance (if present) of a rash. and lasts from _____

A

12 to 15 days ; 5 to 7 days ; 3 to 5 days

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6
Q

Rubella may be:

  • Congenital rubella
  • Pregnant women, especially those infected in the first trimester, rubella can have _______ on the fetus
A

devastating effects

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7
Q

result in fetal death or manifest as rubella syndrome

A

utero infection:

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7
Q

rubella is associated with certain diseases such as

A

Stillbirth, encephalitis, hepatomegaly, bone defects, mental retardation, cataracts, thrombocytopenic purpura, cardiovascular defects, splenomegaly, and microcephaly

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8
Q

low birth weight and failure to thrive are common in

A

rubella

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9
Q

RUBELLA

______ : recently infected

______: protective indefinitely

_______ : acute or convalescent stage

______: never contracted the virus, never been vaccinated

A

IgM
IgG
Both present
Both absent

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10
Q

TORCH procedure in rubella stands for:

A

Toxoplasma
Other [viruses]
Rubella
Cytomegalovirus [CMV], and
Herpes

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11
Q

Rubeola is also known as

A

Measles

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12
Q

highly contagious disease caused by the rubeola virus

A

rubeola (measles)

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13
Q

single-stranded RNA virus, genus Morbillivirus (Paramyxoviridae family)

A

rubeola (measles)

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14
Q

rubeola is spread by

A

respiratory droplets

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15
Q

Rubeola prevention

A

measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine administered to 12-to 15-month-old children

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16
Q

rubeola is associated with (a complication) ________

A

subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)

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17
Q

testing in rubeola (measles)

A

Passive Latex Rubella Agglutination Test

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18
Q

Principle: Latex particles are sensitized with solubilized rubella virus antigens.
latex reagent is mixed with serum containing sufficient rubella antibodies, the
antigen-antibody complex will form visible clumps

A

Passive Latex Rubella Agglutination Test

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19
Q

interpretation of Passive Latex Rubella Agglutination Test

A

(+): agglutination

(-): no agglutination

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20
Q

large, enveloped DNA viruses that replicate within the cell’s nucleus

A

herpesviruses

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21
Q
  1. Herpes Simplex Virus
  • incubation period is _______
  • most frequent manifestation: _____ or _____
A

2 to 12 days ; common cold sore or fever blister

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22
Q
  1. Herpes Simplex Virus

________ : results from the reactivation of latent virus resting in paraspinal
or cranial nerve ganglia that innervate the site of primary infection.

A

Recurrent HSV disease

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23
Q
  1. Herpes Simplex Virus

Antigen types:
______: oral cavity and in skin lesions that occur above the waist.

______ is isolated primarily to the genital tract and skin lesions below the waist.

A

HSV-1 ; HSV-2

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24
1. Herpes Simplex Virus direct detection of antigen in tissues or cytologic preparation: ______________
immunofluorescence or immunoenzyme methods
25
1. Herpes Simplex Virus detection of the virus in body fluids (using monoclonal antibodies): _______ or ________
immunoassays or immunoblot techniques
26
2. Varicella-zoster Virus associated with Chickenpox (varicella; _________)
primary infection
27
In VZV, chickenpox.. - After a primary infection, the virus enters a _____ (presumably within nuclei in the dorsal root ganglia or cranial nerve sensory ganglia) - incubation period of _________.
latent phase ; 14 to 17 days
28
_______: reactivation of the virus (VZV)
shingles(zoster)
29
VZV is highly contagious
yes
30
VZV transmission
through the respiratory tract
31
In VZV, _______ to varicella do not protect against reactivation or clinical zoster.
Antibodies
32
VZV.. __________: detects antibodies to specific membrane antigens ______ methods are valuable for assessing the immune status of adults ____________: detect viral antigens in vesicular lesions; Rapid preliminary diagnosis Best way to diagnose: _________
indirect immunofluorescence EIA/ ELISA Direct immunofluorescence human diploid fibroblast cell cultures.
33
3. Human herpesvirus 6 Former ________ ______are the primary target of infection
B-lymphotropic virus ; T cells
34
Causes mild nonspecific symptoms and cervical lymphadenopathy, roseola infantum (exanthema subitum)
Human herpesvirus 6
35
3. Human herpesvirus 6 direct examination: _________ or ________
immunofluorescence or immunoperoxidase staining of cells taken from lesion
36
cocultivation of the patient’s peripheral blood cells with cord blood mononuclear cells
Culture in Human herpesvirus 6
37
member of the herpes family of viruses (herpesviruses); large, enveloped DNA virus; cell associated (spread from cell to cell)
Cytomegalovirus
38
CMV is pose greatest risk of infection are ________ and __________
fetuses and immunocompromised persons
39
Most common virus transmitted to the fetus; most common intrauterine infection
CMV
40
CMV transmission
oral, respiratory, or venereal route
41
CYTOMEGALOVIRUS ________: Persistent infections characterized by periods of reactivation
latent infections
42
CMV infection is (asymptomatic or symptomatic)
asymptomatic
43
CMV is life-threatening in ___________ - ______ and _______ are common manifestations of disseminated CMV
immunosuppressed patients ; Retinitis and encephalitis
44
classic congenital CMV syndrome:
neurologic symptoms, neuromuscular disorders, jaundice, hepatomegaly, and splenomegaly
45
CMV is linked to _________
Kaposi’s sarcoma
46
In (CMV) affected infants, the most common laboratory abnormality is a ____________
low platelet count (thrombocytopenia)
47
presence of antibodies against immediate-early and early antigens is associated with active infection
CMV
48
In CMV, IgG avidity testing: __________ - detect recent __________
measures antibody maturity ; primary CMV infection
49
In CMV, __________: associated with viral shedding.
antibody to early antigen
50
In CMV the preferred method for diagnosis is _________ and/or __________
culture of virus and/or polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
51
___________ for Detection of Antibodies to Cytomegalovirus (CMVscan Card Test)
Passive Latex Agglutination
52
__________ test for the detection of IgM and IgG CMV antibodies
passive latex agglutination
53
latex particles previously sensitized with CMV viral antigen are mixed with _____
serum
54
CMV test interpretation:
(+) agglutination (-) no agglutination
55
SARS means
Severe acute respiratory syndrome
56
the causative agent of SARS
coronavirus called SARS-associated coronavirus (SARS-CoV)
57
first reported in Asia in February 2003
SARS
58
SARS Incubation: _____; become ill within _______ after exposure
4 to 6 days ; 2 to 10 days
59
SARS is pneumonia by day _____ of illness, and most (70% -90%) developed ______
7-10 ; lymphopenia
60
______: detection of antibodies against SARS-CoV
EIA
61
the causative agents of influenza (flu)
CA: influenza viruses (A, B, C, D)
62
influenza virus that cause seasonal epidemics
influenza A and B viruses
63
are the only influenza viruses known to cause flu pandemics
Influenza A viruses
64
Influenza virus infections generally cause mild illness; not thought to cause human epidemics.
Influenza C virus
65
Influenza viruses primarily affect cattle with spillover to other animals
Influenza D viruses
66
Influenza (flu) infect the _____, _____ and sometimes the _____
nose, throat, and sometimes the lungs
67
influenza (flu) is spread mainly by tiny droplets through ______, _____ and ______
sneeze, cough, and talking
68
influenza (flu) prevention
flu vaccine every year
69
at risk for influenza (flu)
65 years and older, people of any age with certain chronic medical condition
70
rapid influenza diagnostic tests (RIDTs): detects _____
antigen
71
immunofluorescence assays, viral culture are also utilized for influenza (flu)
yes
72
the influenza virus types ___ and ____ cause most human illness and the flu season
A and B
73
Influenza A subtype: A(H1N1) clades: sub-clades:
subtype: A(H1N1) clades: 6B.1 sub-clades: 6B.1A
74
Influenza A subtype: A(H3N2) clades: subclades:
subtype: A(H3N2) clades: 3C.2a, 3C.3a subclades: 3C.2a1; 3C.2a2; 3C.2a3; 3C.2a4
75
Influenza B Lineages: B (victoria) Clades: Sub-clades:
Lineages: B (victoria) Clades: V1A Sub-clades: V1A;V1A.2;V1A.3
76
Influenza B Lineages: B (yamagata) Clades: Sub-clades:
Lineages: B (yamagata) Clades: Y1, Y2, Y3 Sub-clades: None
77
In Influenza A: two proteins on the surface of the virus: ______ and ________
hemagglutinin (H) and neuraminidase (N)
78
In influenza (flu), ________ is a process by which influenza viruses swap gene segments. It occurs when two influenza viruses infect a host at the same time and swap genetic information
reassortment
79
influenza A viruses that routinely circulate in people ______ and ______
A(H1N1) and A(H3N2)
80
_________ viruses are related to the pandemic 2009 H1N1 virus that emerged in the spring of 2009 and caused a flu pandemic
influenza A(H1N1)