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MT2 > IS - VIRAL/VIRUS > Flashcards

IS - VIRAL/VIRUS Flashcards

1
Q

Rubella is known as

A

Acquired rubella, German measles or 3-day measles,

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2
Q

enveloped, single-stranded RNA virus of the Togaviridae family.

A

rubella

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3
Q

highly contagious and is transmitted through respiratory secretions

A

Rubella

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4
Q

Rubella incubation period

A

incubation period: from 10 to 21 days, and 12 to 14 days is typical.

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5
Q

rubella is contagious for ________, beginning ______ before the appearance (if present) of a rash. and lasts from _____

A

12 to 15 days ; 5 to 7 days ; 3 to 5 days

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6
Q

Rubella may be:

  • Congenital rubella
  • Pregnant women, especially those infected in the first trimester, rubella can have _______ on the fetus
A

devastating effects

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7
Q

result in fetal death or manifest as rubella syndrome

A

utero infection:

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7
Q

rubella is associated with certain diseases such as

A

Stillbirth, encephalitis, hepatomegaly, bone defects, mental retardation, cataracts, thrombocytopenic purpura, cardiovascular defects, splenomegaly, and microcephaly

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8
Q

low birth weight and failure to thrive are common in

A

rubella

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9
Q

RUBELLA

______ : recently infected

______: protective indefinitely

_______ : acute or convalescent stage

______: never contracted the virus, never been vaccinated

A

IgM
IgG
Both present
Both absent

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10
Q

TORCH procedure in rubella stands for:

A

Toxoplasma
Other [viruses]
Rubella
Cytomegalovirus [CMV], and
Herpes

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11
Q

Rubeola is also known as

A

Measles

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12
Q

highly contagious disease caused by the rubeola virus

A

rubeola (measles)

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13
Q

single-stranded RNA virus, genus Morbillivirus (Paramyxoviridae family)

A

rubeola (measles)

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14
Q

rubeola is spread by

A

respiratory droplets

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15
Q

Rubeola prevention

A

measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine administered to 12-to 15-month-old children

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16
Q

rubeola is associated with (a complication) ________

A

subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)

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17
Q

testing in rubeola (measles)

A

Passive Latex Rubella Agglutination Test

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18
Q

Principle: Latex particles are sensitized with solubilized rubella virus antigens.
latex reagent is mixed with serum containing sufficient rubella antibodies, the
antigen-antibody complex will form visible clumps

A

Passive Latex Rubella Agglutination Test

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19
Q

interpretation of Passive Latex Rubella Agglutination Test

A

(+): agglutination

(-): no agglutination

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20
Q

large, enveloped DNA viruses that replicate within the cell’s nucleus

A

herpesviruses

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21
Q
  1. Herpes Simplex Virus
  • incubation period is _______
  • most frequent manifestation: _____ or _____
A

2 to 12 days ; common cold sore or fever blister

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22
Q
  1. Herpes Simplex Virus

________ : results from the reactivation of latent virus resting in paraspinal
or cranial nerve ganglia that innervate the site of primary infection.

A

Recurrent HSV disease

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23
Q
  1. Herpes Simplex Virus

Antigen types:
______: oral cavity and in skin lesions that occur above the waist.

______ is isolated primarily to the genital tract and skin lesions below the waist.

A

HSV-1 ; HSV-2

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24
Q
  1. Herpes Simplex Virus

direct detection of antigen in tissues or cytologic preparation: ______________

A

immunofluorescence or immunoenzyme methods

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25
Q
  1. Herpes Simplex Virus

detection of the virus in body fluids (using monoclonal antibodies): _______ or ________

A

immunoassays or immunoblot techniques

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26
Q
  1. Varicella-zoster Virus

associated with Chickenpox (varicella; _________)

A

primary infection

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27
Q

In VZV, chickenpox..

  • After a primary infection, the virus enters a _____ (presumably within nuclei in the dorsal root ganglia or cranial nerve sensory ganglia)
  • incubation period of _________.
A

latent phase ; 14 to 17 days

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28
Q

_______: reactivation of the virus (VZV)

A

shingles(zoster)

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29
Q

VZV is highly contagious

A

yes

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30
Q

VZV transmission

A

through the respiratory tract

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31
Q

In VZV, _______ to varicella do not protect against reactivation or clinical zoster.

A

Antibodies

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32
Q

VZV..

__________: detects antibodies to specific membrane antigens

______ methods are valuable for assessing the immune status of adults

____________: detect viral antigens in vesicular lesions; Rapid preliminary diagnosis

Best way to diagnose: _________

A

indirect immunofluorescence

EIA/ ELISA

Direct immunofluorescence

human diploid fibroblast cell cultures.

33
Q
  1. Human herpesvirus 6

Former ________

______are the primary target of infection

A

B-lymphotropic virus ; T cells

34
Q

Causes mild nonspecific symptoms and cervical lymphadenopathy, roseola infantum (exanthema subitum)

A

Human herpesvirus 6

35
Q
  1. Human herpesvirus 6

direct examination: _________ or ________

A

immunofluorescence or immunoperoxidase staining of cells taken from lesion

36
Q

cocultivation of the patient’s peripheral blood cells with cord blood mononuclear cells

A

Culture in Human herpesvirus 6

37
Q

member of the herpes family of viruses (herpesviruses); large, enveloped DNA virus; cell associated (spread from cell to cell)

A

Cytomegalovirus

38
Q

CMV is pose greatest risk of infection are ________ and __________

A

fetuses and immunocompromised persons

39
Q

Most common virus transmitted to the fetus; most common intrauterine infection

40
Q

CMV transmission

A

oral, respiratory, or venereal route

41
Q

CYTOMEGALOVIRUS

________: Persistent infections characterized by periods of reactivation

A

latent infections

42
Q

CMV infection is (asymptomatic or symptomatic)

A

asymptomatic

43
Q

CMV is life-threatening in ___________

  • ______ and _______ are common manifestations of disseminated CMV
A

immunosuppressed patients ; Retinitis and encephalitis

44
Q

classic congenital CMV syndrome:

A

neurologic symptoms,
neuromuscular disorders,
jaundice,
hepatomegaly, and
splenomegaly

45
Q

CMV is linked to _________

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma

46
Q

In (CMV) affected infants, the most common laboratory abnormality is a ____________

A

low platelet count (thrombocytopenia)

47
Q

presence of antibodies against immediate-early and early antigens is associated with active infection

48
Q

In CMV, IgG avidity testing: __________
- detect recent __________

A

measures antibody maturity ; primary CMV infection

49
Q

In CMV, __________: associated with viral shedding.

A

antibody to early antigen

50
Q

In CMV the preferred method for diagnosis is _________ and/or __________

A

culture of virus and/or polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

51
Q

___________ for Detection of Antibodies to Cytomegalovirus (CMVscan Card Test)

A

Passive Latex Agglutination

52
Q

__________ test for the detection of IgM and IgG CMV antibodies

A

passive latex agglutination

53
Q

latex particles previously sensitized with CMV viral antigen are mixed with _____

54
Q

CMV test interpretation:

A

(+) agglutination
(-) no agglutination

55
Q

SARS means

A

Severe acute respiratory syndrome

56
Q

the causative agent of SARS

A

coronavirus called SARS-associated coronavirus (SARS-CoV)

57
Q

first reported in Asia in February 2003

58
Q

SARS Incubation: _____; become ill within _______ after exposure

A

4 to 6 days ; 2 to 10 days

59
Q

SARS is pneumonia by day _____ of illness, and most (70% -90%) developed ______

A

7-10 ; lymphopenia

60
Q

______: detection of antibodies against SARS-CoV

61
Q

the causative agents of influenza (flu)

A

CA: influenza viruses (A, B, C, D)

62
Q

influenza virus that cause seasonal epidemics

A

influenza A and B viruses

63
Q

are the only influenza viruses known to cause flu pandemics

A

Influenza A viruses

64
Q

Influenza virus infections generally cause mild illness; not thought to cause human epidemics.

A

Influenza C virus

65
Q

Influenza viruses primarily affect cattle with spillover to other animals

A

Influenza D viruses

66
Q

Influenza (flu) infect the _____, _____ and sometimes the _____

A

nose, throat, and sometimes the lungs

67
Q

influenza (flu) is spread mainly by tiny droplets through ______, _____ and ______

A

sneeze, cough, and talking

68
Q

influenza (flu) prevention

A

flu vaccine every year

69
Q

at risk for influenza (flu)

A

65 years and older, people of any age with certain chronic medical condition

70
Q

rapid influenza diagnostic tests (RIDTs): detects _____

71
Q

immunofluorescence assays, viral culture are also utilized for influenza (flu)

72
Q

the influenza virus types ___ and ____ cause most human illness and the flu season

73
Q

Influenza A

subtype: A(H1N1)
clades:
sub-clades:

A

subtype: A(H1N1)
clades: 6B.1
sub-clades: 6B.1A

74
Q

Influenza A

subtype: A(H3N2)
clades:
subclades:

A

subtype: A(H3N2)
clades: 3C.2a, 3C.3a
subclades: 3C.2a1; 3C.2a2; 3C.2a3; 3C.2a4

75
Q

Influenza B

Lineages: B (victoria)
Clades:
Sub-clades:

A

Lineages: B (victoria)
Clades: V1A
Sub-clades: V1A;V1A.2;V1A.3

76
Q

Influenza B

Lineages: B (yamagata)
Clades:
Sub-clades:

A

Lineages: B (yamagata)
Clades: Y1, Y2, Y3
Sub-clades: None

77
Q

In Influenza A: two proteins on the surface of the virus: ______ and ________

A

hemagglutinin (H) and neuraminidase (N)

78
Q

In influenza (flu), ________ is a process by which influenza viruses swap gene segments. It occurs when two influenza viruses infect a host at the same time and swap genetic information

A

reassortment

79
Q

influenza A viruses that routinely circulate in people ______ and ______

A

A(H1N1) and A(H3N2)

80
Q

_________ viruses are related to the pandemic 2009 H1N1 virus that emerged in the spring of 2009 and caused a flu pandemic

A

influenza A(H1N1)

MT2 (45 decks)

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