Hippology Exam 2013 Flashcards

1
Q

Gastric ulcers affect which organ?

A

Stomach

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2
Q

What is the most common cause of colic?

A

Parasites

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3
Q

Aristides and Eclipse are famous horses from what breed?

A

Thoroughbreds

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4
Q

What does the term enteritis refer to?

A

Inflammation of the small intestine

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5
Q

Types of colic include:

A

Spasmodic, impaction, incareration and gas

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6
Q

atlanto-occipital malformation is affects which breed of horse?

A

Arabians

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7
Q

What type of shavings can be toxic if ingested by the horse?

A

Black Walnut

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8
Q

What is the term that refers to inflammation of the colon?

A

Colitis

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9
Q

Signs of colic include all of the following:

A

distended abdomen, rolling and kicking, anorexia

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10
Q

Where did the Clydesdale originate?

A

Scotland

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11
Q

What is the term for a feed that is accessible to only the foal and not the dam?

A

Creep Feeder

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12
Q

What is the correct order of the 3 parts of the small intestine?

A

Duodenum, Jejunum, Ileum

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13
Q

What contagious equine disease causes high fever, purulent nasal discharge, and enlargement of the submandibular lymph nodes?

A

Distemper

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14
Q

Foals with this condition typically die by 5 months of age, it primarily affects Arabians.

A

Combined immunodeficiency

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15
Q

All of the following are important environmental conditions to consider when housing horses:

A

temperature, humidity, ventilation

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16
Q

What is the primary function of the cecum?

A

Reabsorb nutrients

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17
Q

What are the main symptoms of sleeping sickness?

A

Stiffness, loss of appetite, depression, paralysis of lips and bladder

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18
Q

The hereditary condition Hyperkalemic peridoic paralysis (HYPP) has been traced back to what quarter horse stallion?

A

Impressive

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19
Q

How long should new horses be kept in isolation before being introduced to the herd?

A

21 days

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20
Q

A foal receiving colostrum is an example of what kind of immunity?

A

Passive immunity

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21
Q

What disease does the coggins test screen for?

A

Equine Infectious Anemia

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22
Q

What condition are Belgian horses commonly afflicted with?

A

Aniridia

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23
Q

True or False: If manure is kept near the barn, it should be kept where it can heat to kill parasite eggs and larvae.

A

True

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24
Q

Which organ produces the ova in the mare?

A

Ovary

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25
Which insect is the primary vector that spreads West Nile Virus?
Mosquito
26
What is the term for a lesser quality of sugar mule?
Cotton Mule
27
What are the main symptoms of rabies in horses?
Facial paralysis, lameness, fractious attitiude
28
This coat color is a very light yellow coat on unpigmented skin with either blue or pink eyes.
Cremello
29
What body system is the larynx part of?
Respiratory
30
What is azoturia commonly known as?
Monday morning disease
31
This coat color is born with the same proportion of white hairs that will grow in with each coat.
Roan
32
What are the rings that line the trachea composed of?
Cartilage
33
Symptoms of this virus range from mucous discharge, inflamed conjunctiva, abortion, to staggering, loss of coordination, and paralysis
Rhinopneumonitis
34
This pony originated on the west coast of Ireland.
Connemara
35
A roaring horse would make noise during what part of the breathing cycle?
Inspiration
36
Big head disease is caused by what?
Low levels of calcium and excessive phosphorus
37
The Lipizzan horse is commonly assoicated with the superb riding school located where?
Vienna
38
What does the term lordosis refer to in the horse?
A horse with an excessive sway back
39
What does a deficiency of iodine cause?
Goiter
40
What was the Hackney horse bred for?
Carriage horse
41
What would a "daisy cutter" be prone to?
Stumbling
42
What causes white muscle disease?
Selenium deficiency
43
This coat color appears mousy gray or smoke colored.
Grullo
44
When a horse "scalps" himself what two legs are affected?
Forefoot toe and hindfoot hairline
45
Define the dun coat color.
Varying dominant coat color with a shade of yellow.
46
Winding commonly affects base wide horses this traveling defect is commonly known as
Rope walking
47
How much feed should the average horse consume daily per 100 pounds of body weight?
2 pounds
48
True or False: The chestnut coat color should have a flaxen mane and tail.
False.
49
The art of riding the horse and understanding its needs.
Horsemanship
50
The left side of the horse.
Near side.
51
The right side of the horse.
Far side
52
Equipment and clothing used in showing
appointments
53
The art of riding horseback
equitation
54
A western saddle with a cinch hung from the center
Center fire
55
The back of the saddle
Cantle
56
A special knot on a hackamore
Fiadore
57
A noseband on the bridle
Cavesson
58
A hackamore lead rope
Mecate
59
A light vehicle used in racing
Sulky
60
A curb bit used on heavy harness horses and ponies
Liverpool bit
61
Attachment to the bridle to focus the horses vision forward
Blinkers
62
Used on trotting horses who carry check reins
Bar Bit
63
Buggy for fine harness horses
Viceroy
64
The term "cat-hammed" refers to what part of the horses body
Thighs and legs
65
What is the gestation period of the horse
11 months
66
Most foundation quarter horses can be traced back to the stallion Janus, what breed was he?
Thoroughbred
67
A horse who has a short steep croup is commonly called what
goose-rumped
68
A healthly foal should be standing and nursing in what time frame?
2 hours
69
What country is the Jutland breed from
Denmark
70
What is the term for a concave neck with a depression before the withers and a thick underline
Ewe neck
71
What type of bedding should be used for the birth of a foal?
Straw
72
Why should straw be used for the birth of a foal?
Shavings stick to the foals nostrils and can be inhaled.
73
Dan Patch was a famous breed of what horse?
Standardbred
74
Define the position of a stargazer
The horse holds its head awkwardly high
75
Parturition (birth) is composed of how many stages
3
76
Justin Morgan was the founding sire of what breed
Morgan
77
Which vertebrae are ususally affected in a horse with wobblers?
C3-C4
78
Prolonged labor with no parts of the foal visible, one foreleg, or the head with no forelimbs presenting are all considered signs of what?
Dystocia
79
Which lists the correct vertebral column of the horse?
``` Cervical (neck)= 7 Thoracic = 18 Lumbar = 6 Sacral = 5 Coccygeal (tail) = 18 ```
80
How many inches does a healthy hoof grow per month?
1/4 to 3/4 inch
81
How many pairs of the horses ribs are true ribs?
8
82
The term olecreanon refers to what?
Point of elbow
83
How would you trim a splayfooted horse to correct this defect?
trim the outer half of the foot
84
What is the formal name for the cannon bone on the right front leg?
Metacarpus
85
Which shoe helps prevent horses from hurting themselves when they brush while traveling?
Featheredged shoe
86
What would a farrier use a pair of nippers for?
to trim the wall of the hoof
87
The patella is also known as the
kneecap
88
What is an avulsion
wound characterized by tearing of skin causing a loose flap
89
What is the name of the first cervical vertebrae?
Atlas
90
What are the minimum vaccines that should be given to a horse?
EEE, WEE, tetnus and rabies
91
What breed is known to have one less lumbar (back) vertebra compared to the others?
Arabian
92
What is the normal pulse rate of the horse
50-70 bpm
93
Which 3 bones compose the pelivc girdle in the horse?
pubis, ilium, ischium
94
What does CRT stand for and what is the normal range for this value?
Capillary refill time: 1-3 seconds
95
The thorax cavity is enclosed by what structures?
Rib cage and diaphragm
96
True or false: the strenum is also known as the breastbone
True
97
What are borborygmus and what would they sound like in the event of an impaction?
Gut sounds, decreased
98
How many beats does the canter have?
3