Hippology Exam 2013 Flashcards

1
Q

Gastric ulcers affect which organ?

A

Stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the most common cause of colic?

A

Parasites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Aristides and Eclipse are famous horses from what breed?

A

Thoroughbreds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does the term enteritis refer to?

A

Inflammation of the small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Types of colic include:

A

Spasmodic, impaction, incareration and gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

atlanto-occipital malformation is affects which breed of horse?

A

Arabians

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What type of shavings can be toxic if ingested by the horse?

A

Black Walnut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the term that refers to inflammation of the colon?

A

Colitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Signs of colic include all of the following:

A

distended abdomen, rolling and kicking, anorexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Where did the Clydesdale originate?

A

Scotland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the term for a feed that is accessible to only the foal and not the dam?

A

Creep Feeder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the correct order of the 3 parts of the small intestine?

A

Duodenum, Jejunum, Ileum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What contagious equine disease causes high fever, purulent nasal discharge, and enlargement of the submandibular lymph nodes?

A

Distemper

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Foals with this condition typically die by 5 months of age, it primarily affects Arabians.

A

Combined immunodeficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

All of the following are important environmental conditions to consider when housing horses:

A

temperature, humidity, ventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the primary function of the cecum?

A

Reabsorb nutrients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the main symptoms of sleeping sickness?

A

Stiffness, loss of appetite, depression, paralysis of lips and bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The hereditary condition Hyperkalemic peridoic paralysis (HYPP) has been traced back to what quarter horse stallion?

A

Impressive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How long should new horses be kept in isolation before being introduced to the herd?

A

21 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A foal receiving colostrum is an example of what kind of immunity?

A

Passive immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What disease does the coggins test screen for?

A

Equine Infectious Anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What condition are Belgian horses commonly afflicted with?

A

Aniridia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

True or False: If manure is kept near the barn, it should be kept where it can heat to kill parasite eggs and larvae.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which organ produces the ova in the mare?

A

Ovary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which insect is the primary vector that spreads West Nile Virus?

A

Mosquito

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the term for a lesser quality of sugar mule?

A

Cotton Mule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the main symptoms of rabies in horses?

A

Facial paralysis, lameness, fractious attitiude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

This coat color is a very light yellow coat on unpigmented skin with either blue or pink eyes.

A

Cremello

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What body system is the larynx part of?

A

Respiratory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is azoturia commonly known as?

A

Monday morning disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

This coat color is born with the same proportion of white hairs that will grow in with each coat.

A

Roan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the rings that line the trachea composed of?

A

Cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Symptoms of this virus range from mucous discharge, inflamed conjunctiva, abortion, to staggering, loss of coordination, and paralysis

A

Rhinopneumonitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

This pony originated on the west coast of Ireland.

A

Connemara

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

A roaring horse would make noise during what part of the breathing cycle?

A

Inspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Big head disease is caused by what?

A

Low levels of calcium and excessive phosphorus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The Lipizzan horse is commonly assoicated with the superb riding school located where?

A

Vienna

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What does the term lordosis refer to in the horse?

A

A horse with an excessive sway back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What does a deficiency of iodine cause?

A

Goiter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What was the Hackney horse bred for?

A

Carriage horse

41
Q

What would a “daisy cutter” be prone to?

A

Stumbling

42
Q

What causes white muscle disease?

A

Selenium deficiency

43
Q

This coat color appears mousy gray or smoke colored.

A

Grullo

44
Q

When a horse “scalps” himself what two legs are affected?

A

Forefoot toe and hindfoot hairline

45
Q

Define the dun coat color.

A

Varying dominant coat color with a shade of yellow.

46
Q

Winding commonly affects base wide horses this traveling defect is commonly known as

A

Rope walking

47
Q

How much feed should the average horse consume daily per 100 pounds of body weight?

A

2 pounds

48
Q

True or False: The chestnut coat color should have a flaxen mane and tail.

A

False.

49
Q

The art of riding the horse and understanding its needs.

A

Horsemanship

50
Q

The left side of the horse.

A

Near side.

51
Q

The right side of the horse.

A

Far side

52
Q

Equipment and clothing used in showing

A

appointments

53
Q

The art of riding horseback

A

equitation

54
Q

A western saddle with a cinch hung from the center

A

Center fire

55
Q

The back of the saddle

A

Cantle

56
Q

A special knot on a hackamore

A

Fiadore

57
Q

A noseband on the bridle

A

Cavesson

58
Q

A hackamore lead rope

A

Mecate

59
Q

A light vehicle used in racing

A

Sulky

60
Q

A curb bit used on heavy harness horses and ponies

A

Liverpool bit

61
Q

Attachment to the bridle to focus the horses vision forward

A

Blinkers

62
Q

Used on trotting horses who carry check reins

A

Bar Bit

63
Q

Buggy for fine harness horses

A

Viceroy

64
Q

The term “cat-hammed” refers to what part of the horses body

A

Thighs and legs

65
Q

What is the gestation period of the horse

A

11 months

66
Q

Most foundation quarter horses can be traced back to the stallion Janus, what breed was he?

A

Thoroughbred

67
Q

A horse who has a short steep croup is commonly called what

A

goose-rumped

68
Q

A healthly foal should be standing and nursing in what time frame?

A

2 hours

69
Q

What country is the Jutland breed from

A

Denmark

70
Q

What is the term for a concave neck with a depression before the withers and a thick underline

A

Ewe neck

71
Q

What type of bedding should be used for the birth of a foal?

A

Straw

72
Q

Why should straw be used for the birth of a foal?

A

Shavings stick to the foals nostrils and can be inhaled.

73
Q

Dan Patch was a famous breed of what horse?

A

Standardbred

74
Q

Define the position of a stargazer

A

The horse holds its head awkwardly high

75
Q

Parturition (birth) is composed of how many stages

A

3

76
Q

Justin Morgan was the founding sire of what breed

A

Morgan

77
Q

Which vertebrae are ususally affected in a horse with wobblers?

A

C3-C4

78
Q

Prolonged labor with no parts of the foal visible, one foreleg, or the head with no forelimbs presenting are all considered signs of what?

A

Dystocia

79
Q

Which lists the correct vertebral column of the horse?

A
Cervical (neck)= 7
Thoracic = 18
Lumbar = 6
Sacral = 5
Coccygeal (tail) = 18
80
Q

How many inches does a healthy hoof grow per month?

A

1/4 to 3/4 inch

81
Q

How many pairs of the horses ribs are true ribs?

A

8

82
Q

The term olecreanon refers to what?

A

Point of elbow

83
Q

How would you trim a splayfooted horse to correct this defect?

A

trim the outer half of the foot

84
Q

What is the formal name for the cannon bone on the right front leg?

A

Metacarpus

85
Q

Which shoe helps prevent horses from hurting themselves when they brush while traveling?

A

Featheredged shoe

86
Q

What would a farrier use a pair of nippers for?

A

to trim the wall of the hoof

87
Q

The patella is also known as the

A

kneecap

88
Q

What is an avulsion

A

wound characterized by tearing of skin causing a loose flap

89
Q

What is the name of the first cervical vertebrae?

A

Atlas

90
Q

What are the minimum vaccines that should be given to a horse?

A

EEE, WEE, tetnus and rabies

91
Q

What breed is known to have one less lumbar (back) vertebra compared to the others?

A

Arabian

92
Q

What is the normal pulse rate of the horse

A

50-70 bpm

93
Q

Which 3 bones compose the pelivc girdle in the horse?

A

pubis, ilium, ischium

94
Q

What does CRT stand for and what is the normal range for this value?

A

Capillary refill time: 1-3 seconds

95
Q

The thorax cavity is enclosed by what structures?

A

Rib cage and diaphragm

96
Q

True or false: the strenum is also known as the breastbone

A

True

97
Q

What are borborygmus and what would they sound like in the event of an impaction?

A

Gut sounds, decreased

98
Q

How many beats does the canter have?

A

3