First aid Biochemistry Flashcards

1
Q

What type of DNA is in the nucleus and what charge does it carry?

A

It is densely negatively charged chromatin.

Bound around positively charged histones rich in lysine and argine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe the difference between histone methylation and histone acetylation.

A

Methylation generally makes DNA mute.

Acetylation relaxes DNA for transcription.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Nucleotide vs nucleoside

A

Nucleotide is the base, deoxyribose, and a phosphate.

Nucleoside is just the base, deoxyribose and sugar.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Adenosine deaminase deficiency can lead to what disease order?

A

Excessive ATP and dATP imbalances nucleotide pool preventing DNA synthesis and lowering lymphocyte count.

This is a common cause of SCID.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome?

A

Defctive purine salvage due to abscent HGPRT which converts hypoxanthine to IMP and guanine to GMP.

Results in excess uric acid production and denovo purine synthesis!!

Intelectual diability, self mutilation, agression, hyperuricemia, and gout.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe the formation of uric acid

A

Ribose 5 phosphate creates IMP which is then broken down to inosine an finally hypocanthine.

Xanthine oxidase is then responsible for breaking hypoxanthine down into xanthine and finally uric acid that is meant to be secreted.

Any problems in this area can lead to hyperuricemia and gout.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Single stranded biding proteins

A

Keep DNA from recombining after being opened for transcription.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

DNA topoisomerases

A

These create single and double stranded breaks to help unwind the DNA supercoils. Fluoroquinolones inhibit this enzyme leading to DNA damage. (specifically topoisomerase II)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Primase

A

Makes RNA primer for DNA polymerase to begin replication on.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a silent mutation?

A

Nucleotide substition but codes for same amino acid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Missense mutation

A

Nucleotide substitiution resulting in changed amino acid

In sickle cell disease a glutamic acid is subtituted with a valine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What substitution occurs in sickle cell disease?

A

Glutamic acid is substituted with a valine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Nonsense mutation?

A

Nucleotide substitution that inserts a stop codon.

“Stop the nonsence”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a result of….

A

A frameshift through deletion or subtitution of a nucleotide.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Xeroderma pigmentosum

A

Sun damage leading to pyrimidine dimers because of ultralight exposure.
Generally protected by nucleotide excision repaire.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what direction are DNA and RNA synthesized?

A

5’ to 3’

Protein synthesis however is N terminus to C terminus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does the start codon AUG code for in eukaryotes and prokaryotes?

A

Eukaryotes codes for methionine

Prokaryotes codes for fMET

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

mRNA stop codons

A

UGA You go away
UAA You are away
UAG You are gone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

RNA pol1
RNA pol2
RNA pol3

A

rRNA
mRNA
tRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the eukaryotic and prokaryotic ribosomal subunits?

A

Eukaryotes: 40S and 60S form 80S
Prokaryotes: 30S and 50S form 70S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does tRNA bind to first?

A

Binds to the A site first.
Will then transition from the A site to the P site and finally the E site.

Elongation occurs at the P site.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does chaperone protein do?

A

It is responsible for maintaining protein folding while under stress from heat atc.

Hsp60 is specifically produced in response to heat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What function do p53 and Rb have in the cell cycle?

A

Normally inhibit G1 to S progression.

Mutations of these can lead to severe problems,

24
Q

where in the cell is the site of secretory protein synthesis?

25
Nissl bodies?
RER synthesize peptide neurotransmitters for secretion
26
Goblet cells would have massive ammounts of which type of organelle?
RER | For the secretion proteins.
27
Cell site of steroid synthesis and detoxifications of drugs and poisons?
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum Expect liver hepatocytes and adrenal cortex/gonads to be rich in SER.
28
What is I cell disease
Lysosomal storage disorder failure for the golgi to phosphorylate mannose residues (no mannose-6-phosphate) thus proteins are sent out extracellularly instead of to lysosyme.
29
Proteasome
Barrel shaped protein complex that seeks out ubiquitin tagged proteins for destruction.
30
what role do microfilaments play?
Muscle contraction/cytokinesis | Example would be actin.
31
What role do intermediate filaments play?
Maintain cell structure | Examples include: Vimentin, desmin, cytokeratin, lamins, glial fibrillary acid proteins, and neurofilaments.
32
What role do microtubules play?
Movement, cell division | Think cilia, flagella, mitotic spindle, axonal trafficking.
33
What is kartagener syndrome?
Primary ciliary dyskinesia in which a dynein arm defect is present. Results in male infertility due to immotile cilia (think microtubule damage)
34
Which 5 drugs act on microtubules?
``` Microtubules Get Constructed Very Poorly Mebendazole Griseofulvin Colchicine Vincristine/vinblastine Paclitaxel ```
35
How does Ouabain interact with the Na/K channel?
Binds to the potassium portion of the 2K/3NA channel inhibiting the channel.
36
Type I collagen?
Bone, skin, tedon Decreased in osteogenesis imperfecta type I
37
Type II collagen?
Cartilage | Cartwolage
38
Type III Collagen
Reticulin such as skin and blood vessels.
39
Ehlers danlos syndrome
Deficient in type III collagen!
40
Type IV collagen
Basement membrane, basal lamina | Type IV under the floor.
41
Alport syndrome
Autoantibodies in goodpasture syndrome against type IV collagen.
42
Which amino acid makes up most of collagen
Glycine makes up 1/3 of it with proline and lysine being common additives. Proline and lysine are usualy hydroxylated in the formation of collagen which requires vitamin C. (scurvy)
43
Ehlers Danlos syndrome
Crosslinkage of collagen fibrils outside of fibroblasts. this is the last stage of collagen formation.
44
Osteogenesis imperfecta
Decreased production of collagen type I Will have blue sclerae, hearing loss, and dental imperfections.
45
Classic type of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
Type V collagen mutation | Joint and skin conditions
46
Vascular type of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
Type III collagen deficiency | Vascular and organ rupture
47
Marfan syndrome
Defect in fibrillin forms a sheath around elastin.
48
Emphysema
Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency leading to excessive elastase activity.
49
Prader willi syndrome
Maternal imprinting | Hyperphagia, obesity, intillectual disability, hypogonadism and hypotonia
50
Angelman syndrome
``` Paternal imprinting (gene normally silent) Maternal gene deleted. Inappropriate laughter, sezures ataxia ```
51
Duchenne muscular dystrophy
Frameshift mutation due to deleted dystrophin | Look for weakened muscles and waddling gaits.
52
Becker muscular dystrophies
X-linked disorder, non frameshift insertions in dytrophin gene. Less severe form of duchenes muscular dystrophies.
53
Myotonic type 1 muscular dystrophy
CTG trinucleodtide repeat | Mytonia, testicular atrophy, frontal balding and arrythmia.
54
Trisomy 21
Down syndrome
55
Edwards syndrome Trisomy 18
Low set ears, clenched hands, rocker bottom feet. Second most common trisomy
56
Patau syndrome
Trisomy 13 Cleft palate Holocephaly Polydactly