FCOM BULLETIN Flashcards

1
Q

What anomaly may occur due to the Lav/Galley vent fan being OFF on the ground?

A

Blank Cabin Temperatures on the EICAS Air Synoptic display

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2
Q

Is any flight crew action needed when the Cabin Zone temperatures are blank?

A

No flight crew action is needed

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3
Q

What nuisance advisory message may show when flying faster than 250 knots?

A

EICAS Advisory GND PROX SYS

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4
Q

What actions may cause the GND PROX SYS advisory message to appear?

A

Selecting FLAP OVRD or GEAR OVRD

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5
Q

What must flight crew use when operating engine and wing anti-ice systems manually?

A

A non-standard icing temperature threshold

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6
Q

What is the purpose of combining the two engine TAT probes and the airplane TAT probe?

A

To provide a voted TAT solution displayed on EICAS.

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7
Q

What effect can a logic anomaly between engine and airplane TAT probes have?

A

It can affect the accuracy of the displayed TAT.

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8
Q

In the event of erroneous data from two TAT probes, how might the indicated TAT differ from the actual TAT?

A

Indicated TAT may be higher or lower than actual TAT.

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9
Q

What temperature must be assumed for icing conditions when operating anti-ice systems manually in flight?

A

15°C instead of 10°C.

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10
Q

What is the TAT source used when anti-ice is operated in AUTO mode?

A

A different TAT source not subject to the TAT anomaly.

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11
Q

Is anti-ice operation on the ground in manual mode normal?

A

Yes.

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12
Q

What is required for automatic operation of anti-ice in-flight?

A

No crew action is required for automatic operation at any temperature.

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13
Q

When must wing and engine anti-ice be ON during initial climb?

A

When TAT is 10°C or less.

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14
Q

Under what conditions must engine and wing anti-ice be ON when TAT is between 10°C and 15°C?

A

When visible moisture is present.

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15
Q

What is the latest altitude at which engine and wing anti-ice can be delayed during climb?

A

2500 feet AGL.

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16
Q

What should be assumed about AFM performance data when selecting anti-ice ON?

A

The airplane will achieve flaps-up, final climb speed and clear all obstacles at a height of 1500 feet AGL or less.

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17
Q

When TAT is 15°C or less and visible moisture is present, what must be done?

A

Engine and wing anti-ice must be ON.

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18
Q

What is the caution regarding TAT when using engine or wing anti-ice?

A

Do not use engine or wing anti-ice when TAT is above 15°C.

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19
Q

What should be done when engine and wing anti-ice are no longer needed?

A

Position ENGINE ANTI-ICE selectors to AUTO or OFF and WING ANTI-ICE selector accordingly.

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20
Q

If ice detection is available, what position should the selectors be set to when ice is not detected?

A

AUTO.

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21
Q

If ice detection is inoperative, what should the selectors be positioned to?

A

OFF.

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22
Q

What does the EICAS advisory message ANTI-ICE ON indicate?

A

It shows when the anti-ice system is ON and displayed TAT is above 10°C.

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23
Q

What problem has Boeing received reports about?

A

Altitude setting on the MCP changing without flight crew action.

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24
Q

What is the typical range of altitude change reported?

A

Between 100 and 4000 feet.

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25
Q

What indications occur when the MCP altitude monitor activates?

A
  • The AUTOPILOT caution message shows
  • A line through the pitch FMA
  • Flight director pitch bar or cue is removed if on
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26
Q

What unusual instance was reported regarding the MCP altitude?

A

The MCP altitude changes, but the AUTOPILOT message did not show.

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27
Q

What failure modes can occur regarding the MCP altitude?

A
  • An uncommanded MCP altitude change without AUTOPILOT message
  • An uncommanded MCP altitude change with AUTOPILOT message
  • A commanded MCP altitude change incorrectly sensed by the monitor
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28
Q

Fill in the blank: The flight crew should maintain awareness of the _______ because of potential altitude change issues.

A

[selected altitude]

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29
Q

What effects can occur if an uncommanded altitude change happens on the MCP?

A

The AUTOPILOT message shows.

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30
Q

What message is displayed when an uncommanded altitude change occurs?

A

The AUTOPILOT message shows

This indicates a potential issue with the autopilot system.

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31
Q

What happens to the flight director pitch bar during an uncommanded altitude change?

A

The flight director pitch bar or the integrated flight director cue is removed

This can impact the pilot’s ability to maintain the desired flight path.

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32
Q

What is indicated by a line through the pitch FMA?

A

A line through the pitch FMA indicates a mode change or issue

This line signifies that the selected mode is not currently active.

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33
Q

What should be done if an AUTOPILOT mode fail nuisance trip occurs in VNAV?

A

Change the pitch mode on the MCP, then re-engage VNAV

This helps to reset the system and clear the nuisance trip.

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34
Q

List the steps to take if the MCP altitude setting changes without flight crew action.

A
  • Verify the last cleared altitude
  • Set the correct altitude on the MCP
  • Disengage the autopilot
  • Select both flight directors to OFF
  • Select both flight directors to ON
  • Engage the autopilot

These steps ensure proper control after an uncommanded change.

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35
Q

What is the effect of disengaging the autopilot and turning off both flight director switches simultaneously?

A

The anomaly clears only when the autopilot is disengaged and both flight director switches are OFF

This is crucial for resetting the system.

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36
Q

What is the purpose of automatic LNAV activation?

A

To reduce pilot workload during a missed approach.

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37
Q

What happens when the TO/GA switch is pushed in the air during a missed approach?

A

LNAV automatically arms and activates as the roll mode.

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38
Q

What is the effect of a second push of the TO/GA switch on a missed approach?

A

Increases thrust to maximum go-around thrust and LNAV stays active.

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39
Q

Under what conditions does automatic LNAV activation occur?

A

When flaps are not UP, an instrument approach is loaded, and a TO/GA switch is pushed in the air.

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40
Q

What may cause confusion during simulator training regarding LNAV activation?

A

Pushing a TO/GA switch after takeoff with an approach loaded.

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41
Q

What happens if a TO/GA switch is pushed after takeoff and no course is available?

A

The flight director roll bar blanks, the flight director guidance cue on the HUD blanks, and LNAV shows on the FMA.

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42
Q

What is the recommended action if unwanted LNAV activation occurs?

A

Select an appropriate roll mode to restore the roll bar.

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43
Q

What two options do flight crews have to avoid unwanted LNAV activation before departure?

A

Avoid loading the instrument approach until after departure or be ready to select an alternate roll mode.

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44
Q

What does the GLIDESLOPE alert indicate during an approach?

A

Potential for an unwanted GLIDESLOPE alert on an IAN approach other than ILS or GLS.

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45
Q

What altitude must the airplane be below for a GLIDESLOPE alert to potentially occur?

A

1,000 feet AGL.

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46
Q

What are two conditions that can cause variations in barometric altimeter indication?

A
  • Incorrect altimeter setting
  • Warmer than standard OAT
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47
Q

What can cause the IAN glidepath to be higher than the visual glideslope indicator (VGSI) path?

A

A change in barometric pressure or an OAT that is warmer than standard.

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48
Q

What is the effect of a pressure difference of .05 inches Hg on the VGSI and IAN glidepath?

A

It can cause a difference of 50 feet.

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49
Q

What should flight crew ensure during approach regarding altimeter settings?

A

Make sure the correct altimeter setting is set on each altimeter.

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50
Q

What happens to the airplane vertical path when the OAT is greater than approximately 10°C above ISA?

A

The airplane vertical path will be lower than 82 feet below the glidepath generated by the IAN.

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51
Q

What can flight crew do if a GLIDESLOPE alert occurs in VMC at low altitude?

A
  • Silence the GLIDESLOPE aural and continue on the VGSI path
  • Re-establish the FMC-based barometric IAN glidepath and transition to a visual approach and landing in the touchdown zone
  • Discontinue the approach.
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52
Q

What should be done at or below applicable weather minima when suitable visual references are established?

A

Transition to use of the VGSI path for the approach.

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53
Q

At what altitude does the premature thrust reduction occur according to the bulletin?

A

400 feet RA

This altitude is critical for monitoring thrust settings during takeoff.

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54
Q

What flap setting should be set for thrust reduction when takeoff flap settings are greater than FLAPS 5?

A

Based on a height, not a flap setting.

This adjustment is necessary to avoid premature thrust reduction.

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55
Q

Under what conditions do LNAV path deviations typically occur?

A

When waypoints on the SID are closer than approximately 10 nm and/or total course change exceeds approximately 120 degrees

This often happens on SIDs with a downwind leg.

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56
Q

What is a common example of a SID that experiences LNAV path deviation?

A

The ATUDO SG RNAV SID for RWY13R at Abu Dhabi International Airport (OMAA)

This SID features a 180-degree turn with waypoints less than 10 nm apart.

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57
Q

What does the flight management computer (FMC) use to generate the LNAV path?

A

The FMC creates a continuous flyable path that may differ from the published procedure

This occurs when the calculated turn radius is too large to fit between waypoints.

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58
Q

What happens to the lateral path on the navigation display (ND) when using a continuous flyable path?

A

The path cuts corners or drifts outward as needed

This adjustment maintains the continuous flyable path without discontinuities.

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59
Q

What factors determine the turn radius used by the FMC?

A

The VNAV predicted speed and a maximum 25-degree bank angle

The radii of connected turns are based on the speed calculated at the end of those turns.

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60
Q

What happens when the speed window is opened and a lower speed is selected?

A

The path is not redrawn with smaller turn radii and follows a wide path with a shallower bank angle

The ND refers to the Navigation Display, which shows the aircraft’s path.

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61
Q

In LNAV, what does the airplane do?

A

The airplane always follows the path on the ND unless the pilot intervenes

LNAV stands for lateral navigation.

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62
Q

How can a pilot ensure the FMC draws a complete series of connected turns?

A

By manually entering a lower climb speed on the CLB page or a waypoint speed constraint from earlier in the SID

FMC stands for Flight Management Computer.

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63
Q

What can resolve earlier reports involving similar issues for STARs?

A

Adding speed constraints in the published STARs

STAR stands for Standard Terminal Arrival Route.

64
Q

What should be done if there are waypoints on a SID closer than approximately 10 nm?

A

Manually insert a lower climb speed on the VNAV CLB page or waypoint speed constraint on the LEGS page

VNAV stands for vertical navigation.

65
Q

What is the purpose of manually inserting a lower climb speed or waypoint speed constraint?

A

To allow the FMC to calculate a path with a smaller turn radius that complies with the SID

This ensures that the aircraft adheres to the designed flight path and minimizes the risk of wide turns.

66
Q

What action should be taken during initial climb if the path on the ND changes back and forth?

A

Delay flap retraction as necessary until the series of turns has been completed

This helps maintain an adequate manoeuvring margin.

67
Q

What message is displayed when a TCP is inoperative?

A

SYSTEM NOT AVAILABLE ON THIS PANEL

This message indicates that the specific TCP cannot be used until it is reset.

68
Q

How many TCPs can be inoperative at the same time according to the reports?

A

Two or three TCPs

There are no reported cases of only one TCP being inoperative.

69
Q

What functions continue to operate when all TCPs are inoperative?

A
  • VHF
  • HF
  • SATCOM (SAT)
  • CABIN INTERPHONE (CAB)
  • GPWS
  • WXR
  • TCAS/XPDR
  • ALTN NAV
  • Alerting and transponder control panel (ATP)

These functions can still operate but require at least one TCP to be reset for control.

70
Q

What happens to the last tuned frequencies when all TCPs are inoperative?

A

The TCP retains the last tuned frequencies

This allows the flight crew to maintain communication even if the TCP is inoperative.

71
Q

What frequency did the right VHF radio maintain when all TCPs were inoperative?

A

121.5 MHz

This frequency is used for emergency communication.

72
Q

What is the potential issue with the IDENT switch on the ATP when all TCPs are inoperative?

A

The IDENT switch does not operate

This limits the ability to signal ATC for identification.

73
Q

What can cause uncommanded VHF frequency transfers?

A

Uncommanded VHF frequency transfers can occur affecting the selected radio (L, C, or R)

This can happen without pilot input on the transfer switch.

74
Q

What can uncommanded VHF frequency changes result in?

A

Changes to a random frequency or to the frequency used on the ground before flight

This can lead to unexpected communication issues.

75
Q

What issue has been reported with the transponder system?

A

Uncommanded transponder code changes

This can affect flight identification and tracking.

76
Q

What should the flight crew do if one or two TCPs are inoperative?

A

Select each inoperative TCP off, then back on

If the TCP becomes inoperative again, it should be left off for the rest of the flight.

77
Q

What is the procedure if three TCPs are inoperative?

A

Select all three TCPs off, then select only the right TCP on

This allows for partial functionality to be restored.

78
Q

What message is displayed when a TCP is inoperative?

A

SYSTEM NOT AVAILABLE ON THIS PANEL

79
Q

How can the flight crew select a TCP off?

A

By pushing the PANEL OFF switch in the lower-right corner of each panel for two seconds

80
Q

What action should be taken if a TCP becomes inoperative again after being reset?

A

Select that TCP off and leave it off for the rest of the flight

81
Q

What is the procedure if three TCPs are inoperative?

A

Select all three TCPs off, then select only the right TCP on

82
Q

After resetting a TCP, what should be confirmed?

A

That all system selections are set as desired, including frequency and transponder code

83
Q

What should be monitored if an uncommanded frequency transfer occurs?

A

The active frequency selection of the radio in use

84
Q

Which frequency should be monitored with one VHF radio unless needed for communications?

85
Q

What messages can show briefly after takeoff and landing with PCU Y201 software?

A

PACK L, R Advisory or PACK L+R Caution message

These messages can appear if a cabin air compressor (CAC) shuts down or is inoperative per the Minimum Equipment List (MEL).

86
Q

What causes the PACK L, R Advisory or PACK L+R Caution message to show?

A

The shutdown of a CAC or if the CAC is on a MEL

The messages can show briefly due to the conservative logic used by Y201 software.

87
Q

During which phases of flight can PACK messages show?

A

Takeoff and landing

Messages can show anytime after liftoff until 1,000 feet above airport elevation and after touchdown.

88
Q

How long can PACK messages show before blanking without flight crew action?

A

Up to 2 minutes

This occurs as the CACs transition to a different flow schedule.

89
Q

What is the purpose of the takeoff alert inhibit?

A

To minimize distractions for the flight crew during takeoff

It begins above 80 knots and continues until 400 feet RA.

90
Q

What happens to the PACK L, R Advisory message during takeoff alert inhibit?

A

It is inhibited

The Master Caution Lights and aural beeper for the PACK L+R Caution message are also inhibited, but the EICAS message still shows.

91
Q

What triggers the PACK ALTITUDE LIMIT Caution message?

A

When only one pack is operating per the MEL

The likelihood of this message appearing increases with the Y201 software installed.

92
Q

When can the PACK ALTITUDE LIMIT Caution message show during takeoff?

A

After liftoff until 1,000 feet above airport elevation

It can also show at altitudes less than 1,000 feet above airport elevation until touchdown on landing.

93
Q

What is the duration for which the PACK ALTITUDE LIMIT message can show?

A

Up to 2 minutes

This occurs as the CACs transition to a different flow schedule.

94
Q

What will be added to a future revision of the Dispatch Deviation Guide (DDG)?

A

An Operations Note reminding the flight crew about PACK messages

This will include information on dispatching with an inoperative CAC and PCU Y201 software.

95
Q

When can the PACK ALTITUDE LIMIT message show during takeoff?

A

After liftoff until 1,000 feet above airport elevation.

This is when only one pack is operating.

96
Q

When can the PACK ALTITUDE LIMIT message show during landing?

A

At altitudes less than 1,000 feet above airport elevation until touchdown.

97
Q

What is the purpose of the Operations Note to be added to the Dispatch Deviation Guide (DDG)?

A

To remind the flight crew that the PACK ALTITUDE LIMIT message can show when dispatching in a specific configuration.

98
Q

How should pilots respond to EICAS alerts related to PACK messages?

A

They must respond in a manner appropriate to the alert and their current workload and tasks.

99
Q

Is it acceptable for pilots to wait before responding to PACK messages? If so, for how long?

A

Yes, it is acceptable to wait up to 2 minutes.

100
Q

How is the door operated from the flight deck?

A

By rotating a door knob

101
Q

What mechanism is activated when the door knob is rotated?

A

Decompression latch assembly mechanism

102
Q

What can happen if the cam in the mechanism fails?

A

The door bolt can be forced to an overextended position, causing the door to jam

103
Q

What should the flight crew do if the door knob is inoperative?

A

Manually open the flight deck door decompression panel

104
Q

What is the first step to take if you cannot open the flight deck door?

A

Do not attempt to open the door by using the flight deck door access control panel or by entering the entry code in the flight deck access keypad.

This emphasizes the importance of following the correct emergency procedures.

105
Q

What should you do to release the flight deck door decompression panel?

A

Open the cover guard on the decompression latch assembly and push the button to release the panel.

This step ensures that the decompression panel is safely released before proceeding.

106
Q

After releasing the decompression panel, how should you open the flight deck door?

A

Push the bottom of the door aft and open as far as possible into the passenger cabin.

This action allows for maximum access into the passenger cabin.

107
Q

What is the final step to enter the passenger cabin after opening the door?

A

Pull the decompression panel forward into the flight deck and enter the passenger cabin.

This step completes the procedure for accessing the passenger cabin.

108
Q

What can cause unreliable Radio Altimeter (RA) indications?

A

Low Range Radio Altimeter (LRRA) system anomalies and certain types of ground interference

These conditions can affect critical systems for landing performance.

109
Q

What are the two identified sources of potential unreliable RA indications?

A
  • Suspected interference from unknown sources near airports
  • Potential interference from 5G cellular installations near US airports

These sources are being investigated for their impact on RA performance.

110
Q

What is the specific safety hazard associated with RA anomalies?

A

Reduction of landing performance margins due to malfunctioning RAs in NCD state

This affects autothrottle, spoiler, thrust reverser, and autobrake behavior.

111
Q

What has been introduced to simplify flight crew workload for RA issues?

A

Radio Alt Unreliable Non-Normal Checklist (NNC)

This checklist aims to streamline procedures related to RA anomalies.

112
Q

When should the Radio Alt Unreliable NNC be used?

A

Prior to top of descent into airports prone to RA interference

The checklist can be used predictively based on the condition statement regarding reported interference.

113
Q

Which flap setting is required to mitigate safety risks associated with the Radio Alt Unreliable NNC?

A

Flaps 30

Flaps 25 and Flaps 30 data are available, but Flaps 30 is specifically required.

114
Q

What conditions trigger the use of the Radio Alt Unreliable NNC during an approach?

A

RA anomalies persisting to 100 feet and a go-around due to:
* Left and right RA indications being different
* RA indications not showing in a PFD or HUD as expected

PFD stands for Primary Flight Display and HUD stands for Head-Up Display.

115
Q

What is the SGL SOURCE RAD ALT NNC?

A

A revised checklist with associated Performance Inflight Non-Normal Configuration Landing Distance tables

Applicable only for messages occurring after dispatch.

116
Q

What is the procedure if the selected roll mode does not engage?

A

Select an alternate roll mode

This is applicable for all runways.

117
Q

What should be done prior to descent for runways with known operational restrictions?

A

Perform the Radio Alt Unreliable NNC to determine landing performance

This helps in previewing potential FDEs during approach and landing.

118
Q

What indicates that previously calculated landing performance data may no longer be accurate?

A

Different left and right RA indications or missing RA indications in PFD or HUD below 1,000 feet RA

PFD stands for Primary Flight Display, and HUD stands for Head-Up Display.

119
Q

What should flight crews be prepared to do regarding thrust levers during all approaches?

A

Guard thrust levers and be prepared to disconnect the A/T and manually operate the thrust levers

A/T stands for Autothrottle.

120
Q

What action should be taken if thrust does not reduce to idle or increases in the flare?

A

Retard thrust levers manually to the idle stop and hold them closed

This includes disconnecting the A/T and instructing the PM to turn the A/T arm switches off.

121
Q

What should be done if thrust reversers do not deploy?

A

Ensure speedbrakes are extended

Manual deployment of the speedbrakes may be required.

122
Q

What is recommended if a transient NCD condition is recognized and persists to 100 feet?

A

A go-around is recommended

This allows time to complete the Radio Alt Unreliable NINC.

123
Q

At what altitude should autopilot not be used at CONUS non-CMA airports not covered by an AMOC?

A

Below 600 feet AGL

AGL stands for Above Ground Level.

124
Q

What should be done if TO/GA does not engage during a go-around?

A

Disconnect the autopilot and A/T, manually set go-around thrust, and smoothly rotate to standard 15-degree pitch attitude

It may be possible to restore TO/GA by adjusting the flight directors.

125
Q

How can TO/GA potentially be restored?

A

Turn both flight directors OFF, then ON, and push the TO/GA switch

126
Q

What should operators and pilots do if they experience RA anomalies during approach or landing?

A

Make a postflight entry in the maintenance log

127
Q

What is a common outcome of rejected, balked, and high bounced landings?

A

Performing a go-around

128
Q

What does the bulletin highlight regarding the Descent and Go-Around Procedures?

A

The need for awareness of TO/GA and thrust logic

129
Q

What is a contributing factor to events where recommended guidance for go-around, rejected landing, or balked landing was not followed?

A

A lack of awareness of thrust lever position and TO/GA availability on or near the ground.

130
Q

What is the behavior of the TO/GA system close to the ground and after touchdown?

A

TO/GA is inhibited.

131
Q

What must pilots do if the airplane has touched down before thrust reverser engagement?

A

Manually advance the thrust levers to go-around thrust.

132
Q

What should pilots do if the airplane has not touched down?

A

Push TO/GA in all instances.

133
Q

What is recommended for the Pilot Flying (PF) during approach, flare, landing, and go-around?

A

Keep one hand on the thrust levers.

134
Q

What should both pilots actively monitor during a dynamic and time-critical manoeuvre?

A
  • Airspeed
  • Pitch attitude
  • Thrust lever behavior
  • Flight mode annunciations
  • External runway environment
135
Q

What note has been added to the descent procedure?

A

To prompt the flight crew to brief the need for manual advancement of the thrust levers in the event of a go-around on or near the ground.

136
Q

What callout has been added to the Pilot Monitoring (PM) duties in the go-around procedure?

A

To ensure go-around thrust is set.

137
Q

What warning has been added to the go-around procedure?

A

The need to manually set and verify thrust for go-around on or near the ground.

138
Q

What must pilots do with thrust during a go-around after touchdown?

A

Thrust must be advanced manually if the thrust levers do not respond to TO/GA

This is crucial for the go-around procedure.

139
Q

What may endanger the airplane according to the FAA?

A

Loss of capability to control thrust due to a failure of the engine thrust control system

This includes issues like auto-acceleration or uncommanded thrust changes.

140
Q

List one characteristic of engine thrust control system malfunctions.

A
  • Auto-acceleration or uncommanded thrust change to higher power
  • Stuck thrust lever above idle power
  • Inability to reduce thrust

These characteristics can potentially pose safety risks.

141
Q

What is the importance of documenting engine thrust control incidents?

A

To ensure the present level of safety is maintained and/or to identify failure conditions that must be corrected

Even incidents that may not appear safety-related should be documented.

142
Q

What phrases should operators include when filing a report with the FAA?

A
  • ‘thrust control’
  • ‘no response to thrust lever’
  • ‘auto-acceleration’
  • ‘uncontrolled high thrust’

These phrases help clarify the nature of the incident.

143
Q

What additional information should be included in the FAA report?

A
  • Event description
  • Flight crew action

Detailed reporting helps in assessing and addressing the issue effectively.

144
Q

What must be done alongside filing an FAA report?

A

Make a Technical Log entry and submit an Intelex Report

Both should include all details specified in the background section.

145
Q

Who should the Intelex Report be directed to?

A

B787 Technical Pilot and B787 Fleet Engineering Manager

This ensures the issue is forwarded to the FAA appropriately.

146
Q

What must flight crew do if they experience engine rollback while operating in ice crystal icing (ICI) conditions?

A

Perform a borescope inspection of all HPC Stage 1 blade airfoils on both engines prior to the next revenue service.

This inspection is required to ensure no damage was caused while flying in ICI conditions.

147
Q

What is the purpose of the new software installed in the engine?

A

To cycle VBVs (variable bypass valves) in an attempt to prevent engine rollback issues.

These events should be very rare.

148
Q

What should the flight crew do if the ENGINE THRUST L or R EICAS message annunciates?

A

Complete a Technical Log entry and submit an Intelex Report.

149
Q

What issue may the Wing Ice Protection System (WIPS) fault cause?

A

ANTI-ICE WING Caution level EICAS messages.

150
Q

What happens if enough zones are affected by the WIPCU fault?

A

The ANTI-ICE WING Caution level EICAS message and WING ANTI-ICE SYS Status message will appear.

151
Q

What should the flight crew do when the ANTI-ICE WING Caution level EICAS message appears?

A

Avoid icing conditions which may result in a diversion depending on the route.

152
Q

What is the first step in the operating instructions if the ANTI-ICE WING Caution level EICAS message appears?

A

Complete the associated NNC

NNC stands for Non-Normal Checklist.

153
Q

What should be done after completing the NNC according to the operating instructions?

A

Contact Maintenance Control to advise of the fault and intent to complete the following procedure

This ensures that maintenance is aware of the issue during the flight.

154
Q

What is the procedure for resetting the WING ANTI-ICE selector?

A
  1. OFF WING ANTI-ICE selector, wait 60 seconds. 2. ON WING ANTI-ICE selector, wait 10 seconds. 3. OFF WING ANTI-ICE selector, wait 60 seconds. 4. Select to the original dispatch position

This procedure is to be completed while in cruise and not in icing conditions.

155
Q

What should be done if the fault remains after following the procedure?

A

Perform standard corrective action as required

This indicates that further troubleshooting is necessary.