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787 > CH7 ENGINES, APU > Flashcards

CH7 ENGINES, APU Flashcards

1
Q

What primary engine indications are displayed full time on the EICAS display?

A

N1, EGT

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2
Q

What does TAT stand for and how is it displayed on the EICAS?

A

Total Air Temperature (TAT) is displayed in white and measured in degrees Celsius (°C).

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3
Q

What does the green display on the EICAS indicate?

A

Selected FMS thrust reference mode

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4
Q

What does the displayed thrust reference mode ‘TO’ indicate?

A

Maximum rated takeoff thrust

This is one of the thrust reference modes available.

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5
Q

What is the thrust reference mode ‘D-TO’ used for?

A

Assumed temperature derated takeoff thrust

This mode allows for reduced thrust during takeoff based on assumed temperature.

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6
Q

List the derated takeoff thrust modes available.

A
  • TO 1 - derate one takeoff thrust
  • TO 2 - derate two takeoff thrust
  • D-TO 1 - derate one assumed temperature derated takeoff thrust
  • D-TO 2 - derate two assumed temperature derated takeoff thrust
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7
Q

What does the ‘CLB’ thrust reference mode represent?

A

Maximum rated climb thrust

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8
Q

What is indicated when the thrust reverser is displayed as REV (amber)?

A

Reverser in transit

This indicates that the thrust reverser is moving to its deployed position.

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9
Q

What does a displayed REV (green) indicate?

A

Reverser fully deployed

This indicates that the thrust reverser is in the fully deployed position, allowing for reverse thrust.

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10
Q

What is the purpose of the ‘Assumed Temperature’ indication?

A

Selected assumed temperature (°C) for reduced thrust takeoff

This helps in optimizing performance during takeoff.

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11
Q

What does the thrust reference mode ‘CON’ stand for?

A

Maximum rated continuous thrust

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12
Q

What is the thrust reference mode ‘G/A’ used for?

A

Maximum go-around thrust

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13
Q

Fill in the blank: The thrust reference mode ‘CRZ’ indicates _______.

A

Maximum rated cruise thrust

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14
Q

What happens to N1 indications when reverse thrust is activated?

A

The following indications are not displayed:
* maximum N1 line
* commanded N1
* reference/target N1 indication
* reference N1

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15
Q

What does the N1 Red Line displayed in EICAS represent?

A

N1 RPM operating limit

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16
Q

What does the Reference/Target N1 indicate when displayed in green?

A

Reference N1 limit

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17
Q

What does displayed (magenta) target N1 represent when VNAV is active?

A

Target FMC commanded N1 when autothrottle is connected in THR or THR REF mode, or autothrottle disconnected

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18
Q

What does displayed (white) commanded N1 signify?

A

Commanded N1

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19
Q

What does a white commanded N1 sector indicate?

A

Momentary difference between engine N1 and N1 commanded by thrust lever position

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20
Q

What does an amber filled commanded N1 sector indicate?

A

A difference between engine N1 and commanded N1 exists and engine N1 is not closing toward commanded N1. EICAS alert message ENG THRUST (L or R) is displayed

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21
Q

What does displayed (amber) maximum N1 line represent?

A

Maximum N1

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22
Q

What does displayed (digital, green) reference N1 indicate?

A

Reference N1

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23
Q

What does digital N1 RPM (%) displayed in white indicate?

A

Normal operating range

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24
Q

What does digital N1 RPM (%) displayed in red signify?

A

Operating limit reached

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25
Q

What does a red N1 indication signify?

A

Operating limit reached

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26
Q

What does a green Ice Crystal Anti-Ice Indication (ICA) indicate?

A

Ice crystal anti-ice function is on

Ice crystal icing conditions may not be present

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27
Q

True or False: Each engine’s ice crystal icing function is dependent on the other.

A

False

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28
Q

What does the red EGT indication represent?

A

Maximum takeoff EGT limit

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29
Q

What does the amber EGT band indicate?

A

Maximum continuous EGT limit

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30
Q

What does a white EGT indication signify?

A

Normal operating range

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31
Q

What does an amber EGT indication signify?

A

Maximum continuous limit reached

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32
Q

What does a red EGT indication signify?

A

Maximum start or takeoff limit reached

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33
Q

Under what conditions is the EGT Start Limit Line displayed in red?

A

When the engine fire switch is in and:
* The FUEL CONTROL switch is in CUTOFF
* The N2 RPM is below idle

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34
Q

What temperature unit is used for EGT?

A

Degrees Celsius (°C)

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35
Q

What is indicated by the EGT when it is displayed in white?

A

Normal operating range

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36
Q

What is indicated by the EGT when it is displayed in amber?

A

Maximum continuous limit reached

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37
Q

What is indicated by the EGT when it is displayed in red?

A

Maximum start or takeoff limit reached

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38
Q

Fill in the blank: The EGT Start Limit Line is displayed in _______ when specific conditions are met.

A

red

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39
Q

What are the two conditions that can cause the EGT Start Limit Line to display red?

A
  1. FUEL CONTROL switch is in CUTOFF
  2. N2 RPM is below idle
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40
Q

What does the In-Flight Start Envelope indicate?

MAGENTA

A

Airspeed range necessary for an in-flight start at the current flight level or maximum flight level when the respective engine fire switch is in

This is relevant when the FUEL CONTROL switch is in CUTOFF or the engine N2 RPM is below idle.

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41
Q

When is the X-START indication displayed?

A

Displayed (magenta) when current altitude and/or airspeed are outside the windmilling start envelope

Starter assist is recommended for an in-flight start in this case.

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42
Q

What are the conditions for the In-Flight Start Envelope to be displayed?

A

When the respective engine fire switch is in and either the FUEL CONTROL switch is in CUTOFF or the engine N2 RPM is below idle

This is crucial for determining the feasibility of an in-flight start.

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43
Q

True or False: The In-Flight Start Envelope is displayed in white.

A

False

The In-Flight Start Envelope is displayed in magenta.

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44
Q

What does the Secondary Engine Display show?

A

• N2 RPM
• fuel flow (FF)
• oil pressure
• oil temperature
• oil quantity
• vibration

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45
Q

What does the N2 RPM indicate when displayed in white?

A

Normal operating range

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46
Q

What does the N2 RPM indicate when displayed in red?

A

Operating limit reached

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47
Q

What does the N2 Red Line indicate?

A

N2 RPM operating limit

The red line displayed indicates the maximum RPM that should not be exceeded.

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48
Q

What color indicates the normal operating range for N2 RPM?

A

White

White indicates that the N2 RPM is within the normal operating range.

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49
Q

What happens when the N2 RPM reaches its operating limit?

A

It is displayed in red

The red display signals that the engine has reached its maximum RPM limit.

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50
Q

What does the RUNNING indication displayed in green signify?

A

Fuel control switch is in RUN position and engine is at or above idle

The green RUNNING indication shows that the engine is functioning correctly.

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51
Q

When does the RUNNING indication blank?

A

30 seconds after the engine reaches idle

This indicates that the engine has stabilized at idle and is no longer in the starting phase.

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52
Q

What does the AUTOSTART indication signify?

A

EEC is in autostart mode

The AUTOSTART indication blanks when the system is no longer attempting an engine start.

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53
Q

What does the AUTORELIGHT indication signify?

A

EEC is in auto-relight mode

The AUTORELIGHT indication blanks when the system is no longer attempting an engine relight.

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54
Q

What does the Idle Target Indication indicate?

A

Approximate RPM where the engine can maintain self-sustained running operation.

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55
Q

Under what conditions is the Idle Target Indication displayed in green?

A

When the fuel control switch is in the RUN position and the engine is below idle.

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56
Q

What does the Fuel Flow Indication display?

A

Fuel flow to the engine in kilograms per hour x 1000.

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57
Q

What color is the Fuel Flow Indication?

A

White.

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58
Q

What does a white oil pressure indication signify?

A

Normal operating range

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59
Q

What does an amber oil pressure indication signify?

A

Caution range reached

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60
Q

What does a red oil pressure indication signify?

A

Operating limit reached

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61
Q

When is the oil pressure caution range displayed in amber?

A

Only on the ground below 80 knots

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62
Q

How is engine oil pressure displayed?

A

With a pointer indicating normal, caution, or limit ranges

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63
Q

What changes about the oil pressure red line?

A

Its vertical position varies with N2 RPM

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64
Q

What does the red line indicate on the EICAS display for oil temperature?

A

Oil temperature operating limit

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65
Q

What does the white color indicate for engine oil temperature on the display?

A

Normal operating range

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66
Q

What does the amber color signify in the oil temperature indications?

A

Caution range reached

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67
Q

What does the red color signify for oil temperature on the display?

A

Operating limit reached

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68
Q

What does the oil temperature pointer display when in the caution range?

A

Amber

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69
Q

What is indicated when the oil quantity shows ‘LO’?

A

Low oil quantity

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70
Q

What temperature indication color represents the normal operating range?

A

White

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71
Q

What does EICAS Display indicate in terms of oil quantity?

A

Usable oil quantity (liters)

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72
Q

What does it mean when oil quantity is displayed in black numbers on a white background?

A

Low quantity

This indicates that the oil quantity is below the normal operating range.

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73
Q

What does the LO indication mean on the EICAS Display?

A

Displayed (white) when quantity is low

This alerts the crew to a low oil condition.

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74
Q

What does the Engine Vibration Indication display?

A

Engine vibration

This is critical for monitoring engine health.

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75
Q

What color indicates normal operating range for engine vibration?

A

(white) - normal operating range

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76
Q

What does black numbers on a white background indicate in the context of engine vibration?

A

High vibration

This indicates that the engine is experiencing excessive vibration, which may require immediate attention.

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77
Q

Fill in the blank: Usable oil quantity is displayed in _______ color when it is low.

A

black numbers on a white background

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78
Q

What does the vibration source indicator display?

A

Identifies the vibration source being displayed, with the highest vibration source shown in white.

The sources include N1 rotor vibration, N2 rotor vibration, and BB (broad band) vibration.

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79
Q

What is indicated when BB (broad band) vibration is displayed?

A

The source is unknown and average vibration is displayed.

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80
Q

What does the Engine Vibration Pointer indicate?

A

Indicates engine vibration level displayed in white.

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81
Q

What is the Engine Vibration High Band?

A

The vibration level at which automatic display of secondary engine indications occurs, displayed in white.

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82
Q

Fill in the blank: The vibration source with the highest vibration is displayed in _______.

A

[white].

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83
Q

What do the reverse thrust levers control?

A

Engine reverse thrust

Reverse thrust can only be selected when the forward thrust levers are closed.

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84
Q

What happens when reverse thrust levers are selected?

A

Actuates the automatic speedbrakes

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85
Q

What do the forward thrust levers control?

A

Engine forward thrust

The thrust levers can only be advanced if the reverse thrust levers are down.

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86
Q

What does the RUN position of the FUEL CONTROL Switch do?

A

Opens the spar fuel valve, arms the engine fuel valve, arms the selected igniters

The EEC opens the fuel valve and turns on the igniters when required.

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87
Q

What happens when the FUEL CONTROL Switch is in the CUTOFF position?

A

Closes the engine fuel valve, removes igniter power, unlocks the engine fire switch

The spar fuel valve also closes if the start switch is not in START.

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88
Q

What are the functions of the engine fuel valve when the FUEL CONTROL Switch is in RUN?

A

Opens the valve and arms the engine fuel valve

The EEC controls the opening of the valve when necessary.

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89
Q

What does the FUEL CONTROL Switch do when it is in CUTOFF?

A

Closes the engine fuel valve and removes igniter power

It also unlocks the engine fire switch.

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90
Q

What does the NORM setting on the Electronic Engine Control (EEC) Mode Switch do?

A

Selects the normal engine control mode for engine control. The EEC sets thrust using N1 as the controlling parameter.

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91
Q

What happens when the EEC Mode Switch is set to Off?

A

Selects the alternate engine control mode for engine control. Thrust is set using N1 RPM as the controlling parameter.

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92
Q

What does an illuminated (amber) Electronic Engine Control (EEC) Alternate (ALTN) Light indicate?

A

The alternate engine control mode is either automatically or manually selected.

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93
Q

What is the function of the START Selector in engine controls?

A

Initiates engine start by commanding the fuel spar valve to open and the starter motors to energize. Releases to NORM at completion of start.

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94
Q

What occurs when the START Selector is set to NORM?

A

The starter motor is de-energized.

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95
Q

What is the function of the APU Selector in the OFF position?

A

Initiates normal shutdown and resets auto shutdown fault logic

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96
Q

What happens when the APU Selector is in the ON position?

A

Opens the APU fuel spar valve and inlet door, activates AC or DC fuel pump, powers the APU controller

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97
Q

What is the purpose of the START position on the APU Selector?

A

Initiates automatic start sequence

The START position is momentary and spring-loaded to return to ON.

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98
Q

True or False: The APU controller will always start immediately when the START position is selected.

A

False

If the common core system is not running, the APU controller delays start until the required common core applications are available.

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99
Q

What does an illuminated APU FAULT Light indicate?

A

APU fault and/or fire is detected, APU shutdown due to fault and/or fire, momentarily during APU controller self-test

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100
Q

What type of engines power the airplane?

A

Two General Electric GEnx-1B76A engines

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101
Q

What is the takeoff thrust rating for each GEnx-1B76A engine?

A

76,100 pounds

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102
Q

What does BET stand for and why is it useful?

A

Boeing Equivalent Thrust; useful as a takeoff reference under certain conditions

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103
Q

What type of engine is the GEnx-1B76A?

A

Two rotor axial flow turbofan engine of high compression and bypass ratio

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104
Q

What components make up the N1 rotor?

A

Fan, low pressure compressor section, low pressure turbine section

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105
Q

What does the N2 rotor consist of?

A

High pressure compressor section and high pressure turbine section

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106
Q

Are the N1 and N2 rotors mechanically dependent or independent?

A

Mechanically independent

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107
Q

What drives the engine accessory gearbox?

A

High speed N2 engine shaft

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108
Q

How is each engine controlled?

A

By an EEC (Electronic Engine Control)

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109
Q

What does the EEC monitor?

A

Autothrottle and flight crew inputs through the thrust levers

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110
Q

How can thrust be set in the engines?

A

Automatically by the autothrottle system or manually by the flight crew

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111
Q

How are both engines set to operate in terms of thrust?

A

At the same thrust rating

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112
Q

What might the EGT amber band indicate?

A

Maximum continuous limit difference between engines

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113
Q

What happens if engine data is not available?

A

The associated engine indication blanks

There is no EICAS message relating to the loss of engine data.

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114
Q

How can secondary engine indications be displayed?

A

By pushing either secondary engine display switch (ENG on the display select panel)

Secondary engine indications are automatically displayed under certain conditions.

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115
Q

When are secondary engine indications automatically displayed on EICAS?

A
  • Displays initially receive electrical power
  • FUEL CONTROL switch is moved to CUTOFF in flight
  • Engine fire switch is pulled in flight
  • Secondary engine parameter is exceeded
  • Engine N2 RPM is below idle in flight
  • Start selector is in the START position
  • FUEL FLOW ENG L/R Advisory is shown

When these conditions occur, secondary engine parameters cannot be cleared until the condition is no longer present.

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116
Q

True or False: Secondary engine parameters can be cleared immediately after they are displayed.

A

False

They can only be cleared after the condition causing their display is resolved.

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117
Q

What action is needed to clear secondary engine parameters after the condition is resolved?

A

Push the engine (ENG) display switch

This action is necessary after the condition that caused the display is no longer present.

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118
Q

What are the two types of indications for primary engine and N2 indications?

A

Digital readouts and round dial/moving pointer indications

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119
Q

What do the digital readouts for oil pressure, oil temperature, and vibration indications consist of?

A

Digital readouts and vertical indication/moving pointers

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120
Q

How is the normal operating range displayed on the dial or vertical indication?

A

In white

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121
Q

What color indicates caution ranges for oil temperature and oil pressure vertical indications?

A

Amber

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122
Q

What happens to the digital readout and pointer when oil temperature reaches the caution range?

A

They change color to amber

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123
Q

What color do indications change to when they reach operating limits indicated by red lines?

A

Red

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124
Q

What happens to the box enclosing the digital readout if an N1, N2, or EGT red line is exceeded?

A

It remains red after the exceeded limit returns to the normal range

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125
Q

What is the maximum continuous limit for EGT represented by?

A

An amber band

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126
Q

When is the EGT indication inhibited from changing to amber during takeoff or go-around?

A

For five minutes

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127
Q

What is displayed for low oil quantity on the digital readout?

A

Black text on a white background with LO displayed adjacent

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128
Q

What indicates high engine vibration on the digital readout?

A

Black text on a white background

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129
Q

What does EEC stand for?

A

Electronic Engine Control

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130
Q

What does the EEC use to control engine operation?

A

Thrust lever inputs

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131
Q

What are the two control modes of the EEC?

A

Normal and alternate

132
Q

Which RPM is used as the controlling parameter in both normal and alternate modes of the EEC?

A

N1 RPM

133
Q

What type of inputs does the EEC use to control the engine?

A

Multiple sensor inputs

134
Q

What is an alternate source to the ADRS for static pressure inputs?

A

Two static ports located on the lower portion of the fan cowls

135
Q

What provides initial EEC power during engine start?

A

The airplane supplies initial EEC power until a Permanent Magnet Alternator (PMA) provides sufficient power

136
Q

How does the EEC set thrust in normal mode?

A

By controlling N1 based on thrust lever position

137
Q

What represents the maximum rated thrust available from the engine?

A

Maximum N1

138
Q

How is maximum rated thrust achieved in any phase of flight?

A

By moving the thrust levers to the full forward positions

139
Q

What happens if the required signals are not available for normal mode?

A

The EEC automatically uses the alternate mode

140
Q

What are the two levels of control provided in the alternate mode?

A
  • Soft
  • Hard
141
Q

Describe the soft alternate mode.

A

The EEC remains in NORM switch position, thrust does not change at a fixed thrust lever position

142
Q

Describe the hard alternate mode.

A

The EEC is switched to hard alternate mode when ALTN is manually selected, thrust may change to set commanded N1

143
Q

What information is displayed during normal, soft alternate, and hard alternate modes?

A
  • Actual N1
  • Command N1
  • Reference/Target N1
  • Maximum N1
  • Red line N1
144
Q

What indicates automatic reversion or manual selection to the alternate mode?

A

EICAS advisory message ENG EEC MODE (L, R) and illumination of the EEC ALTN light

145
Q

What happens when the alternate mode is selected on both engines?

A

It eliminates thrust lever stagger at equal thrust settings or asymmetric thrust

146
Q

What remains connected when EEC switches to alternate mode?

A

The autothrottles

147
Q

Who computes the alternate mode N1 reference/target values?

A

The FMC

148
Q

Fill in the blank: The alternate mode schedule provides equal or greater thrust than the _______ for the same thrust lever position.

A

normal mode

149
Q

What is not provided in the alternate mode?

A

Thrust protection

150
Q

What caution message is displayed if the thrust lever position commands an N1 greater than the maximum rated?

A

EICAS caution message ENG LIMIT PROT (L, R)

151
Q

What is a key characteristic of the EEC Alternate Mode?

A

Thrust protection is not provided

Maximum rated thrust can be reached at a thrust lever position less than full forward.

152
Q

What EICAS caution message is displayed if the thrust lever position commands an N1 greater than the maximum rated thrust?

A

ENG LIMIT PROT (L, R)

This message indicates a potential for thrust overboost.

153
Q

What does the EEC monitor to provide overspeed protection?

A

N2 rotor speed

If N2 approaches its redline limit, fuel flow is reduced.

154
Q

What EICAS advisory message is displayed when RPM limiting is in effect?

A

ENG RPM LIMITED (L or R)

This message informs the crew that the engine RPM is being limited.

155
Q

What happens if the N2 redline limit is exceeded?

A

EICAS caution message ENG LIMIT EXCEED (L or R) is displayed

156
Q

What occurs if RPM limiting fails and an overspeed condition persists?

A

The EEC commands fuel shut off to shutdown the engine

An EICAS caution message ENG FAIL (L or R) is displayed when the engine falls below idle speed.

157
Q

Under what circumstances is thrust overboost considered during the EEC Alternate Mode?

A

Only during emergency situations

This is applicable when terrain contact is imminent.

158
Q

What is thrust ramping?

A

A process of slowly increasing thrust until takeoff thrust is achieved

This compensates for high stress loads on engine fan blades during takeoff.

159
Q

When is thrust ramping active?

A

Only on the ground with the EEC in normal mode

Delayed engine response may be noticed in high altitude and temperature conditions.

160
Q

What is the significance of reaching 65 KIAS during takeoff?

A

Maximum takeoff thrust may not be available until then

This is a result of the thrust ramping process.

161
Q

What does Thrust Control Malfunction Accommodation provide protection against?

A

Idle thrust asymmetry conditions while on the ground

162
Q

What conditions trigger the EEC to command shutdown of the affected engine?

A

When the airplane is on the ground, thrust lever is at idle, and engine is above idle speed and not decelerating normally

163
Q

What does TAP stand for?

A

Thrust Asymmetry Protection

164
Q

What is the primary purpose of Thrust Asymmetry Protection (TAP)?

A

To provide protection against asymmetric thrust during takeoff or go-around

165
Q

List three safety enhancements provided by TAP.

A
  • Allows a decrease in approach speed at light gross weights
  • Provides engine-out control capability for speeds above stick shaker
  • Allows full rated thrust for all-engine operation at all weights and airspeeds
166
Q

What action does TAP take in an engine-out condition?

A

Reduces thrust on the operating engine to ensure sufficient rudder for directional control

167
Q

When does TAP reduce thrust during takeoff?

A

When airspeed decreases below approximately V2

168
Q

When does TAP reduce thrust during a go-around?

A

When airspeed decreases below approximately VREF

169
Q

What happens to TAP’s thrust reduction once speed is increased above V2/VREF?

A

TAP increases thrust

170
Q

Does TAP affect certified takeoff performance?

A

No, TAP does not affect certified takeoff performance

171
Q

What is the impact on climb gradient when TAP limits thrust?

A

Climb gradient is higher with TAP limiting thrust than it would be if TAP did not limit thrust

172
Q

What causes any reduction in climb gradient when TAP is active?

A

Mismanaged speed rather than TAP itself

173
Q

In what flight control mode is TAP available?

A

Normal mode

174
Q

What modes must the EEC be in for TAP to be operational?

A

Normal or alternate modes

175
Q

True or False: TAP’s thrust reduction affects the thrust levers.

A

False

176
Q

Fill in the blank: TAP reduces thrust slightly at VREF on the go-around at weights less than _______.

A

152,273 kilograms

177
Q

What happens to the maximum and commanded N1 tics when TAP reduces thrust?

A

They move down to the reduced TAP thrust value

178
Q

Describe the behavior of the reference/target N1 indication during TAP operation.

A

It does not move

179
Q

What is indicated when TAP increases thrust back to normal?

A

The maximum and commanded N1 tics move up to match the reference/target N1 indication

180
Q

What is the advisory message displayed when the Thrust Asymmetry Protection (TAP) function is inoperative?

A

THRUST ASYM PROT

This message indicates a failure in the TAP system.

181
Q

What is the purpose of the transient bleed system?

A

To unload the compressor during engine acceleration for increased engine stall margin.

182
Q

How many transient bleed valves (TBV) are there per engine?

A

One fuel operated transient bleed valve (TBV) per engine.

183
Q

What controls the transient bleed valve (TBV)?

A

The Electronic Engine Control (EEC) based on N2 rotor speed.

184
Q

What happens if the TBV fails to open during an above idle acceleration?

A

The ENG TBV CLOSED (L or R) status message is set.

185
Q

What EICAS advisory message is displayed if the TBV remains open when commanded to close?

A

ENG TBV OPEN (L or R) is displayed when the airplane is on the ground and below 80 KCAS.

186
Q

What is inhibited to protect the structural integrity of the reversers if the TBV fails open?

A

The associated thrust reverser is inhibited.

187
Q

What happens if the TBV fails open after thrust reverser deployment?

A

The thrust reverser is limited to idle.

188
Q

What EICAS advisory message is displayed if the TBV fails open prior to thrust reverser deployment?

A

ENG REV LIMITED (L or R) is displayed.

189
Q

What may a failure of the TBV in the open position lead to?

A

An EGT redline exceedance and associated flight deck alerts.

190
Q

What three idle selections can the EEC make automatically?

A
  • Minimum idle
  • Approach idle
  • Icing idle
191
Q

When is minimum idle selected?

A

For ground operation and most phases of flight.

192
Q

What triggers the EEC to select approach idle?

A
  • Flaps commanded to 25 or greater
  • Landing gear selected DOWN
193
Q

What is the effect of selecting approach idle during flight?

A

Decreases engine acceleration time for go-around.

194
Q

When does the EEC revert to minimum idle after touchdown?

A

After touchdown.

195
Q

What condition triggers the EEC to select icing idle?

A

When engine anti-ice is on.

196
Q

What is the Ice Crystal Anti-Ice (ICA) function?

A

An automatic feature that provides engine protection against ice crystal icing (ICI).

197
Q

At what altitude does the ICA function activate?

A

Above 30,000 feet.

198
Q

For how long does the ICA function activate?

A

For at least 30 minutes and may continue in additional 15 minute increments.

199
Q

What happens to the ICA function if the airplane descends below 28,500 feet?

A

The ICA function terminates.

200
Q

What does ICA stand for in the context of engine operation?

A

Ice Crystal Anti-Ice function

ICA is a function that indicates the engine’s capability to manage ice crystal icing conditions.

201
Q

When the Ice Crystal Anti-Ice (ICA) function is active, what is displayed on the N1 engine display?

A

ICA

The ICA indication may show on one or both N1 engine displays.

202
Q

What engine parameters may fluctuate independently when ICA is active?

A
  • N1
  • N2
  • EGT

Fluctuations occur without any crew inputs and are considered normal behavior.

203
Q

Is the ice crystal icing function of each engine dependent on the other?

A

No

Each engine’s ice crystal icing function operates independently.

204
Q

What does an ICA indication not imply?

A

That the engine is currently encountering ICI conditions

ICA indications can appear due to maintenance activities, such as after an engine change.

205
Q

How long can an ICA indication show in cruise flight after maintenance?

A

75 minutes or more

This can occur regardless of weather conditions.

206
Q

What system is used to start the engines?

A

Autostart system

Engines can only be initiated using this automated system.

207
Q

What powers the starter motors during engine starts?

A

Airplane’s electrical system

Power can come from the APU or forward external power.

208
Q

What is the normal power source used to drive the engine starters?

A

APU power

The APU serves as the primary power source for engine starts.

209
Q

Under what condition is simultaneous engine start allowed?

A

When the APU is running and both APU starter generators are operational

An inadequate power configuration will lead to the second start command being ignored.

210
Q

What happens during engine start in terms of load shedding?

A

Load shed occurs

Shed systems are indicated on the respective synoptic displays.

211
Q

What controls the starter motors during engine start?

A

START selectors

212
Q

What does the EEC monitor during the engine start process?

A

The start and commands starter cutout

This occurs when the engine reaches idle speed.

213
Q

What happens if both starters on a respective engine fail?

A

STARTERS displays across the respective starter symbols

An EICAS advisory message ENG STARTERS L, R is also displayed.

214
Q

What indicates a maximum start limit on the EGT indication?

A

A red maximum start limit line

This line appears when the FUEL CONTROL switch is moved to CUTOFF or engine N2 RPM is below idle.

215
Q

What color does the EGT indication change to if the EGT start limit is reached?

A

Red

This change occurs until the engine stabilizes at idle.

216
Q

How is the autostart sequence initiated?

A

By rotating the START selector to START and moving the FUEL CONTROL switch to RUN

This process allows the EEC to manage fuel and ignition.

217
Q

For in-flight windmill starts, how is the autostart sequence initiated?

A

By moving the FUEL CONTROL switch to RUN

This action triggers the autostart sequence during flight.

218
Q

What is the purpose of the autostart system in engine start?

A

To control fuel and ignition during the engine start sequence

Autostart is initiated by rotating the START selector to START and moving the FUEL CONTROL switch to RUN.

219
Q

How is the autostart sequence initiated for in-flight windmill starts?

A

By moving the FUEL CONTROL switch to RUN

220
Q

What happens when the START selector is moved to START?

A

Applies electrical power to the starter motors to begin dry motoring the engine

221
Q

What does the FUEL CONTROL switch do when positioned to RUN?

A

Opens the engine fuel valve and energizes the igniter(s) at the appropriate N2 RPM

222
Q

What engine parameters does the EEC monitor during autostart?

A
  • EGT
  • N2 RPM
  • Oil pressure
223
Q

What action is required from the crew during the engine start?

A

No crew action is required

224
Q

What caution message is displayed if there is an issue with oil pressure after engine start?

A

ENG OIL PRESS (L or R)

225
Q

What conditions will cause the autostart system to abort the start during ground starts?

A
  • Loss of both starters
  • No N1 rotation
  • No oil pressure rise
226
Q

What happens if the autostart system aborts the start sequence?

A

The starters are de-energized and the START selector returns to the NORM position

227
Q

What conditions can the autostart system attempt to correct during a ground start?

A
  • Compressor stall
  • High residual EGT
  • Hot start
  • Hung start
  • Loss of one starter
  • No EGT rise
  • Start time exceeds the starter duty cycle timer
228
Q

What occurs if the EEC cannot correct for a hung start or compressor stall?

A

The EEC cancels the autostart, shuts off fuel and ignition, and motors the engine to clear residual fuel

229
Q

What is the limit for start attempts while on the ground?

A

3 start attempts per start sequence

230
Q

Is there a limit on start attempts in-flight?

A

No, the EEC does not limit the start attempts

231
Q

What does the autostart system do during in-flight starts if a preset EGT is reached?

A

Discontinues the start temporarily

232
Q

What is displayed on the EICAS display during an in-flight start when an engine is not running?

A

In-flight start envelope information

This indicates the airspeed range necessary for an in-flight start at the current flight level.

233
Q

What happens to secondary engine indications when an engine is not running?

A

They are automatically displayed in flight

This occurs when N2 RPM is below idle with the FUEL CONTROL switch in RUN or when the switch is moved to CUTOFF.

234
Q

What does the starter assist indication (X-START) indicate?

A

Displayed below the N2 indication if airspeed is below that recommended for a windmilling start

It helps pilots know when conditions are not optimal for a start.

235
Q

What does the autostart function do during in-flight starts?

A

Makes continuous start attempts until the engine starts or the pilot aborts

The pilot can abort by positioning the FUEL CONTROL switch to CUTOFF.

236
Q

How does the EEC assist during a windmilling in-flight start?

A

Monitors engine parameters to provide the best fuel schedule

This ensures the shortest possible start time.

237
Q

How many igniters does each engine have and what is their function?

A

Two igniters per engine, automatically selected for successive ground starts

Dual igniters are always used for in-flight starts.

238
Q

What is the normal power source for engine ignition?

A

Airplane supplied DC power

Standby power serves as a backup source for energizing the igniters.

239
Q

What triggers the activation of the auto-relight function?

A

Activated on the ground and in-flight when an engine is at or below idle with the FUEL CONTROL switch in RUN

This helps recover from flameouts and sub-idle stalls.

240
Q

What occurs when an engine flameout is detected?

A

Both igniters are switched on in an attempt to recover the engine

The igniters are turned off once the engine reaches idle again.

241
Q

What happens during a sub-idle stall detection?

A

Fuel is shut off for one second, and the fuel schedule is reduced

This helps return the engine to idle.

242
Q

What protection does the EEC provide against flameout during excessive rain or hail ingestion?

A

Energizes both igniters when a flameout is detected

This helps maintain engine operation under adverse conditions.

243
Q

Fill in the blank: The in-flight start envelope indicates the _______ necessary to ensure an in-flight start.

A

[airspeed range]

244
Q

What is indicated on the EICAS display during an in-flight start when an engine is not running?

A

The in-flight start envelope information

This indicates the airspeed range necessary for an in-flight start at the current flight level.

245
Q

How many igniters does each engine have?

A

Two igniters

The EEC automatically selects the appropriate igniter(s) for engine ground starts.

246
Q

What supplies fuel to the engines of the B787?

A

Pumps located in the fuel tanks

Fuel is supplied through a system that includes various components for pressure and filtration.

247
Q

What is the role of the spar valve in the engine fuel system?

A

Allows fuel flow to the engine when both spar and engine fuel valves are open

The spar valve’s operation is linked to the engine fire switch and other controls.

248
Q

What happens after fuel passes through the first stage engine fuel pump?

A

It flows through a fuel/oil heat exchanger where it is preheated

249
Q

What does the fuel metering unit do?

A

Adjusts fuel flow to meet thrust requirements

This ensures the engine receives the correct amount of fuel for various operating conditions.

250
Q

What is the function of the fuel filter in the engine fuel system?

A

Removes contaminants before the fuel reaches the fuel metering unit

251
Q

When does the spar valve open?

A

When the engine fire switch is IN and either the START selector is in START or the FUEL CONTROL switch is in RUN

252
Q

What indicates fuel flow in the engine fuel system?

A

Fuel flow is displayed on the secondary engine display

253
Q

True or False: Both spar and engine fuel valves close when the engine fire switch is OUT.

A

True

This safety feature prevents fuel flow in case of an emergency.

254
Q

What is the sequence of components the fuel passes through after leaving the fuel tanks?

A

Spar valve > First stage engine fuel pump > Fuel/oil heat exchanger > Second stage engine fuel pump > Fuel filter > Fuel metering unit > Engine fuel valve > Engine

255
Q

What is the primary function of the engine oil system?

A

To lubricate and cool the engine main bearings, gearbox, and accessory drives

The oil system also provides automatic fuel heating for fuel system icing protection.

256
Q

How is oil pressurized in the engine oil system?

A

By an engine driven oil pump

The oil flows from the pump through the oil filter.

257
Q

What happens if the oil filter becomes clogged?

A

An EICAS advisory message ENG OIL FILTER (L or R) is displayed and oil bypasses the filter.

258
Q

What is the primary method of cooling engine oil?

A

Fuel/oil heat exchanger

A secondary air/oil heat exchanger provides cooling under specific conditions.

259
Q

How is oil temperature monitored in the engine oil system?

A

By dual oil temperature transmitters

An EICAS advisory message ENG OIL TEMP (L or R) is displayed when oil temperature reaches the high amber band.

260
Q

Is there a minimum oil quantity limit in the engine oil system?

A

No minimum oil quantity limit

Low oil quantity causes display changes but there are no operating limitations for oil quantity.

261
Q

What occurs when low oil quantity is detected?

A

Automatic display of the secondary engine display with reversed display indication

The indication shows black numbers on a white background.

262
Q

What component returns oil to the tank in the engine oil system?

A

Scavenge pump

263
Q

Fill in the blank: The oil system provides automatic fuel heating for _______.

A

[fuel system icing protection]

264
Q

What type of thrust reverser system does each engine have?

A

Hydraulically actuated fan air thrust reverser

265
Q

When is reverse thrust available?

A

Only on the ground

266
Q

What must be the position of the forward thrust levers before raising the reverse thrust levers?

A

Idle position

267
Q

What does the EEC do when the reverse thrust levers are raised?

A

Opens the reverser isolation valve

268
Q

What inhibits the reverser isolation valve actuation and reverser deployment?

A

EEC unless the airplane is on the ground with the engine running

269
Q

What does the EEC control during reverser operation?

A

Thrust limits

270
Q

What is the purpose of the physical interlock in the thrust reverser system?

A

Prevents movement of the reverse thrust lever beyond the reverse idle position until the cowl is partially deployed

271
Q

What feedback does the interlock provide to the pilot?

A

Tactile feedback that the thrust reverser is or is not deployed

272
Q

What happens when the reverse thrust levers are pulled aft to the interlock position?

A
  • Autothrottle disengages
  • Auto speedbrakes deploy
273
Q

What occurs when the reverser system is activated?

A
  • Reverser translating sleeves hydraulically move aft
  • Fan flow blocker doors rotate into place
  • REV indication displayed in amber above each digital N1 indication
274
Q

What does the REV indication display when the reverser is in transit?

A

Amber

275
Q

What happens when the interlock releases?

A
  • Reverse thrust levers can be raised to maximum reverse thrust position
  • REV indication changes to green when fully deployed
276
Q

What occurs when pushing the reverse thrust levers to the full down position?

A

Retracts the reversers to the stowed and locked position

277
Q

What cannot be moved forward until the reverse thrust levers are fully down?

A

Thrust levers

278
Q

What advisory message is displayed if the reverser cannot deploy when commanded?

A

ENG REV LIMITED (L or R)

279
Q

What does the EICAS advisory message ENG REVERSER (L or R) indicate?

A

A reverser system fault

280
Q

True or False: Not all conditions limiting or preventing reverse thrust can be detected before reverse thrust selection.

A

True

281
Q

What caution message is displayed when the air/ground logic for thrust reverser deployment fails?

A

ENG REV AIR/GND

This message indicates a failure in the system that prevents thrust reverser deployment during flight

282
Q

What does the EICAS caution message ENG REV COMMANDED (L or R) indicate?

A

The left or right reverse thrust lever is not in the down position in flight

283
Q

What does the Airborne Vibration Monitoring System track?

A

Engine vibration levels

The system displays vibration indications on the secondary engine display.

284
Q

What is displayed if the vibration monitoring system cannot determine the source of vibration?

A

BB (broadband)

Broadband vibration represents the average vibration detected.

285
Q

What is the primary purpose of the airborne vibration monitoring feature?

A

To track rotor imbalance

It is also useful for isolating and determining corrective action for engine anomalies.

286
Q

What happens when a vibration value of 4 units is reached?

A

Secondary engine parameters are displayed automatically and the digital vibration readout is displayed in reverse

This indicates a potential issue, although there are no certified vibration limits.

287
Q

What are the typical symptoms of high N1 and N2 vibrations?

A

High N1 vibration is accompanied by tactile vibration; high N2 vibration may not be felt

Both may be accompanied by anomalies in other engine parameters.

288
Q

What does the engine failure alert system indicate?

A

When actual engine performance is less than commanded performance

This occurs during takeoff and other phases of flight.

289
Q

What display alerts are shown during an engine failure alert?

A

Red ENG FAIL on both PFDs and HUDs

BETWEEN 65 KTS AND 6 KTS PRIOR V1

Accompanied by the voice annunciation ‘Engine Fail’ and illumination of Master WARNING lights.

290
Q

What triggers the EICAS caution message ENG FAIL (L or R)?

A

If an engine unexpectedly decelerates to less than idle speed

The message remains until the engine recovers or the fuel control switch is moved to CUTOFF.

291
Q

Under what conditions is the EICAS caution message ENG THRUST (L or R) displayed?

A

If the engine is producing less than or more than commanded thrust

Conditions include actual thrust not satisfactorily increasing or decreasing towards commanded thrust with airspeed greater than 6 knots prior to V1.

292
Q

What visual indicators accompany the EICAS caution message ENG THRUST (L or R)?

A

Thrust command area filled amber, Master CAUTION light, and beeper aural

293
Q

What is the function of the auxiliary power unit (APU)?

A

The APU is a self-contained gas turbine engine that supplies electrical power throughout the airplane operating envelope.

The APU can be started and operated to the airplane maximum certified altitude.

294
Q

Where is the APU located in the airplane?

A

In the airplane tailcone.

The APU is designed to be compact and is integrated into the aircraft structure.

295
Q

To what altitude can the APU be operated?

A

To the airplane maximum certified altitude.

This ensures that the APU can function effectively during all phases of flight.

296
Q

What is the APU primarily used for in the aircraft?

A

To provide electrical power.

The APU is essential for powering systems when the main engines are not operational.

297
Q

What powers the APU starter?

A

Either the left or right APU starter can be powered by forward external power or an engine generator.

298
Q

What components does the APU battery power?

A

The APU battery powers:
* APU controller (APUC)
* Air inlet door
* Right starter (if required)

299
Q

What does rotating the APU selector to START do?

A

Begins the automatic start sequence.

300
Q

What must be available for the APUC to proceed with the start from an unpowered airplane?

A

The common core system (CCS) applications must be available.

301
Q

What does the APUC command when starting the APU?

A

Commands the air inlet door to open.

302
Q

How is APU fuel supplied?

A

APU fuel is supplied from the left fuel manifold by:
* Any operating AC fuel pump
* DC fuel pump in the left main tank

303
Q

What happens if AC power is not available for APU fuel supply?

A

The DC pump in the left main tank provides APU fuel.

304
Q

At what altitude can the APU be started without operating pumps?

A

Up to 14,000 feet.

305
Q

What initiates the starter engagement during APU start?

A

When the APU air inlet door reaches the full open position and the required CCS programs are running.

306
Q

When does the starter disengage during APU operation?

A

When the APU reaches starter cutout speed (approximately 50% rpm).

307
Q

What message is displayed on the EICAS when the APU is running?

A

APU RUNNING.

308
Q

Why is it recommended to run the APU until the oil temperature stabilizes during in-flight starts?

A

To help oil flow to the bearings and prevent accelerated deterioration due to thermal shock.

309
Q

What happens if the APU start fails?

A

The APU shuts down automatically and displays the EICAS advisory message APU SHUTDOWN.

310
Q

How can the APU shutdown message be cleared?

A

By moving the APU selector from ON to OFF.

311
Q

How many consecutive start attempts can the APU battery support?

A

Two consecutive start attempts

If the APU fails to start after the second attempt, a 5 minute cooling period must be observed before a third attempt is made.

312
Q

What triggers the automatic start of the APU in flight?

A

Three or more engine generators going offline

The APU automatically starts regardless of the APU selector position.

313
Q

How can the APU be shut down when the automatic start condition is valid?

A

By pulling the APU fire switch

In other conditions, it can be shut down by positioning the selector to ON, then OFF.

314
Q

What happens when the APU selector is rotated to OFF?

A

Initiates a normal shutdown sequence with a two minute cooldown cycle

The EICAS memo message APU COOLDOWN is displayed during this period.

315
Q

What condition simulates an APU overspeed during shutdown?

A

Completion of the cooldown period

This tests the overspeed and fuel shutoff protection.

316
Q

What happens at 15% rpm during the APU shutdown process?

A

The APUC commands the air inlet door to close

This indicates the completion of the normal shutdown sequence.

317
Q

What are the two operating modes of the APU?

A

Attended and unattended operating modes

Attended mode operates when either engine is starting or running, or when the airplane is in flight.

318
Q

What causes the APU to shut down immediately in attended mode?

A

Any of the following faults:
* APU fire/inlet overtemperature
* Overspeed/loss of overspeed protection
* APU controller failure
* Speed droop
* APU start failure
* Air inlet door failed closed

There is no cooldown period in this mode, and the EICAS advisory message APU SHUTDOWN displays.

319
Q

True or False: The APU can be restarted during the cooldown period.

A

True

The APU may be returned to its running condition by placing the APU selector back to ON during the cooldown period.

320
Q

What caution message displays on EICAS for certain APU faults?

A

APU LIMIT

This message appears when there are high EGT, high oil temperature, or low oil pressure.

321
Q

What happens when the APU is manually shut down after the APU LIMIT message?

A

There is no cooldown period.

322
Q

In unattended mode, which fault causes the APU to shutdown immediately?

A

APU fire/inlet overtemperature

This is one of several faults that trigger an immediate shutdown.

323
Q

List three faults that cause the APU to shutdown immediately in unattended mode.

A
  • APU fire/inlet overtemperature
  • overspeed/loss of overspeed protection
  • high EGT/loss of EGT signal
324
Q

What type of message displays on EICAS when the APU shuts down in unattended mode?

A

APU SHUTDOWN.

325
Q

Fill in the blank: There is _______ when the APU is manually shut down after the APU LIMIT message is displayed.

A

no cooldown period.

326
Q

What does the APU controller failure lead to in unattended mode?

A

Immediate APU shutdown.

787 (31 decks)

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