CH11 FLT MANAGEMENT, NAVIGATION Flashcards
What does the Line Select Key do?
Moves data from scratchpad to selected line, moves data from selected line to scratchpad, selects page, procedure, or performance mode, deletes data from selected line when DELETE displays in scratchpad
What are the conventions for using the Line Select Key?
Scratchpad must be blank for line select transfer, data cannot be transferred to a blank line, a blank scratchpad cannot be transferred to a line, not all data can be modified, message displays if inappropriate entries are attempted
What is displayed in the scratchpad?
Crew entered data or crew line-selected data up to 24 characters may be entered
How can data be transferred to and from the scratchpad?
By pushing the cursor select switch on the cursor control device, cursor control selector, or by pushing the ENTER key on the multifunction keypad
What is the function of the CDU Help Window?
Displays error/help messages to the crew
What does the Date Display show?
Current UTC date from the GPS
Fill in the blank: The scratchpad can hold up to ______ characters at one time.
24 characters
True or False: Data can be transferred to a blank line in the scratchpad.
False
What happens if inappropriate entries are attempted in the Line Select Key?
A message displays
What does the CDU function key ‘INIT REF’ do?
Displays page for data initialization or for reference data
This key is used to set up initial data for flight management.
What is the purpose of the ‘RTE’ function key?
Displays page to input or change origin, destination, route and flight number
This key allows pilots to modify the flight plan.
What does the ‘DEP ARR’ key allow the user to do?
Displays page to input or change departure and arrival procedures
Essential for adjusting the flight’s takeoff and landing processes.
What is the function of the ‘ALTN’ key?
Displays page to modify destination and route for alternate diversion
This is crucial for flight safety in case of route changes.
What information can be accessed using the ‘VNAV’ function key?
Displays page to view or change vertical navigation path data
Important for managing altitude and descent profiles.
What does the ‘FIX’ function key do?
Displays page to create reference points on ND map
Helps in navigation by establishing waypoints.
What does the ‘LEGS’ function key display?
Displays page to evaluate or modify lateral and vertical route data
Allows for adjustments to the planned route.
What is the purpose of the ‘HOLD’ function key?
Displays page to create holding patterns and display holding pattern data, or to exit holding pattern
Used in situations where a flight must delay landing.
What information is provided by the ‘FMC COMM’ function key?
Displays FMC datalink status page
Shows the communication status of the flight management system.
What can be viewed on the ‘PROG’ page?
Displays dynamic flight and navigation data, including waypoint and destination ETAs, fuel remaining, and arrival estimates
Critical for real-time monitoring of flight progress.
What can the user do with the ‘NAV RAD’ function key?
Displays page to view or control navigation radio tuning
Necessary for setting radio frequencies for navigation.
What is the function of the ‘OFFSET’ key?
Displays lateral offset page
Allows for adjustments in lateral navigation paths.
What does the ‘REQUIRED TIME OF ARRIVAL’ key display?
Displays RTA LIMITS page
Used to manage expected arrival times.
What does the ‘PREV PAGE’ function do?
Displays previous page of multiple page displays
Useful for navigating through lengthy data.
What does the ‘NEXT PAGE’ function do?
Displays next page of multiple page displays
Allows users to continue through the information presented.
What does a green Execute Light indicate?
Active data is modified but not executed
Signals that changes are pending confirmation.
What does the color cyan indicate on the CDU page?
Inactive Route
Indicates that a route is not currently active.
What does black text on a white background signify on the CDU?
Flight Plan Modification Not Executed
Indicates that a modification to the flight plan has not been carried out.
What color represents an active waypoint, airspeed, or altitude on the CDU?
Magenta
Used to highlight critical flight parameters.
On the CDU, what does a route discontinuity indicate?
A break in the flight route
This requires pilot attention to resolve.
Fill in the blank: The B787 FCOM includes systems description and _______.
Flight Management, Navigation Controls and Indicators
How many pages are indicated in the CDU for the RTE 1?
3
The CDU displays multiple pages for route information.
What is the significance of the CDU page color in the B787?
It indicates different statuses of flight parameters and routes
Color coding helps pilots quickly assess flight information.
True or False: The CDU displays only active routes in magenta.
False
Inactive routes are shown in cyan.
What does ‘MOD’ indicate on the CDU?
Modification
Refers to changes made or pending to the flight plan.
What information is typically displayed in the CDU for waypoints?
Distance, heading, and altitude
Essential for navigation and flight planning.
Fill in the blank: The B787 QRH stands for _______.
Quick Reference Handbook
What does ‘LEGS’ refer to on the CDU?
Segments of the flight route
Each leg represents a specific section of the flight path.
What does the color black represent in the B787 Flight Management System CDU Page?
Background color of page and modifications
MOD precedes page titles of modified pages.
What does the color cyan indicate in the B787 Flight Management System CDU Page?
Inactive RTE page title and inactive key outline
What does the color green signify in the B787 Flight Management System CDU Page?
Navigation radio data and active state of two-position and three-position selectors
What does the color magenta represent in the B787 Flight Management System CDU Page?
Data used by FMC for lateral and vertical flight commands, active waypoint, active airspeed, active altitude, cursor, and highlight box
What does the shaded gray color indicate in the B787 Flight Management System CDU Page?
Input field
What does the color white represent in the B787 Flight Management System CDU Page?
Background for modified text and most data
What device is used to interact with the CDU?
Cursor Control Device (CCD) or Cursor Control Selector (CCS)
The CCD allows hovering to display the highlight box, while the CCS moves the highlight box up or down.
How does the highlight box behave when using the CCS?
Moves down clockwise and up counterclockwise
The highlight box does not return to the top or bottom of the display when it reaches the limits.
What are the components of each CDU page?
Active and inactive areas
The highlight box only displays over an active area.
What actions can be performed when the highlight box is displayed?
Data entry or line key selection
This allows pilots to interact with the CDU effectively.
How can the highlight box be manually manipulated?
Using the four corners on the CCD touch pad
Touching these corners highlights the corresponding line select key position.
What are the methods to perform an enter or line key selection?
Pushing the ENTER key, Cursor Select Switch on multifunction keypad, or on the CCD
These actions allow pilots to confirm selections.
What feature aids data entry during preflight?
Autotabbing feature
This feature can be enabled or disabled by the airline and guides the pilot through data entry.
When does autotabbing operate?
When entering a page from a line select key
It does not operate when a function key is used to enter a page.
On which FMC pages is autotabbing enabled?
- ROUTE 1/X
- PERF INIT
- TAKEOFF REF 1/2
These pages allow for a more streamlined data entry process.
What happens if a valid entry is made in a field not in the autotabbing sequence?
The highlight does not move; must be moved manually
The pilot retains control over the highlight box position in this case.
What must the pilot do after performing a delete action?
Manually move the highlight box to the next desired field
This ensures that the pilot can continue data entry smoothly.
What areas does autotabbing operate in?
Display area adjacent to the line selection keys
It does not include the CDU function keys.
When is autotabbing discontinued?
After the FMS preflight is complete
This indicates the end of the guided data entry process.
What does IRS stand for in the context of the B787?
Inertial Reference System
The IRS is crucial for navigation and flight management.
What happens when the ON BAT light is illuminated?
Airplane battery powers IRS
The ON BAT light illuminates only when IRS has been aligned on airplane or ground power.
What is indicated by the warning horn in the nose wheel well?
IRS is depleting the battery
This alert is for the ground crew on the ground.
What is the function of the IRS selectors?
Control power to the associated IRS
ON applies power; OFF removes power.
True or False: IRS selectors can be moved to the OFF position without being pulled out first.
False
IRS selectors must be pulled out before moving to the OFF position.
Where are the Tuning and Control Panels (TCPs) located?
Aft aisle stand
There are three TCPs for accessing transponder and navigation functions.
Fill in the blank: The transponder uses the Alerting and _______ Control Panel (ATP).
Transponder
ATP is used in conjunction with the TCP for additional functions.
What does the B787 FCOM stand for?
Flight Crew Operating Manual
It contains comprehensive information about the aircraft systems and operations.
What type of systems are described in the B787 FCOM?
Systems Description
Includes details about the Inertial Reference System (IRS) among others.
What does STBY mean in the context of the Transponder/TCAS Mode Selector?
Transponder not active
In this mode, the transponder does not transmit any signals.
What happens when the ALT RPG (altitude reporting) is set to OFF?
Transponder enabled in modes A and S, altitude reporting disabled, ADS-B out enabled
This setting allows the transponder to operate without reporting altitude.
What are the modes enabled when XPDR (transponder) is selected?
Modes A, C, and S
In flight, altitude reporting is enabled and ADS-B out is active.
What does the TA (traffic advisory) ONLY mode indicate?
Traffic advisory only, no resolution advisory
This mode alerts the crew of nearby traffic but does not provide resolution guidance.
What is the function of the IDENT switch?
Transmits an identification signal
This is used to help air traffic control identify the aircraft on radar.
What can the flight crew do from the Tuning and Control Panel (TCP) SYS POWER screen?
Remove power from the transponders
This action is taken in response to a loss of cooling in the forward E/E bay.
What does the EICAS advisory message EQUIP COOLING FWD indicate?
Loss of cooling in the forward E/E bay
This indicates a potential issue that may require the crew to take action regarding equipment cooling.
Fill in the blank: The Transponder Alerting and Transponder Control Panel (ATP) includes the __________ mode selector.
[Transponder/TCAS]
This panel is crucial for managing transponder settings and alerts.
What is the primary purpose of the Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS)?
To provide traffic advisories and resolution advisories
TCAS helps prevent mid-air collisions by alerting pilots to nearby aircraft.
What does the Weather Radar Tuning and Control Panel (TCP) allow you to adjust?
Gain settings
Gain settings can be increased or decreased using the INCR and DECR controls.
How is the current gain setting displayed on the Weather Radar Tuning and Control Panel?
Between line select keys IL and 2L
The gain setting defaults to a calibrated gain level.
What happens if the gain is adjusted below the default calibrated gain level in WX and WX+T modes?
Weather radar returns may be reduced or not displayed
This indicates the importance of maintaining calibrated levels for accurate data.
What does the WX mode display on the Weather Radar Tuning and Control Panel?
Weather radar returns
This mode is essential for monitoring weather conditions.
What is the function of the WX+T mode?
Displays weather returns and turbulence within precipitation
Turbulence within 40 NM is shown at all display ranges.
What is required for turbulence detection by the radar?
Presence of detectable precipitation
Clear air turbulence cannot be detected by radar.
What does the MAP mode display?
Ground returns at the selected gain level
This mode is useful for situational awareness regarding terrain.
How is the selected mode displayed on the Weather Radar Tuning and Control Panel?
In large green font
This enhances visibility for the pilot.
What does the tilt control allow the user to select?
Manual (MAN) or automatic (AUTO) antenna tilt
This selection helps optimize radar performance.
What does the Tuning and Control Panel do in the Weather Radar System?
It toggles the weather radar system between the left and right system
The selected system is highlighted in large font green text, with the left system as the default selection.
What is the function of the Weather Radar Test button?
Tests weather radar system operation without transmitting
A test pattern and PWS symbol display along with any fault messages when the test is conducted.
What happens during a weather radar test when on the ground?
Activates a 12 second test with specific alerts
The test includes amber WINDSHEAR annunciation, aural MONITOR RADAR DISPLAY, and several subsequent alerts.
What does the amber WINDSHEAR annunciation indicate during the test?
It indicates the beginning of the weather radar test
It is followed by aural alerts and the illumination of the Master Warning Light.
What occurs after the amber WINDSHEAR annunciation during the test?
Master Warning Light illuminates and EICAS alert message WINDSHEAR SYS displays
This is part of the sequence of alerts during the weather radar test.
What triggers the red WINDSHEAR annunciation during the test?
It is triggered at the end of the test sequence
Accompanied by aural alerts stating WINDSHEAR AHEAD.
What must occur for the test pattern and PWS symbol to remain displayed?
WXR must not be deselected or a PWS alert must not occur
The display remains until specific actions are taken.
What happens when WXR TEST is selected ON?
All other WXR modes are automatically set to OFF
This includes WX, WX+T, and MAP modes.
What occurs when WXR TEST is switched back to OFF?
The previously active WXR mode is automatically set to ON
This allows for seamless transition back to normal operation.
What are the components included in navigation systems?
- Global Positioning System (GPS)
- Air Data Reference System (ADRS)
- Inertial Reference System (IRS)
- VOR
- DME
- ILS
- ATC transponder
- Weather radar
- Flight Management System (FMS)
The FMS is described in the Flight Management System Description section of the B787 documentation.
What happens if the IRS becomes inoperative during flight?
The FMC automatically uses GPS data to navigate.
No EICAS message is displayed when this occurs.
How do the left and right GPS receivers function?
They are independent and supply very accurate position data to the IRS.
The IRS then supplies a hybrid GPS inertial position to the FMC.
What does the ND display when the FMC uses GPS position updates?
The ND annunciates GPS.
This indicates that the navigation is relying on GPS data.
What is displayed on the ND when POS (position) is selected?
The ND map displays raw GPS position as left and right GPS symbols.
The GPS symbols display as a single symbol when the GPS receivers calculate the same position.
What should GPS position updates be used for during approaches?
GPS position updates should be used during all approaches referenced to the WGS-84 reference datum.
This ensures accurate navigation during critical phases of flight.
When should GPS updates be inhibited?
GPS updates should be inhibited for all other approach operations unless other appropriate procedures are used.
This is to prevent reliance on potentially inaccurate data.
True or False: The GPS tuning is manual.
False.
All GPS tuning is automatic.
What advisory message alerts the crew when both GPS systems have failed?
EICAS advisory message GPS.
This alerts the crew to a critical navigation failure.
Fill in the blank: The GPS data is used to provide very accurate _______ to the IRS.
position data.
This data is essential for accurate navigation.
What is the function of the GPS NAV prompt on the POS REF page 3/4?
To inhibit GPS navigation data.
This is used when GPS data might not be reliable.
What does the ADRS provide for the airplane?
Airplane altitude and airspeed for displays, flight management system, flight controls, engine controls, and other systems.
From where does the ADRS receive air data?
Left, center, and right pitot and static systems.
What happens when voted ADRS air data is invalid?
Backup airspeed (AA SPD) and/or backup altitude (GPS ALT) are automatically provided by the IRS and GPS systems.
What are the major components of the Inertial Reference System (IRS)?
Inertial reference units (IRUs) and attitude and heading reference units (AHRUs).
What does the IRU combine to provide hybrid GPS inertial position outputs?
Inertial reference functions with GPS position information.
What is required for initial power-up of the IRS?
Battery bus power and the IRS switches to be ON.
What does the ON BAT light indicate?
The IRS is on battery power.
How long does the alignment of the IRUs take at mid latitudes?
Approximately 7 to 10 minutes.
What happens if the GPS position is not available during IRU alignment?
Dashes are replaced with boxes and present position must be entered to complete the alignment.
What is the function of the air data modules in the ADRS?
Convert sensed analog pressures to digital values for air data functions.
True or False: The integrated standby flight display (ISFD) data is independent of IRU and AHRU values.
True.
Fill in the blank: The ADRS sends trusted voted air data to the _______.
PFDs.
What does the EICAS memo message IRU ALIGN MODE L+R indicate?
The IRUs are in align mode.
What is displayed on the PFDs when both voted and backup air data is unavailable?
ISFD altitude (ISFD ALT) and ISFD airspeed (ISFD SPD).
What alerts maintenance personnel that the IRS is on battery power?
The horn in the landing gear wheel well sounds.
What is the role of angle of attack sensors in the ADRS?
Provide additional data for air data functions.
List the systems that the IRS calculates data for.
- Displays
- Flight management system
- Flight controls
- Engine controls
- Other systems
What is displayed in the SET INERTIAL POS line if GPS position is not available?
Boxes replacing dashes.
How long can alignment take at high latitudes?
Up to 17 minutes.
What advisory message is displayed when the latitude/longitude position is not close to the origin airport?
FMC MESSAGE and INERTIAL/ORIGIN DISAGREE
This message alerts the crew to a discrepancy in the entered inertial position.
What happens if the crew-entered latitude/longitude position fails internal IRU comparison tests?
EICAS advisory message FMC MESSAGE and ENTER INERTIAL POSITION
This indicates that the entered position is not acceptable and requires correction.
What occurs if a new airplane present position entry fails the internal check twice?
EICAS advisory message FMC MESSAGE and ALIGNMENT REINITIATED
The system will automatically start a new alignment cycle.
What mode does the IRS change to after alignment is complete?
Navigate mode
This allows the airplane to be moved and continue its flight operations.
What happens to the IRS when the airplane stops for an extended period?
Changes to automatic realign mode
The IRS refines the alignment until the airplane moves again.
In automatic realign mode, what happens to IRS velocity and acceleration errors?
Reset to zero
This helps maintain accurate inertial positioning during the realignment process.
What capability does the IRU have while in flight?
Complete alignment recovery from in-flight loss of alignment
This relies on GPS data and restores full navigation capability within about 10 minutes.
What is recommended if the total time in navigation mode is expected to exceed 18 hours?
A position update
This helps ensure continued accuracy in navigation.
What advisory message is displayed if both IRUs fail?
NAV IRU
Indicates a failure in the inertial reference units.
What solution does the FMC use when both IRUs fail?
Hybrid GPS inertial position solution using AHRUs inertial sensors
This combines GPS data with inertial sensor information for continued navigation.
What is the role of the Attitude and Heading Reference Unit (AHRU)?
Supply a stable source of attitude, heading, and rate information
AHRUs contribute to hybrid GPS inertial positioning but do not provide independent inertial position.
What caution message is displayed if the IRS fails?
NAV INERTIAL SYS
Indicates failure of both AHRUs and IRUs.
What does the FMC rely on if the IRS is inoperative?
GPS output from integrated navigation radios (INRs)
This allows the FMC to continue providing necessary position and track data.
What happens to LNAV and VNAV guidance if the IRS fails?
Not available
This limits certain autopilot functions when IRS is inoperative.
What prompt does the CDU POS INIT page display immediately after any IRU or AHRU failure?
SET HDG prompt
This indicates the need for the crew to manage heading synchronization.
What action is required from the aircrew when the IRS fails?
Use the SET HDG prompt periodically to sync display heading
This ensures that the display heading remains accurate relative to standby compass magnetic heading.
What happens to AFDS Modes after IRS failure?
The following AFDS Modes are inoperative:
* FPA
* G/S
* HDG HOLD/SEL
* LNAV
* LOC
* TO/GA
* TRK HOLD/SEL
* VNAV
Functions like HDG HOLD/SEL are noted as operative when standby magnetic compass heading is entered on the POS INIT page.
Which navigation functions become inoperative after IRS failure?
The following navigation functions are inoperative:
* FMC Performance Predictions
* FMC VNAV pages
* ND Wind Direction and Speed (wind arrow)
The ND map mode display references TRK after IRS failure.
What PFD function is inoperative following IRS failure?
PFD Heading is inoperative
This function can still operate if standby magnetic compass heading is entered on the POS INIT page.
What additional functions are inoperative after failure of both the IRS and GPS?
The following functions are inoperative:
* CDU active leg course and distance
* CDU direct-to a waypoint
* FMC Alternate Airport DIVERT NOW
* FMC navigation radio autotuning
* ND Map (center and expanded)
The autobrake is also inoperative after IRS failure.
True or False: The autobrake remains operative after IRS failure.
False
The autobrake is specifically mentioned as inoperative following IRS failure.
Fill in the blank: After IRS failure, the ND map mode display references _______.
TRK
This indicates the direction in which the aircraft is tracking.
How many DME systems are installed in the B787?
Two DMEs
DMEs are usually tuned by the FMC, but may also be tuned manually.
When is DME tuned manually?
When the VOR portion of a VOR/DME pair is entered on the NAV RADIO page
The FMC tunes DME as necessary for radio position updates.
What does the FMC use for position updates when more accurate sources are not available?
DME/DME radio position updates
DME/DME position updates are usually more accurate than VOR/DME updates.
What happens when navaids are inhibited on the REF NAV DATA page?
The FMC cannot tune specific DMEs
Manual DME tuning does not inhibit FMC DME tuning.
How are DME distances displayed on the B787?
On the ND map when VOR L or VOR R are selected
DME distance also displays on the PFD when the ILS receivers are tuned to a collocated DME and localizer facility.
What information does the POS REF page 2/4 display?
Identifiers of the DME stations used for FMC position updates
How many ILS receivers are installed in the B787?
Two ILS receivers
They are usually tuned by the FMC but can be tuned manually.
What conditions must be met for FMC ILS autotuning to occur?
- An ILS, LOC, back course, LDA, or SDF approach has been selected
- The airplane is within 50 NM from the top of descent, 150 NM of the landing runway threshold, or the FMC is in descent mode
What is inhibited during the first 10 minutes after takeoff?
ILS autotuning
This is to prevent clutter on the PFD.
What happens if a new approach is selected during the 10 minute takeoff inhibit period?
The ILS autotunes to the new approach frequency
This occurs even if it is during the inhibit period.
Can both ILS receivers be manually tuned at any time?
Yes, unless ILS approach tuning inhibit is active
What conditions activate ILS approach tuning inhibit?
- Autopilot is engaged or flight director is on and either the localizer or glideslope is captured
- HUD takeoff mode is active for at least 5 seconds and on the ground
What is ILS tuning enabled by?
ILS tuning is enabled when:
* TO/GA switch is pushed
* Autopilot is disengaged and both flight director switches are switched off
* MCP approach mode is deselected above 1500 feet radio altitude
* Airplane becomes airborne after a HUD TO/GA takeoff
ILS stands for Instrument Landing System, which aids in landing aircraft in low visibility conditions.
What happens to the ILS frequency when a new approach is selected on the CDU?
The ILS frequency is automatically returned when ILS tuning is enabled and a new approach is selected on the CDU.
CDU stands for Control Display Unit, used for flight management and navigation.
How can the left ILS be tuned in the event of FMC or display failures?
The left ILS can be tuned from ALTN NAV RADIO page 2/2 on the TCP.
ALTN NAV RADIO refers to an alternative navigation radio page for tuning in case of failures.
Where is the tuned ILS frequency displayed during approach mode?
The tuned ILS frequency displays on the PFD and on the ND in the approach mode.
PFD stands for Primary Flight Display and ND stands for Navigation Display.
What indicates a failure of an ILS receiver?
If an ILS receiver fails, data from the remaining ILS is displayed on both the captain’s and first officer’s displays, and the EICAS caution message SINGLE SOURCE APPROACH is displayed.
EICAS stands for Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System.
What is the purpose of the Morse code identifier in navigation?
The Morse code identifier of a tuned VOR, ILS, or DME can be converted to alpha characters and displays on the PFD and ND to monitor navigation radio reception.
VOR stands for VHF Omnidirectional Range, ILS for Instrument Landing System, and DME for Distance Measuring Equipment.
What should pilots do if the decoded identifier is incorrect?
Pilots should verify the identity of the tuned navigation station from the audio Morse code when the tuned frequency remains displayed or an incorrect identifier displays.
Incorrect identifiers may result from variations in ground station identifier quality.
How are VOR receivers typically tuned?
Two VOR receivers are usually tuned by the FMC but can be tuned manually by the crew.
FMC stands for Flight Management Computer.
How does the FMC use VOR/DME radio position updates?
The FMC uses VOR/DME radio position updates when more accurate sources are not available.
VOR/DME pairs can be inhibited on the REF NAV DATA page.
Fill in the blank: The crew manually tunes VORs on the _______ page.
NAV RADIO
The NAV RADIO page is part of the aircraft’s navigation systems.
True or False: The identifier name is compared with the FMC database for navigation accuracy.
False
The identifier name is not compared with the FMC database.
What does the NAV RADIO page display?
FMC tuned or manually tuned VOR data
The NAV RADIO page is critical for navigation and position updates.
What information does the POS REF page 2/4 show?
Identifier of the VOR and DME pair used for position updates
This information is essential for accurate positioning.
What is displayed on the ND when VORs are tuned?
Identifier or frequency of the VORs tuned
The ND (Navigation Display) provides crucial navigational data.
What do the left and right VOR bearing pointers indicate?
The related VOR check box on the ND drop-down menu is selected
This feature assists pilots in visual navigation.
What modes can the Alerting and Transponder Control Panel (ATP) control?
- ALT RPTG OFF
- STBY
- TA ONLY
- TA/RA
- XPDR
Each mode serves different functions for transponder operations.
What happens when the transponder mode selector is in TA ONLY or TA/RA?
Traffic displays on the screen
This is crucial for avoiding collisions in flight.
In what modes does the transponder respond to Mode S interrogations?
All modes except STBY
Mode S is essential for air traffic control communication.
What does the transponder provide?
- Selective interrogation
- Downlink information such as flight number, airspeed, magnetic heading, altitude, GPS position
This information is vital for situational awareness and air traffic control.
What is the role of Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B)?
Enhances air traffic monitoring and situational awareness
ADS-B is increasingly used for tracking aircraft in real-time.
What does the transponder mode selector control regarding ADS-B?
ADS-B functionality
Proper transponder settings are crucial for effective ADS-B operations.
True or False: TCAS modes should be used on the ground for ground tracking.
False
Using TCAS on the ground can lead to incorrect tracking information.
Fill in the blank: The transponder activates beacon and altitude reporting when the mode selector is in _______.
[XPDR, TA ONLY, or TA/RA]
These settings ensure the aircraft is properly reporting its position and altitude.
How is the transponder control page accessed on the TCP?
By selecting the XPDR mode select key
What are the functions controlled by the Tuning and Control Panel (TCP)?
- Altitude Mode (Absolute or Relative)
- ATC Ident function
- Mode A numeric code
- TCAS envelope (Above, Normal, or Below)
- Transponder select (Left or Right)
Which functions do the Captain and First Officer TCPs share control of?
- IDENT function
- left or right side selection
- XPDR code
What happens when changes are made on one TCP?
Changes are reflected on the center and cross-side TCPs
Which settings control only the on-side TCAS display?
TCAS envelope and altitude settings
What can the center TCP control?
Both left and right side transponders
What occurs if the on-side transponder fails?
The TCP automatically switches to the cross-side transponder
What is displayed if both transponders fail?
EICAS advisory message TRANSPONDER
What can be done if altitude reporting fails?
The transponder can be switched to the alternate altitude source
What does the EICAS advisory message indicate if the ATP is inoperative?
TRANSPONDER PANEL
How can the transponder and TCAS modes be set if the ATP fails?
Using the TCP
How do you access the ALERT/XPDR CTL page?
From the MENU page by turning ALERT/XPDR CTL to ON and selecting the ALERT/XPDR CTL page
What must be done to set transponder and TCAS modes when the ALERT/XPDR CTL page is selected ON?
They can be set via the ALERT/XPDR CTL page
What components make up the weather radar system?
A transmitter/receiver unit and antenna
The control is managed through the TCP.
How is the weather radar system activated?
At least one weather radar system must be selected ON from the TCP SYS POWER screen
This is necessary for the WXR switch or check box to function.
What does the WXR switch on the EFIS control panel do?
Controls power to the transmitter/receiver and allows weather radar returns to display on the ND and/or mini-map
It performs the same function as the WXR check box on the ND drop-down menu.
What happens to the radar display range at ND ranges greater than 320 NM?
WXR can still be displayed but only shows weather returns out to 320 NM
When does the weather radar perform self-tests?
On power up, during each sweep, and when descending through 2,300 feet AGL
Can the weather radar sense clear air turbulence?
No, it can only sense turbulence when there is sufficient precipitation
What additional feature does the weather radar provide?
Predictive windshear alerting
Refer to Predictive Windshear (PWS) Display and Annunciations for more information.
What is the purpose of the flight management system (FMS)?
Aids the flight crew with navigation, in-flight performance optimization, automatic fuel monitoring, and flight deck displays
What are the two automatic flight functions managed by the FMS?
Lateral flight path (LNAV) and vertical flight path (VNAV)
What data does the flight crew enter into the CDUs?
Applicable route and flight data
How does the FMS calculate commands for flight path control?
Uses the navigation database, airplane position, and supporting systems data
What does the FMS do with navigation radios?
Tunes the navigation radios and sets courses
What types of flight procedures can the FMS support?
Routes, SIDs, STARs, holding patterns, and procedure turns
What is the basis of the flight management system?
The flight management computer function (FMC)
How many independent FMCs are there?
Three independent FMCs
What happens at power up regarding the FMCs?
One FMC is designated for flight management tasks while the other FMCs monitor
Fill in the blank: The second FMC is ready to replace the first FMC if ______ occurs.
system faults
When the second FMC becomes active, what role does the third FMC take?
Becomes its backup
What does the FMC use to calculate airplane present position and commands?
Flight crew entered flight plan data, airplane systems data, and data from the FMC navigation database
The FMC calculates pitch, roll, and thrust commands necessary to fly an optimum flight profile.
Which systems does the FMC send commands to?
- Autothrottle
- Autopilot
- Flight Director
These systems work together to ensure safe and efficient flight operations.
What is the purpose of the ND drop-down menu?
To select the items displayed on the ND
ND stands for Navigation Display.
What is required for the FMC to be certified for area navigation?
Navigation radio and/or GPS updating
This certification allows for more accurate and efficient navigation.
What are Control Display Units (CDUs) used for?
To control the FMC using emulated CDU displays
The CDUs may be displayed on any of the MFDs as selected by the aircrew.
What is the first phase of the Flight Management System (FMS) operation?
Preflight
The FMS changes through various phases during flight, including descent, takeoff, climb, cruise, approach, and flight complete.
What data is entered into the CDU during the preflight phase?
- Flight plan
- Load sheet data
Datalink can also be used to enter some data.
What does the flight plan define?
The route of flight from the origin to the destination
It also initializes LAV and provides performance data to initialize VNAV.
Fill in the blank: The required preflight data consists of initial _______.
ancition
This data is essential when GPS is not provided.
True or False: The FMC and CDU are used only for enroute navigation.
False
They are also used for terminal area navigation, RNAV approaches, and to supplement primary navigation during all types of instrument approaches.
What data does the flight crew enter during preflight into the CDU?
Flight plan and load sheet data
This data can also be entered by datalink.
What does the flight plan define?
The route of flight from the origin to the destination and initializes LNAV
What are the required preflight data items?
- Initial position (when not provided by GPS)
- Performance data
- Route of flight
- Takeoff data
What are some optional preflight data items?
- Alternate airport
- Navigation database selection
- Route 2
- Standard terminal arrival route (STAR)
- Thrust limits
- Wind
- Standard instrument departure (SID)
How does preflight start?
With the IDENT page
What happens if the IDENT page is not displayed?
It can be selected with the IDENT prompt on the INIT/REF INDEX page
What is the purpose of the lower right line select key during preflight?
To select the next preflight page after data entry and checking
What indicates that the route has been activated?
The execute (EXEC) light illuminates after selecting ACTIVATE on the ROUTE page
What does the DEP/ARR page allow the crew to select?
A Standard Instrument Departure (SID)
What should be done if selection of the SID causes a route discontinuity?
Resolution of the discontinuity and execution of the modification should be accomplished on the ROUTE or LEGS page
What should the crew verify after entering the route and PERF INIT page information?
The OAT on the THRUST LIM page
What does the crew do after verifying the OAT?
Select the TAKEOFF REF 1/2 page
What minimum required information does the EFB receive from the FMC?
- GWT
- ORIGIN
- OAT
- QNH
- Takeoff runway
What action does the crew take after filling in the required information in the EFB?
Select CALC
What alert is displayed after the EFB generates the appropriate takeoff data?
A ‘•FMC’ COMM alert
What options does the crew have after reviewing data on the THRUST LIMIT, TAKEOFF REF 1/2, and TAKEOFF REF 2/2 pages?
Select LOAD or REJECT
What does the PRE-FLT line title on the TAKEOFF REF page indicate when all required preflight entries are complete?
FMC PREFLIGHT COMPLETE
What prompt displays at the next page select line location after completing preflight entries?
The THRUST LIM prompt
What marks the beginning of the takeoff phase?
Selection of TO/GA
TO/GA stands for Takeoff/Go Around, indicating the thrust setting for takeoff.
What is the end point of the takeoff phase?
Thrust reduction for climb
When can LNAV and VNAV be armed in relation to takeoff?
Before takeoff to activate at the applicable altitude
What defines the start of the climb phase?
Thrust reduction for climb
What is the top of climb (T/C) point?
Where the airplane reaches the cruise altitude entered on the PERF INIT page
What marks the beginning of the cruise phase?
The T/C point
What can occur during the cruise phase?
Step climbs and en route descents
What initiates the descent phase?
The T/D point or VNAV descent page becoming active
What is the end of the descent phase?
Start of the approach phase
When does the approach phase start?
When the first waypoint of the procedure sequences or when the runway is the active waypoint and the distance to go is less than 25 NM, or when the flaps are moved out of the UP position
What happens during the flight complete phase?
Thirty seconds after engine shutdown, it clears the active flight plan and load data
What should be monitored when operating in LNAV and VNAV modes?
Unwanted pitch, roll, or thrust commands
What actions should be taken if unwanted operation is observed in LNAV and VNAV modes?
Select Heading Select (HDG SEL) and Flight Level Change (FLCH) modes
What situations require careful monitoring for errors?
- Activation of a new database
- Power interruption
- IRS failure
What does the FMC not do when more than 21 NM off the active route?
Does not sequence the active waypoint
How can return to the active route be accomplished?
- DIRECT TO procedures
- INTERCEPT COURSE TO/FROM procedures
What happens when a waypoint is in the route more than once?
Certain route modifications use the first waypoint in the route
How do VECTORS waypoints display on the ND?
As a magenta line without an end point leading away from the airplane symbol
What must be true about start and end waypoints when entering airways in a route page?
They must be in the database
What should be done if engines remain operating between flights?
Enter a new cruise altitude before the next flight to recalculate the proper vertical profile
What must be entered if a climb to cruise altitude is necessary after completing a descent?
A new cruise altitude entry must be made
What are DIRECT TO courses segments of?
Great circle route
What is the difference in the course to fly to a waypoint before and after executing a DIRECT TO waypoint?
Before execution, it’s the arrival course; after execution, it’s the current course to fly
Define ‘Active’ in FMC terminology.
Flight plan data used to calculate LNAV or VNAV guidance commands
What does ‘Activate’ mean in the context of navigation?
Changing a route from inactive to active for navigation
What does an altitude constraint represent?
A crossing restriction at a waypoint
What does the DELETE key do in FMC?
Removes FMC data and reverts to default values
What is Distance to Go (DTG)?
A calculation of the great-circle distance to the referenced point in nautical miles
How is DTG calculated for the active waypoint?
From the airplane present position to the active waypoint
How is DTG calculated for waypoints following the active waypoint?
From the airplane present position or the point abeam the active flight plan along the active flight plan path
What is ‘Econ’ in aviation terms?
A speed schedule calculated to minimize operating cost
What does a low cost index cause in terms of cruise speed?
A lower cruise speed
What cost index should not normally be entered unless recommended by Boeing?
A cost index less than 60
What is the definition of ‘Econ’ in the context of flight management?
A speed schedule calculated to minimize operating cost based on the cost index
A low cost index leads to lower cruise speed, and a cost index of zero yields maximum range cruise.
What happens when a cost index less than 60 is entered?
It should not normally be entered unless recommended due to potential additional fuel burn caused by autothrottle activity in cruise
This is particularly relevant when fuel costs are high compared to operating costs.
What is the purpose of entering a cost index of 9999?
To obtain a minimum time speed schedule calling for maximum flight envelope speeds
This schedule ignores the cost of fuel.
Define ‘Enter’ in the context of the CDU.
Putting data in the CDU scratchpad and line selecting the data to the applicable location.
What does ‘Erase’ mean in flight management?
Removing entered data that has resulted in a modification by selecting the ERASE prompt.
What is an ‘EICAS Message’?
A non-normal message displayed on the EICAS.
What action does selecting the illuminated EXEC key perform?
Makes modified data active.
What does ‘Inactive’ refer to in flight management systems?
Data not being used to calculate LNAV or VNAV commands.
What is the purpose of a ‘Help Window’ in the CDU?
Shows FMC messages and information.
Define ‘Initialize’ in the flight management context.
Entering data required to make the system operational.
What does the term ‘Modify’ signify?
Changing active data.
What is a ‘Prompt’ in the CDU?
CDU symbols that aid the flight crew in accomplishing a task.
What does ‘Purge’ do in the context of the ALTN LIST?
Removes all airports uplinked to the ALTN LIST.
What does ‘Select’ mean in the CDU?
Selecting a key to obtain necessary data or action.
Define ‘Sequence’ in flight management.
A waypoint, speed, altitude, location and/or constraint that has been passed, reached, or completed.
What is a ‘Speed restriction’?
An airspeed limit associated with a specified altitude entered by the flight crew.
What does ‘Speed transition’ refer to?
An airspeed limit associated with a specified altitude entered by the FMC.
What is a ‘Waypoint’?
A point on the route or in the navigation database.
What is a conditional waypoint?
A waypoint not associated with a land reference, based on a time or altitude requirement
Example: ‘when reaching 4,000 feet.’
What is the purpose of the MAINTENANCE INDEX page?
Used only on the ground.
What data sources can the FMC use to compute position and velocity?
Hybrid GPS inertial, raw GPS, DME/DME, VOR/DME, Inertial Reference Unit (IRU L, R) data sources
When does the FMC use hybrid GPS data for navigation solutions?
When it provides the most accurate data with the lowest Actual Navigation Performance (ANP)
What happens if hybrid GPS data is not available or inhibited?
The FMC reverts to using the remaining selected position sources
What is the primary method for updating the FMC position?
Using hybrid GPS data
How can the FMC position be manually updated?
To any of the calculated navigation source positions displayed on POS REF page 2/4
What occurs when the TO/GA switch is pushed on the ground with GPS NAV OFF?
Updates the FMC position to the takeoff runway threshold or to the shift position
What must be entered for an intersection takeoff?
The intersection displacement distance from the runway threshold on the TAKEOFF REF page 1/2
When is the TO/GA update inhibited?
When GPS NAV is ON and valid reception is available
What does the FMC automatically tune and display?
VOR, DME, and ILS radios on the ND and NAV RADIO page
What is the relationship between radio updating and the active route?
Selection is related to the active route and any procedure (SID, STAR, etc.) in the active route
What happens when manually selecting VOR frequencies during radio updating?
Precludes the FMC from autotuning other VOR/DME frequencies for position updating
What continues to be tuned for position updating even when VOR frequencies are manually selected?
DME/DME pairs
Where is the current FMC position source and associated ANP displayed?
On POS REF page 2/4 and the Navigation Display (ND)
What indicates a failed, invalid, or inactive FMC position update source on the ND?
Specific annunciations related to the position update source
Fill in the blank: The FMC position normally uses ______ data.
hybrid GPS
What chapters provide additional information on the Global Positioning System, Inertial System, and Radio Navigation Systems?
Chapter 11, Section 20
What reference does the autopilot switch to when entering polar regions?
True north reference
The autopilot automatically switches to a true north reference for all cruise roll modes.
How is the automatic switching to true north reference indicated on the ND and PFD?
A white box around the word TRU
The indication appears on both the Navigation Display (ND) and Primary Flight Display (PFD).
What does the CDU RTE LEGS page display when operating in true north reference?
‘T’ next to the leg course data
This indicates the aircraft is using true north reference.
What happens when leaving the polar regions with the HEADING REF switch in the NORM position?
The autopilot switches back to a magnetic reference
This change is indicated by a green box around the word MAG.
What does the ND and PFD display indicate when the heading reference is TRU in the descent phase?
An amber box around the word TRU
This indicates that the aircraft is still using true north reference during descent.
What displays near the top of both NDs when the airplane is north of 70°N or south of 70°S?
Current GRID heading
The GRID heading is not used by any airplane system.
What should be selected on the HEADING REF switch when operating the autopilot in the polar region in other than LNAV?
TRUE
This ensures proper heading reference in non-LNAV operations.
What change occurs to the airplane position symbol when operating north of 82°N or south of 82°S using the ND PLAN mode?
It changes to a circle with a ‘X’ in the middle
This visual indicator helps pilots understand their position in extreme latitudes.
What advisory message is displayed if the IRS fails in a polar region?
NAV INERTIAL SYS
This indicates a failure in the Inertial Reference System, affecting autopilot and AFDS roll modes.
What must be done every 10 minutes when operating in degraded mode after IRS failure?
Periodic updating of the heading reference on the POS INIT page
This is necessary due to significant heading display drift.
Fill in the blank: The autopilot will automatically switch to a _______ reference for all cruise roll modes in polar regions.
true north
This automatic switch is crucial for navigation accuracy in polar areas.
What does ANP stand for in the context of navigation performance?
Actual Navigation Performance
ANP is an estimate of the true airplane position within a defined circle.
What is the estimated accuracy of the airplane’s position represented by ANP?
Estimated to be within the ANP circle at least 95% of the time.
How can a manual FMC position update be accomplished?
Using the ARM function on POS REF page 2/4 LSK 1R.
What happens when the NOW prompt is selected on the IRU L line?
Updates the FMC ANP to the selected navigation source ANP.
What is the purpose of Required Navigation Performance (RNP)?
Navigation accuracy required for operation within a defined airspace.
How is RNP expressed?
In nautical miles.
What does the FMC do if ANP exceeds RNP?
Alerts the flight crew.
What does Vertical ANP represent?
The FMC estimate of the quality of its altitude determination.
What is the Vertical ANP displayed on?
RNP PROGRESS page 4/4.
What must the pilot set for the Vertical ANP display to be valid?
The baro setting reported by ATIS or given in the approach clearance.
What does Vertical RNP provide?
Situational awareness with respect to a barometric vertical path.
What happens if vertical ANP exceeds vertical RNP?
The FMC alerts the flight crew.
What does LNAV stand for?
Lateral Navigation.
What commands does LNAV provide?
Steering commands to the next waypoint or the selected route intercept point.
When does LNAV engage after takeoff?
At or above 50 feet, when within 2.5 nautical miles of the active route leg.
What does the FMC normally provide guidance for in LNAV?
Great circle courses between waypoints.
What occurs when an arrival or approach is entered into the active route?
The FMC commands a heading, track, fixed radius turn, or a DME arc.
Fill in the blank: The FMC supplies a default RNP value for _______.
takeoff, enroute, oceanic/remote, terminal, and approach phases of flight.
True or False: Inertial updates can be inhibited.
False.
What does LNAV provide in terms of navigation?
Steering commands to the next waypoint or the selected route intercept point
At what altitude does LNAV engage after takeoff?
At or above 50 feet
What is the lateral distance from the active route leg for LNAV to engage?
2.5 nautical miles
What type of courses does FMC LNAV guidance normally provide?
Great circle courses between waypoints
What does the FMC do when an arrival or approach is entered?
Commands a heading, track, fixed radius turn, or DME to comply with the procedure
What message is displayed if the bank angle is limited during a turn?
LNAV BANK ANGLE LIM
What can reduce the effect of reduced bank angles during turns?
Selecting a higher thrust limit on the THRUST LIM CDU page
What message appears if the computed holding turn radius exceeds the protected airspace radius?
FMC HOLD AIRSPACE
How are waypoints (navigation fix) identified on the CDU?
By their identifiers displayed on the CDU and navigation display
What happens if a manually entered waypoint identifier is not in the database?
The CDU message NOT IN DATABASE displays
How can a waypoint still be entered if it is not in the database?
As a latitude/longitude, place bearing/distance, or place-bearing/place-bearing waypoint
What identifies VHF waypoints located at VHF navaids?
One, two, three, or four character facility identifier
Provide an example of a VHF waypoint.
Los Angeles VORTAC - LAX
What identifies NDB waypoints?
Use of the station identifier
Provide an example of an NDB waypoint.
FORT NELSON, CAN - YE
How are fix waypoints identified?
By names containing five or fewer characters
Provide an example of a fix waypoint.
ACRA
True or False: The FMC limits the bank angle to enable turns with loss of altitude.
False
Fill in the blank: When operating at high gross weights, the airplane may be _______ limited.
maneuver margin
Fill in the blank: The FMC evaluates enroute LNAV turns starting _______ prior to the turn.
5 minutes
What is the definition of conditional waypoints?
Waypoints that indicate when an event occurs and are not at a geographically-fixed position
Conditional waypoints may display in the route when selecting a DEPARTURES or ARRIVALS page procedure.
What are the types of conditions for conditional waypoints?
- Climb/descent through an altitude
- Flying a heading to a radial or DME distance
- Intercepting a course
- Heading vectors to a course or fix
These conditions dictate the circumstances under which the conditional waypoints are activated.
How are altitude and course intercept conditional waypoints displayed on the CDU?
Inside (parenthesis) marks, e.g., (1000)
This format helps distinguish conditional waypoints from regular waypoints.
True or False: Conditional waypoints can be manually entered on a route or legs page.
False
Usually, conditional waypoints cannot be manually entered.
Fill in the blank: Conditional waypoints usually display in the route when selecting a _______ or ARRIVALS page procedure.
[DEPARTURES]
This highlights the specific context in which conditional waypoints are utilized.
What does the example RTE 1 LEGS display indicate regarding waypoints and headings?
- 180° HDG to 1000’
- 140° HDG to 180°R
- VECTORS to CDE
- 090°R to ABC180
- 020° HDG to INTC
This example illustrates how waypoints and headings are presented in the context of flight management.
How are manually entered latitude/longitude waypoints displayed?
In a seven character format
Latitude and longitude waypoints are entered with no space or slash between the entries, and leading zeros must be included.
What is the format for entering N47° W008° as a waypoint?
N47W008
This displays as N47W008.
How should latitude and longitude be entered if they are not full degrees?
All digits and decimal points (to 1/10 minute) must be entered
For example, N47° 15.4’ W008° 3.4’ is entered as N4715.4W00803,4.
What information does the POS REPORT page display?
Last (POS), current (EST), and next (NEXT) waypoint identifiers in degrees and minutes of latitude/longitude
For example, 4715N00803 W.
How are waypoints entered as place bearing/distance identified?
By the first three characters of the entry followed by a two digit sequence number
Example: SEA330/10 becomes SEA01.
What range of sequence numbers is reserved for RTE1?
01 through 49
Sequence numbers for RTE2 are 51 through 99.
How are airway crossing waypoints entered?
As a five character waypoint name or by entering consecutive airways on the ROUTE page
Entering J70 on the VIA line prompts for the next airway.
What does entering consecutive airways on the ROUTE page display?
An X followed by the second airway name
For example, entering J70 followed by J52 calculates the intersection and replaces the boxes with the waypoint identifier, XJ52.
How are latitude or longitude reporting point waypoints entered?
As the full latitude or longitude followed by a dash and the increment chosen for the following waypoints
Example: W060-10 adds waypoints starting at W060 in ten degree increments.
Where must the entry for latitude or longitude reporting points be made?
On a LEGS page on any line before the first reporting point
Usually made on the active waypoint line.
Fill in the blank: Manually entered waypoints must have leading _______.
zeros
What are along-track waypoints?
Waypoints created on the active route that do not cause route discontinuities.
Along-track waypoints are entered using the waypoint name followed by a slash and sign indicating position relative to the waypoint.
How are along-track waypoints entered?
Using the waypoint name, a slash and minus sign for points before, or no sign for points after, followed by the mileage offset.
For example, VAMPS/25 means 25 miles after VAMPS.
What is the maximum distance for a mileage offset in along-track waypoints?
The distance offset must be less than the distance between the originating waypoint and the next or preceding waypoint.
Positive values are for points after the waypoint and negative values for points before.
What cannot be used to create along-track waypoints?
Latitude and longitude waypoints.
Only waypoint names with mileage offsets can define along-track waypoints.
What does an inactive route display as on the ND?
A dashed cyan line.
This visual representation helps pilots quickly assess the status of the route.
What does a pending active route display as on the ND?
A dashed white line.
What does an activated but not yet executed route display as on the ND?
An alternating cyan/white dashed line.
What color represents the active route on the ND?
Magenta.
What do modifications to an active route display as on the ND?
Dashed white lines.
What does a missed approach route display as on the ND?
A solid cyan line.
What is a potential consequence of inadequate GPS or radio updating?
The ND map may display a shift error, compromising terrain or traffic separation.
How can map shift errors be detected?
By comparing the position of the airplane on the ND map with data from ILS, VOR, and DME systems.
True or False: Modified waypoints display in magenta on the ND.
False.
Fill in the blank: The ND displays the FMC position at the _______ of the airplane symbol.
apex.
What does VNAV provide during flight?
Vertical profile guidance through the climb, cruise, and descent phases of flight.
How are multiple VNAV CDU pages accessed?
Using the NEXT PAGE or PREV PAGE keys.
What must be used to verify each crossing altitude in a VNAV procedure?
The altimeter.
What does VNAV control regarding waypoint crossing constraints?
The path and speed to comply with waypoint crossing constraints.
How are waypoint crossing constraints entered on the LEGS page?
By selecting the applicable key on the right side of the CDU.
What must barometric altitude constraints be in relation to the cruise altitude?
Below the cruise altitude to be valid.
How are values entered as part of a procedure displayed?
In large font.
How do FMC predicted values display compared to constraints?
In small font and do not act as constraints.
What color is a waypoint constraint when it is active?
Magenta.
What does it mean if a modified waypoint constraint is shaded white?
It has not yet been executed.
How are at or above altitude constraints denoted?
With a suffix letter A (example: 220A).
How are at or below altitude constraints denoted?
With a suffix letter B (example: 240B).
How can altitude constraints with two altitudes be entered?
In either order: lower altitude with A and upper altitude with B (example: 220A240B or 240B220A).
What do speed only constraints allow the flight crew to comply with?
An ATC speed only clearance using VNAV.
In which flight phases can speed only constraints be entered?
All phases of flight.
What do speed constraints in the climb phase cause VNAV to command?
A speed at or below the constraint speed for all waypoints prior to, and including, the constraint waypoint.
What do speed constraints in the cruise or descent phase cause VNAV to command?
A speed at or below the constraint speed at the constraint waypoint, and for all following waypoints in the descent phase.
What activates VNAV during takeoff?
VNAV activates at 400 feet above runway elevation
VNAV stands for Vertical Navigation.
What is the target airspeed range during takeoff when VNAV is armed?
Between V2 + 15 and V2 + 25 knots
What does VNAV command at acceleration height?
An airspeed increase to 5 knots below the flap placard speed for the existing flap setting
What happens when flaps are retracted or at an AFDS capture altitude?
VNAV commands the greater of flaps up manoeuvre speed or the speed transition associated with the origin airport, limited by configuration
When does the FMC change the thrust reference mode during takeoff?
At the thrust reduction point
What does the VNAV climb profile use?
VNAV SPD or VNAV PTH at the default climb speed or pilot selected climb speed
What happens if the climb speed profile cannot achieve an altitude constraint?
The UNABLE NEXT ALT CDU help window message displays
What are the types of speed restrictions VNAV can maintain during climb?
- Procedure based speed restriction
- Waypoint speed restriction
- Default VNAV climb speed
- Manually entered climb speed
What message displays if the FMC predicts the airplane will not reach an altitude constraint?
UNABLE NEXT ALTITUDE
What is the purpose of speed intervention during climb?
To provide a steeper climb by manually setting a lower airspeed
What is the Top Of Climb (T/C)?
The point where the climb phase meets the cruise altitude
What does the FMC do as the airplane approaches the Top Of Climb?
Changes from the climb phase to the cruise phase
How is the T/C point displayed on the map?
As a green open circle with the label T/C
What activates VNAV during takeoff?
VNAV activates at 400 feet above runway elevation
VNAV stands for Vertical Navigation.
What is the target airspeed range during takeoff when VNAV is armed?
Between V2 + 15 and V2 + 25 knots
What does VNAV command at acceleration height?
An airspeed increase to 5 knots below the flap placard speed for the existing flap setting
What happens when flaps are retracted or at an AFDS capture altitude?
VNAV commands the greater of flaps up manoeuvre speed or the speed transition associated with the origin airport, limited by configuration
When does the FMC change the thrust reference mode during takeoff?
At the thrust reduction point
What does the VNAV climb profile use?
VNAV SPD or VNAV PTH at the default climb speed or pilot selected climb speed
What happens if the climb speed profile cannot achieve an altitude constraint?
The UNABLE NEXT ALT CDU help window message displays
What are the types of speed restrictions VNAV can maintain during climb?
- Procedure based speed restriction
- Waypoint speed restriction
- Default VNAV climb speed
- Manually entered climb speed
What message displays if the FMC predicts the airplane will not reach an altitude constraint?
UNABLE NEXT ALTITUDE
What is the purpose of speed intervention during climb?
To provide a steeper climb by manually setting a lower airspeed
What is the Top Of Climb (T/C)?
The point where the climb phase meets the cruise altitude
What does the FMC do as the airplane approaches the Top Of Climb?
Changes from the climb phase to the cruise phase
How is the T/C point displayed on the map?
As a green open circle with the label T/C
What is MCP Altitude Intervention?
A function that manages altitude when the airplane levels off at an MCP altitude not in the FMC.
VNAV ALT annunciates when this occurs.
What happens when the MCP altitude is set below the FMC cruise altitude?
Pitch maintains altitude and thrust maintains FMC target speed.
For example, if the FMC cruise altitude is FL250 and the MCP is set to FL190.
What speed does the airplane maintain after a temporary level off?
ECON CLB SPEED.
This speed is maintained until the next altitude intervention.
What occurs when the clearance altitude is set in the MCP window and the altitude selector is pushed?
The climb continues and VNAV SPD activates.
Pitch maintains FMC speed and thrust increases to the armed reference thrust limit.
What happens after the airplane climbs to FMC CRZ ALT?
It levels off at FL250 in cruise.
This occurs after reaching the clearance altitude.
During cruise, what does the FMC command?
Economy cruise speed or the pilot entered speed until the top of descent (T/D) point.
This is the standard operating procedure.
What are the other cruise speed options available?
- Engine out (ENG OUT)
- Flight crew entered speed
- Flight crew entered constant Mach between two or more waypoints
- Long range (LRC)
- Required time of arrival (RTA)
These options provide flexibility in managing speed during cruise.
Fill in the blank: VNAV ALT annunciates whenever the airplane levels off at an MCP altitude not in the _______.
FMC.
This indicates a discrepancy between planned and actual flight levels.
What happens when an altitude above the current cruise altitude is set in the MCP altitude window?
The cruise altitude is set to the MCP altitude and the airplane climbs to the new cruise altitude
The CRZ page displays ACT ECON CRZ CLB.
What do fuel and ETA calculations assume during a step climb?
The airplane climbs at each calculated step climb point as airplane weight decreases
FMC calculated step climb increments are based on the step size shown on the CRZ page.
What occurs when a step size of zero is entered in the FMC?
The FMC assumes a constant altitude cruise
This affects the calculations for step climbs.
What overrides the FMC step climb calculations?
Flight crew entry of a STEP TO altitude on the CRZ page or ‘S’ on a waypoint on the LEGS page
Entry of a step altitude on the LEGS page also overrides a STEP TO entry made on the CRZ page.
Where do calculated step altitudes display?
On the LEGS page
The distance and ETA to the next step point also display on the CRZ and PROGRESS pages.
What factors does the FMC use to calculate step climb locations and altitudes?
Lateral flight plan, current cruise speed mode and altitude, entered forecast winds and temperatures, step size, cruise cg, and gross weight
The primary factor is the entry of accurate forecast cruise winds and temperatures.
True or False: IRS winds are used in the calculation of step climb data.
False
Unless enroute winds are entered, all step climb locations and altitudes are calculated assuming zero wind.
For ECON cruise, what do step climbs optimize?
Minimum trip cost according to the entered Cost Index
For other selected speeds, calculated step climbs minimize trip fuel.
Where do calculated step locations display?
On the ND with ‘S/C’ and the next step displays on the ECON CRZ page
Flight plan calculations of time and fuel at destination are based on executing step climbs as calculated.
What does inflight entry of a STEP TO altitude in 1R cause the FMC to do?
Use the entered enroute winds and temperatures to calculate the optimum location for a climb to the step altitude
The ETA and DTG for the step display in 2R.
What does 2R display if an immediate step climb to the entered altitude is optimal?
NOW
If remaining at the current altitude is more optimal, 2R displays NONE.
What can cause a step climb point on the LSK IR on the CRZ page to be deleted?
Manual entry on the LSK IR or a planned step climb point entered on the LEGS page is sequenced and NOW is shown in 2R
Planned step climb points may also be entered on the LEGS page at selected waypoints.
What happens with planned step climb points entered?
Flight plan calculations assume a constant cruise altitude until reaching the planned step waypoint
Optimized step climb calculations resume after passing the last planned step climb waypoint.
What does VNAV stand for?
Vertical Navigation
What happens when the last planned step is a step descent?
Step climbs are no longer calculated
What does the OPT altitude calculation not use?
Forecast or IRS winds and temperatures
What factors does the RECMD altitude calculation consider?
Step size, current CRZ ALT, entered forecast enroute winds and temperatures
What limits all altitude calculations?
Maximum (MAX) altitude
What displays if a climb is not initiated within 5 minutes after passing a step climb point?
EICAS advisory message VNAV STEP CLIMB
What triggers a cruise descent when setting an altitude in the MCP altitude window?
Setting an altitude below the current cruise altitude and pushing the altitude selector
What happens if the altitude set in the altitude window is below the speed transition altitude?
Those altitudes and speeds are deleted
What must be maintained by flight crew action during a cruise descent?
Transition or speed restrictions
What does VNAV begin when the distance from the top of descent is more than 50 NM?
A cruise descent to the new cruise altitude
What is the effect of VNAV on the descent path during a cruise descent?
VNAV may not capture the descent path
What is required to specify a waypoint as an RTA waypoint?
Any flight plan waypoint up to and including the missed approach waypoint
What does VNAV control to arrive at the RTA waypoint?
Speed to arrive within ±6 minutes
Fill in the blank: If a climb is not initiated within 5 minutes after passing a step climb point and the altitude difference is greater than ______ feet, an advisory message displays.
3,500
True or False: The cruise altitude is set to the MCP altitude only if the altitude is above the current cruise altitude.
False
What does the CRZ page display when a new cruise altitude is set?
ACT ECON CRZ DES
What does RTA stand for in flight management?
Required Time of Arrival
RTA is a function that helps manage arrival times at specified waypoints.
What can be specified as an RTA waypoint?
Any flight plan waypoint up to and including the missed approach waypoint
This includes waypoints that are critical for navigation and approach.
What does VNAV control in relation to RTA waypoints?
Speed to arrive at the RTA waypoint within ±6 seconds of a specified time
VNAV adjusts the aircraft’s speed to ensure timely arrival.
What are the limitations for RTA speed targets?
Airplane speed limitations, speed and altitude constraints, speed transitions, manually entered maximum and minimum speeds
These factors ensure that speed adjustments remain within safe operational limits.
What indicates that RTA speed mode is active?
The PROGRESS 1/4 page 4L field displays ‘RTA SPD’ as the line title
This is a visual confirmation that the RTA function is engaged.
What happens if the RTA is not achievable?
The EICAS advisory message FMC UNABLE RTA is displayed
This alerts the flight crew of any issues with meeting the RTA.
What is the minimum data required to enter an RTA?
RTA waypoint, time, and type
Types include AT, AT OR BEFORE, and AT OR AFTER.
What additional entry data can affect RTAs?
RTA threshold, minimum and maximum RTA speeds, and takeoff time
These parameters help fine-tune the RTA settings.
How do elevators control speed during an RTA climb?
At the reference thrust limit
This ensures that the aircraft maintains the desired speed during ascent.
What command speed is set when sequencing an RTA waypoint greater than 200 NM from the End of Descent?
ECON or the planned speed
This allows the aircraft to optimize speed over longer distances.
What command speed is set when sequencing an RTA waypoint less than 200 NM from the End of Descent?
SEL SPD
This allows for more precise speed control as the aircraft approaches the waypoint.
What is the function of speed intervention in VNAV?
Allows the flight crew to change airplane speed with the IAS/MACH selector
This provides flexibility in managing speed during various flight phases.
What remains unchanged when the MCP speed window is opened in a VNAV descent?
The pitch mode remains in VNAV PTH
This maintains the desired flight path while allowing speed adjustments.
What happens when using speed intervention during descent?
Closing the IAS/MACH window resets the FMC target speed to the IAS/MACH window speed if that speed is lower than the FMC target speed
If the reset speed is lower than the original FMC target speed, the airplane cannot maintain the VNAV PTH descent without speedbrakes.
What occurs when a new speed is entered at LSK 2L (ECON SPD) on the VNAV DES page?
The FMC enters a MOD state and recalculates a new vertical descent path optimized for the new speed
This new vertical descent path is optimized for a VNAV PTH descent.
What happens if the airplane speed deviates beyond the VNAV speed band?
The pitch mode changes to VNAV SPD, maintained by pitch, causing the airplane to depart the vertical path.
During a VNAV approach while using speed intervention, what is the pitch mode?
VNAV PTH
The vertical path is maintained regardless of IAS/MACH selector changes.
What occurs when a ‘direct to’ is executed to a waypoint in the approach?
VNAV transitions to the approach phase when passing the ‘direct to’ waypoint.
What is the E/D point in the descent path calculated by the FMC?
The E/D is located 50 feet above the runway threshold for all approaches except VOR approaches
For VOR approaches, the E/D is the missed approach point.
What is the top of descent (T/D)?
The point where the cruise phase changes to the descent phase, displayed on the ND as a green circle with the label T/D.
What factors are considered in the descent path calculation to the first constraint?
- Idle thrust
- Speedbrakes retracted
- FMC cruise wind
- Applicable target speed
- Wind entries on the DESCENT FORECAST page
- Predicted use of anti-ice
What is the maximum speed VNAV commands during descent?
VNAV does not command an economy target speed greater than VMO/MMO minus 16 knots or a pilot-entered speed greater than VMO/MMO minus 11 knots.
How is the descent path constructed after the first altitude constraint waypoint?
As straight line point-to-point segments.
What does the FMC command if the VNAV path segment is too shallow to be flown satisfactorily at IDLE thrust?
The FMC commands speed on thrust levers (SPD).
What does the speed tape display during descent in VNAV?
A VNAV PTH speed band
VNAV PTH refers to the Vertical Navigation Path mode.
What happens if the airplane is more than 15 knots below the target speed and autothrottles are not active?
The CDU help window message THRUST REQUIRED displays
The airspeed may decrease to minimum manoeuvring speed.
What occurs when VNAV can no longer maintain the airplane within 150 feet of the path without further deceleration?
Speed reversion occurs, changing pitch mode from VNAV PTH to VNAV SPD
VNAV resets the target speed to 5 knots above the greater of best holding speed or minimum manoeuvring speed.
What is the maximum allowed speed variation when the airplane is above VMO/MMO minus 16 knots?
The airplane may accelerate up to VMO/MMO minus 11 knots
The CDU help window message DRAG REQUIRED displays.
What happens if VNAV can no longer maintain the airplane within 150 feet of the path without further acceleration?
Speed reversion occurs, changing pitch mode from VNAV PTH to VNAV SPD
VNAV resets the target speed to VMO/MMO minus 16 knots.
What message displays if the airplane is more than 15 knots below the target speed and autothrottles are active?
This condition should not occur
Thrust levers are in SPD and target speed is maintained during the descent.
What is the target speed reset to when below the first speed constraint and more than 15 knots below the target speed?
10 knots less than the transition speed for the destination airport
This is not less than minimum manoeuvring speed.
Fill in the blank: The maximum speed excursion allowed is _____ above the transition speed after the airplane is below transition altitude.
5 knots
This applies if the airplane is below transition altitude for the destination airport.
What command initiates an early descent?
Select the DES NOW prompt on the DES page or push the MCP altitude selector
VNAV commands a reduced descent rate until the descent path is intercepted.
What is the initial autothrottle mode annunciation during an early descent?
THR
This is followed by HOLD, allowing the pilot to adjust the rate of descent.
What is the pitch mode during an early descent?
VNAV SPD
This indicates the airplane is following the speed set by VNAV.
What is the purpose of the DES NOW prompt on the VNAV DES page?
It starts an early descent and captures the descent path.
This feature is used when the aircraft is more than 50 NM from the Top of Descent Point.
What should be done when the distance from the Top of Descent Point is more than 50 NM?
Use the MCP altitude selector to start a cruise descent.
VNAV may not capture the descent path due to the target airspeed being economy cruise.
What happens within 50 NM of the Top of Descent Point?
VNAV starts an early descent and captures the descent path.
This is initiated by using the MCP altitude selector.
What is the function of TO/GA selection after the flaps are extended?
Starts a missed approach, sets go-around thrust, and deletes altitude constraints through the end of descent.
These actions are crucial for managing the aircraft’s performance during approach.
What does VNAV PTH refer to?
Vertical Navigation Path.
VNAV PTH is used during descent and approach phases to maintain the desired vertical profile.
What is indicated by the term ‘Level Deceleration’ in the context of VNAV?
A specific phase in the descent profile where the aircraft reduces speed.
This phase is crucial for aligning with approach procedures.
Fill in the blank: VNAV may not capture the descent path since the target airspeed is _______.
economy cruise.
True or False: VNAV can initiate a descent at any point during the flight.
False.
VNAV has specific conditions based on distance from the Top of Descent Point.
What is the purpose of the DES NOW prompt on the VNAV DES page?
It starts an early descent and captures the descent path.
This feature is used when the aircraft is more than 50 NM from the Top of Descent Point.
What should be done when the distance from the Top of Descent Point is more than 50 NM?
Use the MCP altitude selector to start a cruise descent.
VNAV may not capture the descent path due to the target airspeed being economy cruise.
What happens within 50 NM of the Top of Descent Point?
VNAV starts an early descent and captures the descent path.
This is initiated by using the MCP altitude selector.
What is the function of TO/GA selection after the flaps are extended?
Starts a missed approach, sets go-around thrust, and deletes altitude constraints through the end of descent.
These actions are crucial for managing the aircraft’s performance during approach.
What does VNAV PTH refer to?
Vertical Navigation Path.
VNAV PTH is used during descent and approach phases to maintain the desired vertical profile.
What is indicated by the term ‘Level Deceleration’ in the context of VNAV?
A specific phase in the descent profile where the aircraft reduces speed.
This phase is crucial for aligning with approach procedures.
Fill in the blank: VNAV may not capture the descent path since the target airspeed is _______.
economy cruise.
True or False: VNAV can initiate a descent at any point during the flight.
False.
VNAV has specific conditions based on distance from the Top of Descent Point.
What mode does the FMC command during cruise before the top of descent?
VNAV PTH and ECON cruise speed
VNAV PTH refers to the vertical navigation path mode used by the Flight Management Computer (FMC).
What happens at the top of descent in the FMC’s operation?
The FMC transitions to descent and commands airspeed to ECON descent speed
The transition indicates a shift from cruise to descent, maintaining altitude until the specified descent phase.
What does the T/D green circle indicate?
The point where deceleration to ECON DES speed begins
T/D stands for Top of Descent, marking the start of the descent phase.
What is the descent rate approximated by the FMC before the speed restriction altitude?
500 feet per minute
This rate is maintained while descending to meet speed restrictions.
What thrust reference mode is normally used during descent?
CRZ
CRZ refers to cruise thrust mode, indicating normal thrust management during descent.
What happens to the thrust reference mode when flaps are extended from UP to 1?
It changes to G/A in anticipation of the approach
G/A stands for Go-Around thrust mode, which is used for approach preparations.
What occurs if VNAV is selected as the pitch mode after flaps are extended?
The thrust reference mode automatically changes to CRZ
This change happens until certain conditions are met, such as further flap extensions or TO/GA selection.
What mode does VNAV activate during a missed approach?
VNAV SPD
VNAV SPD refers to vertical navigation speed mode, utilized specifically during missed approaches.
What happens at missed approach altitude in terms of VNAV mode?
VNAV SPD changes to VNAV PTH
This transition signifies a return to the vertical navigation path mode after reaching the missed approach altitude.
What mode does the FMC transition to when the descent phase is active and flaps are out of up?
On approach mode
The FMC can also enter this mode if the airplane has sequenced the first waypoint of the active approach or is on a direct-to intercept course to the active waypoint with less than 12 NM remaining.
Under what conditions does the FMC transition out of ‘on approach’ mode?
- The pilot selects TO/GA
- The airplane lands
- The airplane flies beyond the last waypoint in the approach
The VNAV page title changes from ‘ACT xxxxx DES’ to ‘ACT END OF DES’ when transitioning out.
What altitude setting allows VNAV to continue commanding a descent when the FMC is ‘on approach’?
At least 300 feet above the current airplane altitude
The MCP altitude can be set above the airplane altitude for the missed approach.
What happens to VNAV PTH when the airplane accelerates to within 5 knots of the current flap placard and rises more than 150 feet above the path?
VNAV PTH changes to VNAV SPD
VNAV remains in VNAV PTH and follows the descent path under normal conditions.
When is a glidepath angle displayed on the RTE LEGS page?
When specified for one or more legs on the approach
VNAV provides VNAV PTH guidance at the displayed angle.
What does VNAV command when sequencing a waypoint prior to a descent leg specified by a glidepath angle?
Level flight until the airplane intercepts the descent path
This ensures the airplane follows the intended glidepath.
How can another approach be selected in the FMC?
On the ARRIVALS page
An along-course intercept to the next logical approach waypoint can be selected on the LEGS page.
What happens during approach maneuvering with the IAS/MACH window closed?
VNAV sets command speed to flap maneuvering speed as the airplane passes the flap profile point indicated on the ND
This command speed change occurs even if flap selection is not made.
Fill in the blank: The FMC transitions to ‘on approach’ mode when the missed approach point is the active waypoint and the distance to go is less than _______.
25 NM
What mode does the FMC transition to when the descent phase is active and flaps are out of up?
On approach mode
The FMC can also enter this mode if the airplane has sequenced the first waypoint of the active approach or is on a direct-to intercept course to the active waypoint with less than 12 NM remaining.
Under what conditions does the FMC transition out of ‘on approach’ mode?
- The pilot selects TO/GA
- The airplane lands
- The airplane flies beyond the last waypoint in the approach
The VNAV page title changes from ‘ACT xxxxx DES’ to ‘ACT END OF DES’ when transitioning out.
What altitude setting allows VNAV to continue commanding a descent when the FMC is ‘on approach’?
At least 300 feet above the current airplane altitude
The MCP altitude can be set above the airplane altitude for the missed approach.
What happens to VNAV PTH when the airplane accelerates to within 5 knots of the current flap placard and rises more than 150 feet above the path?
VNAV PTH changes to VNAV SPD
VNAV remains in VNAV PTH and follows the descent path under normal conditions.
When is a glidepath angle displayed on the RTE LEGS page?
When specified for one or more legs on the approach
VNAV provides VNAV PTH guidance at the displayed angle.
What does VNAV command when sequencing a waypoint prior to a descent leg specified by a glidepath angle?
Level flight until the airplane intercepts the descent path
This ensures the airplane follows the intended glidepath.
How can another approach be selected in the FMC?
On the ARRIVALS page
An along-course intercept to the next logical approach waypoint can be selected on the LEGS page.
What happens during approach maneuvering with the IAS/MACH window closed?
VNAV sets command speed to flap maneuvering speed as the airplane passes the flap profile point indicated on the ND
This command speed change occurs even if flap selection is not made.
Fill in the blank: The FMC transitions to ‘on approach’ mode when the missed approach point is the active waypoint and the distance to go is less than _______.
25 NM
What occurs during approach manoeuvring with the IAS/MACH window closed?
VNAV sets command speed to flap manoeuvring speed as the airplane passes the flap profile point indicated on the ND
The command speed change occurs even if flap selection is not made.
What should be done if flaps are not extended before passing the flap profile point?
Open the IAS/MACH window and set the desired speed to avoid an underspeed condition
This action is necessary to maintain safe flight parameters.
What does Integrated Approach Navigation (IAN) allow?
The use of consistent procedures for all types of instrument approaches
Any approach with a glidepath angle published in the navigation database can be flown using IAN.
Which types of approaches does IAN support?
- B/CRS
- GPS
- IGS (G/S selected OFF)
- ILS (G/S selected OFF)
- LDA
- LOC (G/S selected OFF)
- NDB
- RNAV
- SDF (G/S selected OFF)
- VER
- VOR
These approaches utilize similar procedures, indications, and alerts as ILS approaches.
What does the FMC provide when an approach is entered into the active route?
- A source for deviation scales
- Distance to the missed approach waypoint
- Final approach course (FAC) deviations from the defined LNAV path
- Glidepath (G/P) deviations from the defined VNAV path
These features enhance situational awareness during the approach phase.
What is used to scale the displayed FAC and G/P deviations?
RNP and vertical RNP
RNP values can be accessed from POS REF 2/4 and RNP PROGRESS 4/4.
Fill in the blank: QFE operation is ______.
not authorized
When is the FPA accessible for a VER approach using IAN procedures?
Once a VER approach is selected from the ARRIVALS page
This allows pilots to manage the approach effectively.
What is a missed approach?
A missed approach is accomplished by selection of either TO/GA switch.
When can VNAV be activated during a missed approach?
VNAV can only be activated when the airplane climbs above 400 feet radio altitude.
When does LNAV automatically activate if an LNAV path is available?
LNAV automatically activates:
* Above 50 feet radio altitude when autopilot is not engaged
* Above 200 feet radio altitude when autopilot is engaged.
What happens if no LNAV path is available during a missed approach?
LNAV shows on the FMA, the roll bar blanks, and the flight director guidance cue on the HUD blanks.
What occurs to descent altitude constraints during a missed approach?
All descent altitude constraints below the current airplane altitude are deleted; the waypoints are retained in the active flight plan.
What determines the new cruise altitude during a missed approach?
The new cruise altitude becomes the greater of the MCP altitude or the highest altitude in the missed approach procedure.
What happens to the FMC during a missed approach?
The FMC transitions from active descent to active climb.
What is AFDS guidance during a missed approach?
AFDS guidance to fly the published missed approach procedure to the new cruise altitude is active when NAV (and LNAV) are selected.
What is the speed target during cruise phase after a missed approach?
The speed target is the most restrictive of speed transition, best hold speed, or ECON cruise (above speed transition altitude).
Fill in the blank: VNAV can only be activated when the airplane climbs above _______.
400 feet radio altitude.
True or False: LNAV will engage automatically upon TO/GA press if the airplane is active on a Direct-To leg.
False.
What does VNAV stand for in flight management systems?
Vertical Navigation
VNAV is a feature that automates the vertical profile of the flight.
What is the significance of the CFL250 in flight management?
It indicates a climb flight level of 25,000 feet
CFL250 is a target altitude for the aircraft during climb.
What does the term ENG OUT indicate?
Engine failure
ENG OUT is a status that appears when an engine failure is detected.
At what altitude does the airplane capture the EO acceleration height?
400 FT
EO acceleration height is the altitude at which the aircraft begins to accelerate after an engine-out scenario.
What happens automatically when the airplane reaches flaps up maneuver speed?
Change from takeoff thrust limit to continuous (CON) thrust limit
This transition is critical for maintaining performance during the climb.
What speed range does the FMC maintain during takeoff thrust?
V2 to V2 + 15
V2 is the takeoff safety speed, and the range allows for safe initial climb.
Fill in the blank: The VNAV page title may be _______ when target speed is limited by flap placard speed.
LIM SPD CLB
This indicates a limited speed climb due to flap position.
True or False: The SEL SPD option is used to confirm an engine failure.
False
The ENG OUT option is used to confirm an engine failure.
What is the purpose of the EO SID?
To automatically load the engine-out standard instrument departure procedures
EO SID helps pilots follow the correct departure profile after an engine failure.
What does the term ‘automatic change’ refer to in the context of thrust limits?
The transition from takeoff thrust limit to continuous thrust limit
This change ensures efficient climb performance after reaching a certain speed.
What does VNAV stand for in flight management systems?
Vertical Navigation
VNAV is a feature that automates the vertical profile of the flight.
What is the significance of the CFL250 in flight management?
It indicates a climb flight level of 25,000 feet
CFL250 is a target altitude for the aircraft during climb.
What does the term ENG OUT indicate?
Engine failure
ENG OUT is a status that appears when an engine failure is detected.
At what altitude does the airplane capture the EO acceleration height?
400 FT
EO acceleration height is the altitude at which the aircraft begins to accelerate after an engine-out scenario.
What happens automatically when the airplane reaches flaps up maneuver speed?
Change from takeoff thrust limit to continuous (CON) thrust limit
This transition is critical for maintaining performance during the climb.
What speed range does the FMC maintain during takeoff thrust?
V2 to V2 + 15
V2 is the takeoff safety speed, and the range allows for safe initial climb.
Fill in the blank: The VNAV page title may be _______ when target speed is limited by flap placard speed.
LIM SPD CLB
This indicates a limited speed climb due to flap position.
True or False: The SEL SPD option is used to confirm an engine failure.
False
The ENG OUT option is used to confirm an engine failure.
What is the purpose of the EO SID?
To automatically load the engine-out standard instrument departure procedures
EO SID helps pilots follow the correct departure profile after an engine failure.
What does the term ‘automatic change’ refer to in the context of thrust limits?
The transition from takeoff thrust limit to continuous thrust limit
This change ensures efficient climb performance after reaching a certain speed.
What is the VNAV SPD command during takeoff before an engine failure?
A climb at V2+15 to V2+25 knots
This occurs when the airplane is above the VNAV activation altitude.
What happens when an engine failure is sensed after VNAV activation?
VNAV commands a speed of V2 to V2 + 15
Autothrottle remains in THR REF and thrust limit remains takeoff (TO).
What condition triggers the loading of an EO SID in the FMC?
Flaps out of up and an engine out standard instrument departure (EO SID) is in the FMC database
The modification may be either executed or erased.
What does VNAV command at acceleration height?
An acceleration to flaps up manoeuvre speed
This is limited by the airplane configuration (flap placard).
What happens when the airplane has accelerated to the commanded flaps up manoeuvre speed?
Thrust is automatically reduced from TO to continuous (CON) thrust
If engine failure occurs above the thrust reduction point, current climb thrust is maintained.
How is engine out performance data activated during VNAV climb?
Select the ENG OUT prompt on the VNAV CLB page
This terminates the VNAV engine out takeoff phase.
What is the pitch mode during VNAV climb with engine out performance data active?
VNAV SPD
The command speed is EO SPD, and the reference thrust limit is CON.
What occurs when the airplane is above the engine out maximum altitude?
Selection of ENG OUT> on the VNAV CLB page creates a modification
It displays applicable engine out driftdown (D/M) performance data, enabling descent to engine out maximum altitude.
What is the function of the VNAV CLB page when the airplane is above the engine out maximum altitude?
It creates a modification and displays applicable engine out driftdown (D/D) performance data enabling a descent to the engine out maximum altitude
This function is crucial for maintaining safe operations when an engine failure occurs.
What happens when the ENG OUT> is selected on the VNAV CRZ page?
It creates a modification and displays applicable engine out driftdown (D/D) performance data
This allows the aircraft to adjust its thrust and speed settings in response to engine failure.
What is the default command speed indicated after executing the ENG OUT modification?
EO SPD
This speed setting is critical for optimizing the aircraft’s performance during an engine out scenario.
What is displayed as the cruise altitude in the flight management system when above the engine out maximum altitude?
EO MAX altitude
This altitude remains constant and does not change with time or command speed adjustments.
What does the selection of ENG OUT> on the VNAV CLB page activate?
The engine out driftdown function
This function is vital for managing descent safely after an engine failure.
Fill in the blank: The maximum engine out altitude is indicated as _______.
FL 233
This altitude is crucial for ensuring the aircraft operates within safe performance parameters.
True or False: The EO MAX altitude shown in the flight management system changes over time.
False
The EO MAX altitude remains constant regardless of changes in command speed.
What is the reference thrust limit when executing the ENG OUT modification?
CON
This setting ensures that the aircraft can maintain necessary performance during an engine out condition.
What action does the FMC command during an engine failure?
Driftdown (D/D) descent
This descent strategy is essential for safely managing altitude loss after an engine failure.
When executing the ENG OUT modification, what happens to the thrust levers?
They advance to CON
This adjustment is necessary for optimizing engine performance during an emergency situation.
What does ‘ACT EO CRZ DES’ indicate?
Active engine out cruise descent
This indicates that the aircraft is in a controlled descent following an engine failure.
What does selecting ENG OUT create?
A modification and displays applicable engine out driftdown (D/D) performance data
This process is vital for managing aircraft performance in case of engine failure.
What initiates a driftdown descent?
Setting the MCP altitude at or below EO MAX altitude and executing the modification
This is a critical procedure for ensuring safe altitude management during engine failure.
What commands does VNAV issue when EO SPD is achieved?
VNAV controls the driftdown descent rate to a minimum of 300 feet per minute (fpm)
This ensures a controlled descent rate during an emergency situation.
What information is displayed at 2R during a driftdown?
Time and distance for the D/D to EO MAX altitude
This information aids pilots in managing descent effectively.
What happens when executing the ENG OUT modification without descending?
The pitch mode changes to VNAV ALT
This indicates that the aircraft is maintaining altitude rather than descending.
How is a normal enroute cruise descent initiated?
Setting the MCP altitude to a lower altitude and pushing the altitude selector
This is part of standard operating procedures for cruise descents.
What is the descent rate during a normal VNAV cruise descent?
Approximately 1,250 fpm
This rate ensures efficient fuel use and passenger comfort.
What happens when executing the ENG OUT modification while above EO MAX altitude?
Commands a driftdown descent to the EO MAX altitude at E/O SPD
This is crucial for transitioning to a safe altitude during engine failure.
What title does the VNAV cruise page display when VNAV captures the EO MAX altitude?
EO CRZ
Indicates that the aircraft is in a specific engine-out cruise mode.
What occurs when the FMC is in engine out mode and more than 50 nm from T/D?
Setting a lower MCP altitude and pushing the altitude selector executes an engine-out cruise descent
This is an important aspect of managing flight operations during emergencies.
Fill in the blank: The rate of descent during driftdown decreases to a minimum of _______.
300 fpm
This rate is established to ensure safety during descent.
True or False: The reference thrust limit during a normal enroute cruise descent is CLB/CRZ.
True
This thrust limit is critical for maintaining performance during descent.
What is the role of VNAV during a driftdown descent?
VNAV captures the MCP altitude and commands EO CRZ
This allows the aircraft to maintain optimal performance in a single-engine scenario.
What does selecting ENG OUT create?
A modification and displays applicable engine out driftdown (D/D) performance data
This process is vital for managing aircraft performance in case of engine failure.
What initiates a driftdown descent?
Setting the MCP altitude at or below EO MAX altitude and executing the modification
This is a critical procedure for ensuring safe altitude management during engine failure.
What commands does VNAV issue when EO SPD is achieved?
VNAV controls the driftdown descent rate to a minimum of 300 feet per minute (fpm)
This ensures a controlled descent rate during an emergency situation.
What information is displayed at 2R during a driftdown?
Time and distance for the D/D to EO MAX altitude
This information aids pilots in managing descent effectively.
What happens when executing the ENG OUT modification without descending?
The pitch mode changes to VNAV ALT
This indicates that the aircraft is maintaining altitude rather than descending.
How is a normal enroute cruise descent initiated?
Setting the MCP altitude to a lower altitude and pushing the altitude selector
This is part of standard operating procedures for cruise descents.
What is the descent rate during a normal VNAV cruise descent?
Approximately 1,250 fpm
This rate ensures efficient fuel use and passenger comfort.
What happens when executing the ENG OUT modification while above EO MAX altitude?
Commands a driftdown descent to the EO MAX altitude at E/O SPD
This is crucial for transitioning to a safe altitude during engine failure.
What title does the VNAV cruise page display when VNAV captures the EO MAX altitude?
EO CRZ
Indicates that the aircraft is in a specific engine-out cruise mode.
What occurs when the FMC is in engine out mode and more than 50 nm from T/D?
Setting a lower MCP altitude and pushing the altitude selector executes an engine-out cruise descent
This is an important aspect of managing flight operations during emergencies.
Fill in the blank: The rate of descent during driftdown decreases to a minimum of _______.
300 fpm
This rate is established to ensure safety during descent.
True or False: The reference thrust limit during a normal enroute cruise descent is CLB/CRZ.
True
This thrust limit is critical for maintaining performance during descent.
What is the role of VNAV during a driftdown descent?
VNAV captures the MCP altitude and commands EO CRZ
This allows the aircraft to maintain optimal performance in a single-engine scenario.
What mode is the FMC in during an engine-out cruise descent?
Engine out mode
What is the descent rate during an engine-out cruise descent?
Approximately 1,250 fpm
What triggers the descent mode to become active during an engine-out cruise descent?
When the EO cruise descent intersects the planned descent profile
How can altitudes be entered into the FMC?
As three digit (XXX), four digit (XXXX), five digit (XXXXX), or flight level (FLXXX) numbers
What do three digit entries represent in the FMC?
Altitude or flight levels in increments of 100 feet
True or False: Leading zeros are optional for three digit entries in the FMC.
False
How is 800 feet entered in the FMC as a three digit entry?
008 or FL008
What is the maximum altitude for four digit entries in the FMC?
9,994 feet
How is 1,500 feet entered in the FMC as a four digit entry?
1500
What do five digit entries represent in the FMC?
Feet, rounded to the nearest ten feet for altitudes exceeding 9,994 feet
How is 50 feet entered in the FMC as a five digit entry?
00050
Fill in the blank: Altitudes can be entered in the FMC as _______.
three digit (XXX), four digit (XXXX), five digit (XXXXX), or flight level (FLXXX) numbers
What happens when the airplane is more than 50 nm from T/D and a lower MCP altitude is set?
Executes an engine-out cruise descent
How are four digit entries displayed in the FMC?
Rounded to the nearest ten feet
What is the correct entry for 9,994 feet in the FMC as a four digit entry?
9994; displays as 9990
What must be done to enter altitudes in the FMC correctly?
Follow specific entry rules based on the transition altitude
What is the format for entering a five-digit altitude of 50 feet in the Flight Management System?
00050
Displays as 50 feet.
How is an altitude of 8,500 feet displayed after entering it as 08500?
FL085
This is the representation after input.
What is the maximum negative altitude entry allowed in the Flight Management System?
-1000 feet
How are calibrated airspeeds entered into the FMC?
As three digits (XXX) in knots
How are Mach numbers entered into the FMC?
As one, two, or three digits following a decimal point
What does the slash (/) indicate when entering data pairs in the CDU?
Separates two values
What happens if a required slash is omitted when entering data in the FMC?
Results in an INVALID ENTRY message
What types of databases does the Flight Management Computer utilize?
- navigation
- option settings
- performance
In the FMC, how is a five-digit altitude of 11,500 feet entered?
11500
True or False: Airspeeds can only be entered as calibrated airspeed.
False
Airspeeds can also be entered as Mach number.
What does the performance database in the FMC supply to the flight crew?
Performance data to calculate pitch and thrust commands
Includes airplane drag and engine characteristics, maximum and optimum altitudes, and maximum and minimum speeds.
Which data is included in the navigation database of the FMC?
- Airports
- Location of VHF navigation aids
- SIDs, STARs, approaches, and company routes
- Runways
- Transition altitudes
This data can be displayed on the CDU or ND.
How long is each set of navigation data valid in the FMC?
28 days
Each set corresponds to the usual navigation chart revision cycle.
What happens when the FMC senses a conflict in an AMI value after a new AMI data load?
The CDU displays the message CHECK AIRLINE POLICY
AMI stands for Airline Management Information.
What does thrust management in the FMC operate in response to?
Flight crew mode control panel inputs or FMC commands
FMC autothrottle commands are made while VNAV is active.
What are the key functions of thrust management in the FMC?
- Calculates reference thrust limits and thrust settings
- Commands thrust levers
- Senses and transmits autothrottle failures
- Commands thrust equalization through the engine electronic controls
Thrust limits are expressed as N1 limits.
Fill in the blank: The thrust limits in thrust management are expressed as _______.
N1 limits.
What does thrust equalization reference in the FMC?
N1
Thrust equalization is a function of the engine electronic controls.
What is the purpose of thrust management in the B787?
Calculates a reference thrust for various thrust settings such as TO, CLB, CRZ, etc.
The thrust settings include TO, TO 1, TO 2, D-TO, D-TO 1, D-TO 2, CLB, CLB 1, CLB 2, CON, CRZ, and G/A.
What thrust settings are used for takeoff in the B787?
TO, TO 1, TO 2, D-TO, D-TO 1, D-TO 2
D-TO stands for assumed temperature takeoff, while TO 1 and TO 2 are derate takeoff options.
How does VNAV affect reference thrust limits?
Changes for the phase of flight
The reference thrust limit displays above EICAS N1 indications.
What is the range of thrust reduction height that can be specified by the flight crew?
From 400 feet to 9,999 feet
The flight crew can also make entries for specific flap settings.
What is the benefit of reduced thrust takeoffs?
Lower EGT and extend engine life
EGT stands for Exhaust Gas Temperature.
What are TO 1 and TO 2 in the context of thrust settings?
Fixed derates that reduce takeoff thrust by specified percentages
The derate percentages can be set in one percent increments between maximum takeoff thrust and the maximum certified derate.
What is the role of the Airplane Flight Manual (AFM) regarding thrust derates?
Provides performance data for these derates
This data guides operators in setting appropriate thrust levels.
True or False: The thrust setting parameter for TO 1 and TO 2 can be exceeded in normal operations.
False
Thrust levers should not be advanced further except in an emergency.
Fill in the blank: The flight crew can specify the thrust reduction height on the _______ page.
CDU TAKEOFF REF
CDU stands for Control Display Unit.
What could happen if thrust is increased following an engine failure during takeoff?
Loss of directional control
This emphasizes the importance of adhering to thrust limitations during critical phases of flight.
What should be used to calculate takeoff speeds for selected derate or variable takeoff rating conditions?
The takeoff speeds calculated by the EFB
EFB stands for Electronic Flight Bag.
What is a limitation for takeoff thrust settings in the B787?
Thrust levers should not be advanced further except in an emergency.
Advancing thrust further after an engine failure may lead to a loss of directional control.
How can takeoff thrust be reduced in the B787?
By entering an assumed temperature higher than the actual temperature.
The maximum thrust reduction authorized is 25 percent below any certified rating.
When should assumed temperature reduced thrust not be used?
If conditions exist that affect braking, such as slush, snow, or ice on the runway, or if potential windshear conditions exist.
Assumed temperature thrust settings can be manually overridden if more thrust is needed.
What are the fixed climb thrust derate options in the B787?
CLB 1 and CLB 2.
CLB 1 has a 5% derate, and CLB 2 has a 15% derate.
At what altitude does derated climb thrust increase to achieve CLB thrust?
25,000 feet.
Thrust increases linearly with altitude to achieve CLB thrust at 33,000 feet.
How does the takeoff derate percentage affect the automatic selection of climb derate?
If the takeoff derate percentage is:
* less than 5% then CLB is selected,
* greater than or equal to 5% and less than 15% then CLB 1 is selected,
* greater than or equal to 15% then CLB 2 is selected.
What is the impact of using derated climb thrust on engine maintenance?
It reduces engine maintenance costs, but increases total trip fuel.
This trade-off is important for operational efficiency.
What sources does the FMC receive fuel data from?
Fuel quantity system or manual entries.
Fuel values are displayed as CALC, MANUAL, or SENSED on the PERF INIT page.
What happens to the calculated fuel value before engine start?
It is set to agree with the fuel quantity indicating system value.
This ensures accurate performance computations.
What does the FMC use for performance computations?
The calculated value.
This value typically reflects the most accurate fuel data available.
What does the FMC use for performance computations before engine start?
The calculated value set to agree with the fuel quantity indicating system value
The calculated value is crucial for accurate performance predictions.
What happens to the calculated fuel value when the engine starts?
It becomes independent of the fuel quantity system and decreases at the fuel flow rate
This ensures real-time accuracy during engine operation.
What occurs if a manual fuel quantity is entered on the PERF INIT page before engine start?
The manual entry is deleted and replaced with the TOTALIZER value when the engines start
This prevents discrepancies between manual and actual fuel quantities.
How does the APU affect the calculated fuel value?
The APU fuel burn schedule is used to decrease the calculated fuel value when the APU is running
This scheduling is important for accurate fuel management.
What happens to the calculated value during fuel jettison?
It is set equal to the fuel quantity system value
After jettisoning, it remains independent of the fuel quantity indicating system.
What is displayed on the PERF INIT page when a fuel quantity is input by the flight crew?
The line title changes to MANUAL
This indicates that the manual value is now being used instead of the calculated value.
What does the FMC use if fuel flow data is invalid?
The fuel quantity indicating system quantity for performance computations
This ensures some level of performance calculation even with invalid data.
How is fuel used by each engine calculated?
With its related fuel flow signal
This allows for accurate monitoring of fuel consumption per engine.
What happens if the fuel flow signal is invalid while on the ground?
The display blanks if invalid for greater than two minutes after airborne
This is a safety feature to prevent misleading fuel data.
What EICAS advisory message is displayed if actual fuel flow exceeds predicted fuel flow significantly?
FUEL FLOW ENG L/R
This alerts the crew to a potential engine fuel leak.
What triggers the FUEL DISAGREE message on EICAS?
A large difference between the fuel quantity indicating system quantity and calculated value
This indicates possible discrepancies in fuel readings.
When does the EICAS advisory message INSUFFICIENT FUEL display?
If the estimate is less than the fuel reserve value or 4000 lbs if no reserve value is entered
This is critical for flight safety and planning.
What do FMC calculated fuel predictions assume?
A clean configuration and do not include APU burn
This is important for accurate fuel management during flight.
What happens when the actual fuel temperature reaches the minimum value displayed on the PERF INIT page?
The EICAS advisory message FUEL TEMP LOW displays
This alerts the crew to potentially dangerous fuel conditions.
What is required for the FMC to operate continuously?
Continuous electrical power
If electrical power is interrupted, the FMC restarts upon power return.
What must be re-entered on the PERF INIT page after an FMC restart?
Performance data
The route previously in use is available but must be reactivated.
How can the flight crew activate LNAV after a power interruption?
Modify the active waypoint
Selecting the applicable active waypoint and proceeding direct or intercepting a course allows LNAV activation.
What happens during a single FMC failure?
Spare FMC becomes active
The transition occurs automatically and is not apparent to the crew.
What remains active during a single FMC failure?
LNAV and VNAV
All flight plan and performance data is retained.
What is displayed when two FMCs fail in flight?
EICAS advisory message SINGLE FMC
The third FMC takes over in a single FMC configuration.
What must the flight crew do if two FMCs fail?
Reactivate and execute the flight plan, reselect LNAV and VNAV
All data is retained and NDs continue to operate.
What is the purpose of a software reset in single FMC operation?
Prevent permanent loss of the FMC
This occurs when the FMC encounters an insoluble computation.
What symptoms might indicate a software reset occurred?
Active route becomes inactive, performance data erased, LNAV and VNAV disengaged
Appropriate CDU help window message accompanies resets.
What happens during a triple FMC failure?
Loss of all FMCs and EICAS advisory message FMC displayed
Accompanied by loss of PFD mini-map displays, ND map displays, and CDU pages.
What capability do TCPs provide during a triple FMC failure?
Enter a single Latitude/Longitude waypoint
TCPs provide track, distance to go, and groundspeed for the entered waypoint.
What should still be available during a triple FMC failure?
Autothrottles
They may be used in conjunction with any valid autopilot roll and/or pitch mode.
Fill in the blank: The _______ must have continuous electrical power to operate.
FMC
True or False: The backup FMC takes over when the master FMC fails.
False
The spare FMC automatically becomes active in case of a master FMC failure.
What device is primarily used for inputting downlink message forms in Air Traffic Control datalink functions?
Multifunction keypad
The multifunction keypad allows crew members to interact with downlink messages effectively.
How are arriving ATC uplink messages indicated to the crew?
By the appearance of the communications alert message ‘dot ATC’ on the EICAS display, ATC uplink information on the ATC data block, and a Hi-Lo alerting chime
This alerting mechanism ensures that the crew is promptly notified of incoming messages.
What types of clearance information may be uplinked from ATC?
Clearances such as headings, altitudes, speeds, and route clearance data
These clearances are crucial for maintaining safe and efficient flight operations.
What options are displayed in the ATC data block message for the crew to respond to a clearance?
ACCEPT and REJECT
The crew must decide to accept or reject the clearance based on the information provided.
What buttons can be used to complete the action of accepting or rejecting a clearance?
ACCEPT or REJECT switches on the glare shield or soft keys on the COMM display
These controls provide flexibility for the crew in managing incoming clearances.
What happens when a clearance can be loaded into the FMC?
LOAD FMC buttons appear on both the COMM display and the CDU help window
This indicates that the clearance can be integrated into the flight management system.
What is the benefit of loading the FMC first before accepting a clearance?
It provides the opportunity to view the clearance on the ND map display as a flight plan modification prior to acceptance
This allows for better situational awareness before finalizing decisions.
What message is displayed in the CDU help window during the loading of a clearance into the FMC?
ROUTE X UPLINK LOADING
This message informs the crew that the clearance is being processed.
What happens if an FMC modification is pending when a new ATC modification is received?
The new ATC modification cannot be loaded into the FMC, and the LOAD FMC prompts display in Cyan
This indicates that the crew cannot select the option until all current modifications are cleared.
What color indicates that the LOAD FMC prompt can be selected once the FMC is clear of all modifications?
Shaded white
This visual cue helps the crew understand the status of the FMC loading process.
What does FMC stand for in aviation?
Flight Management Computer
The FMC is a critical component for flight management and navigation.
What is a downlink in the context of the airplane communications system?
Data transferred from the FMC to a ground receiver
Downlinking can occur manually or automatically.
What is an uplink in aviation communications?
Data transmitted from a ground station to the FMC
Uplinks can be initiated by airline operations or in response to downlink requests.
What is the purpose of the airplane communications system?
Enables two-way datalink communications between the FMC and airline operations
This system is vital for operational efficiency and flight tracking.
What does CDU stand for?
Control Display Unit
The CDU is used for inputting and displaying information in the FMC.
What is the role of the 787 Common Computing Resource?
Supports various flight management functions
It integrates multiple systems for efficient operation.
What does CMF stand for in the context of aircraft communication?
Comm Management Function
CMF manages communication between the aircraft and ground stations.
What is the function of the FDCF?
Flight Deck Comm Function
It facilitates communication within the flight deck.
What types of data receivers are mentioned?
VHF, HF, SATCOM
Each type serves different communication needs based on range and technology.
Fill in the blank: A _______ occurs when data is transferred from the FMC to a ground receiver.
downlink
True or False: Data may be uplinked at the discretion of the airline operations dispatcher.
True
What does EICAS stand for?
Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System
EICAS provides critical information to the flight crew regarding engine performance and alerts.
What are downlinks in the context of datalink communications?
Datalink messages transmitted to a ground station
Downlinks include requests for data and reports of FMC data, made manually or automatically.
What are uplinks in the context of datalink communications?
Messages transmitted to the airplane
Most uplinks require manual selections by the flight crew, while some may be input automatically.
How does a flight crew initiate a manual downlink request?
Select a REQUEST prompt
REQUEST prompts may be displayed on various pages such as PERF INIT, TAKEOFF REF, DESCENT FORECAST, and others.
What happens when the communications function cannot prepare FMC downlinks?
Words FAIL, NO COMM, or VOICE display on the CDU pages
These messages indicate issues with data communications management or radio availability.
What does the status message ‘FAIL’ indicate?
The data communications management function is inoperative or the data radios have failed
This status prevents the preparation of FMC downlinks.
What does the status message ‘NO COMM’ indicate?
The data radios are operational but not available
This status means that while radios are functioning, they are not able to communicate.
What does the status message ‘VOICE’ indicate?
All available radios are operating in the VOICE mode
This status signifies that the radios are not available for datalink operations.
What is the purpose of the REPORT prompt in datalink communications?
To downlink a report applicable to that page
Reports can be generated from various pages, including ROUTE and POS REPORT.
Fill in the blank: Uplinks mostly require _______ selections by the flight crew.
manual
True or False: Downlink reports can only be made automatically.
False
Downlink reports can be made manually or automatically.
What pages may display REQUEST prompts for downlink requests?
- PERF INIT
- TAKEOFF REF 1/2
- DESCENT FORECAST
- RTE
- ALTN
- ALTN LIST
- RTE DATA
What must a flight crew do to downlink a position report?
Select the REPORT prompt on the POS REPORT page
What can the FMC be configured to do automatically during a flight?
Transmit downlinks of FMC data at predetermined points or in response to specific data requests
This process requires no action from the flight crew.
What is the difference between uplinked data that is loaded automatically and pending uplinked data?
Automatically loaded data does not require execution; pending uplinked data waits for flight crew action
Pending uplinked data can be accepted or rejected by the crew.
What prompts are used by the flight crew to respond to pending uplinked data?
ACCEPT/REJECT or LOAD/PURGE prompts, FMC modification ERASE prompt or EXEC key
Flight crew must select the applicable prompt to include or discard the uplink.
What pages can data be uplinked to from the airline dispatcher?
- PERF INIT
- TAKEOFF REF 1/2 and 2/2
- DESCENT FORECAST
- RTE
- ALTN
- ALTN LIST
- WIND pages
These uplinks are annunciated to the crew by FMC EICAS communications alert.
How does the flight crew receive alerts for uplinked data?
Through the FMC EICAS communications alert and a hi-lo chime
The uplink is identified by a CDU help window message.
What happens to wind uplinks if there is no active route?
They are not annunciated and the <WIND prompt on the COMM page is not shown
This indicates that certain uplinks are route-dependent.
What is the purpose of the REQUEST prompt on each page?
To downlink a unique request applicable to that page
This allows for specific data requests to be sent.
True or False: Flight crew action is always required for uplinked data.
False
Some uplinked data loads automatically without crew action.
What displays on the PERF INIT, TAKEOFF 1/2 and ALTN 1/2 pages after receipt of uplink data?
ACCEPT and REJECT
These prompts indicate the status of the uplinked data.
What happens when the ACCEPT prompt is selected?
Displays uplinked data in large font, replaces previous data, changes page to pre uplink format, clears CDU help window message, transmits downlink accept message (if enabled)
This process confirms the acceptance of new data.
What does the REJECT prompt do?
Replaces uplinked data with previous data, changes page to pre uplink format, clears CDU help window message, transmits downlink reject message (if enabled)
This action negates the new data received.
How is uplink data initially displayed?
In small font for preview
This allows the crew to quickly review the data before accepting or rejecting it.
What is the function of the FMC Datalink Uplinks?
To manage the acceptance or rejection of uplinked data
This functionality is critical for maintaining accurate flight management.
What does FMC stand for in the context of the B787?
Flight Management Computer
The Flight Management Computer is a critical system in modern aircraft that automates the tasks of navigation and flight planning.
Which page displays general datalink status on the FMC?
FMC COMM page
The FMC COMM page provides access to datalink data and displays the status of communication.
What information can be accessed via the FMC COMM page?
Datalink data
The page includes page select prompts for various MC pages to access specific datalink information.
Fill in the blank: The FMC COMM page displays _______ status.
General datalink
This status indicates the current operation and readiness of the datalink system.
What are the components listed under the FMC COMM page?
- UPLINK
- RTE 1
- ALTN
- PERF
- TAKEOFF
- WIND
- DES FORECAST
- POS REPORT
- CLB FORECAST
These components represent different types of data and operational statuses relevant to flight management.
True or False: The FMC COMM page does not allow access to datalink data.
False
The FMC COMM page is specifically designed to provide access to various datalink data.
What does FMC stand for in the context of the B787?
Flight Management Computer
The Flight Management Computer is a critical system in modern aircraft that automates the tasks of navigation and flight planning.
Which page displays general datalink status on the FMC?
FMC COMM page
The FMC COMM page provides access to datalink data and displays the status of communication.
What information can be accessed via the FMC COMM page?
Datalink data
The page includes page select prompts for various MC pages to access specific datalink information.
Fill in the blank: The FMC COMM page displays _______ status.
General datalink
This status indicates the current operation and readiness of the datalink system.
What are the components listed under the FMC COMM page?
- UPLINK
- RTE 1
- ALTN
- PERF
- TAKEOFF
- WIND
- DES FORECAST
- POS REPORT
- CLB FORECAST
These components represent different types of data and operational statuses relevant to flight management.
True or False: The FMC COMM page does not allow access to datalink data.
False
The FMC COMM page is specifically designed to provide access to various datalink data.
What does ADS-B stand for?
Automatic Dependent Surveillance - Broadcast
ADS-B is a surveillance technology for tracking aircraft.
What is the primary function of ADS-B?
To provide surveillance for air traffic control similar to conventional radar
It uses satellite-based position data from each airplane.
What are the two parts of the ADS-B system?
ADS-B Out and ADS-B In
Each part serves a different function in the surveillance system.
What is the role of ADS-B Out?
To broadcast the aircraft’s position data to ATC
This part is essential for air traffic management.
What is the role of ADS-B In?
To receive information from other aircraft and ATC
This enhances situational awareness for pilots.
How does ADS-B improve situational awareness?
By incorporating flight level management into navigation displays and INFO pages
This allows pilots to access critical flight information more effectively.
True or False: ADS-B is designed to completely replace radar.
False
ADS-B is designed to supplement and eventually replace radar as the primary means of tracking.
Fill in the blank: ADS-B is used by ATC for _______.
surveillance
This is similar to the use of conventional radar.
What does ADS-B stand for?
Automatic Dependent Surveillance - Broadcast
ADS-B is a surveillance technology for tracking aircraft.
What is the primary function of ADS-B?
To provide surveillance for air traffic control similar to conventional radar
It uses satellite-based position data from each airplane.
What are the two parts of the ADS-B system?
ADS-B Out and ADS-B In
Each part serves a different function in the surveillance system.
What is the role of ADS-B Out?
To broadcast the aircraft’s position data to ATC
This part is essential for air traffic management.
What is the role of ADS-B In?
To receive information from other aircraft and ATC
This enhances situational awareness for pilots.
How does ADS-B improve situational awareness?
By incorporating flight level management into navigation displays and INFO pages
This allows pilots to access critical flight information more effectively.
True or False: ADS-B is designed to completely replace radar.
False
ADS-B is designed to supplement and eventually replace radar as the primary means of tracking.
Fill in the blank: ADS-B is used by ATC for _______.
surveillance
This is similar to the use of conventional radar.
What is ADS-B (Out)?
A broadcast system similar to a Mode S transponder that transmits improved airplane information
Includes location, heading, speed, airplane type, flight ID, and altitude
How does ATC receive ADS-B (Out) information?
Through a network of ground-based receiving stations
What type of information does an airplane broadcast under ADS-B (Out)?
Its own position without information on other airplanes or devices receiving it
Is ADS-B (Out) automatic or manual?
Automatic, as no flight crew or controller action is required for transmission
What does ‘dependent surveillance’ mean in the context of ADS-B (Out)?
Surveillance information depends on the navigation and broadcast capability of the airplane
What is ADS-B (In)?
A term referring to systems that receive and show ADS-B (Out) surrounding traffic data to the flight crew
What information is displayed on the flight deck from ADS-B (In)?
Ground track, speed, and location information of nearby airplanes
What is the term ‘ownship’ in ADS-B terminology?
The airplane the flight crew is currently flying
Where do operational and system status messages from ADS-B (In) show?
On the ND, MiniMap, and INFO displays
What does the Traffic List function in ADS-B (In) allow the flight crew to do?
Sort airplanes with Mode S or ADS-B transponders within broadcasting range
What kind of traffic can be selected from the Traffic List?
Airplanes meeting ADS-B data accuracy criteria
What happens to unqualified traffic and non-ADS-B airplanes in the Traffic List?
They are not selectable
Is the Traffic List available on the ground?
No
What does the In Trail Procedure (ITP) function use to compute separation?
ADS-B data to compute separation from airplanes on adjacent flight levels
What does the ITP function allow pilots to request?
Cruise flight level changes with greater situational awareness and reduced ATC workload
Who sets the separation criteria for the ITP function?
Each airline
Are ADS-B (In) applications required for operation in controlled airspace?
No, they are used for pilot situational awareness only
What is ADS-B (Out)?
A broadcast system similar to a Mode S transponder that transmits improved airplane information
Includes location, heading, speed, airplane type, flight ID, and altitude
How does ATC receive ADS-B (Out) information?
Through a network of ground-based receiving stations
What type of information does an airplane broadcast under ADS-B (Out)?
Its own position without information on other airplanes or devices receiving it
Is ADS-B (Out) automatic or manual?
Automatic, as no flight crew or controller action is required for transmission
What does ‘dependent surveillance’ mean in the context of ADS-B (Out)?
Surveillance information depends on the navigation and broadcast capability of the airplane
What is ADS-B (In)?
A term referring to systems that receive and show ADS-B (Out) surrounding traffic data to the flight crew
What information is displayed on the flight deck from ADS-B (In)?
Ground track, speed, and location information of nearby airplanes
What is the term ‘ownship’ in ADS-B terminology?
The airplane the flight crew is currently flying
Where do operational and system status messages from ADS-B (In) show?
On the ND, MiniMap, and INFO displays
What does the Traffic List function in ADS-B (In) allow the flight crew to do?
Sort airplanes with Mode S or ADS-B transponders within broadcasting range
What kind of traffic can be selected from the Traffic List?
Airplanes meeting ADS-B data accuracy criteria
What happens to unqualified traffic and non-ADS-B airplanes in the Traffic List?
They are not selectable
Is the Traffic List available on the ground?
No
What does the In Trail Procedure (ITP) function use to compute separation?
ADS-B data to compute separation from airplanes on adjacent flight levels
What does the ITP function allow pilots to request?
Cruise flight level changes with greater situational awareness and reduced ATC workload
Who sets the separation criteria for the ITP function?
Each airline
Are ADS-B (In) applications required for operation in controlled airspace?
No, they are used for pilot situational awareness only
What does ADS-B stand for?
Automatic Dependent Surveillance–Broadcast
What is the role of the Integrated Surveillance System (ISS)?
To process raw traffic data from ADS-B (In) and TCAS receivers.
List the five hosted applications of the ISS.
- Visual Separation on Approach (VSA)
- Surface Traffic (SURF)
- Airborne (AIRB)
- Traffic List
- In Trail Procedure (ITP)
What data do ADS-B (In) and TCAS receivers provide to the ISS?
Raw traffic data
What type of information is displayed on the Cockpit Display of Traffic Information (CDTI)?
Processed traffic information from ADS-B and TCAS.
True or False: The ISS uses only ownship data to filter and sort processed data.
False
Fill in the blank: The ISS combines raw traffic data with _______ to feed its applications.
[ownship information]
What is the purpose of traffic filtering and sorting in the ISS?
To present relevant traffic information to flight crew.
What does VSA stand for in the context of flight management?
Visual Separation on Approach
VSA assists flight crews in acquiring and maintaining visual contact and separation.
What is the purpose of the CDTI?
To assist the flight crew in visually acquiring and maintaining contact with other airplanes during approach
The CDTI allows tracking of selected airplanes from a Traffic List.
What does the SURF application control?
Filtering and display of ADS-B traffic near the origin or destination airport
It increases accuracy and threshold requirements for ownship and surrounding traffic.
What happens to traffic that does not meet ADS-B data accuracy and integrity thresholds?
It can change from an ADS-B (In) symbol to a TCAS symbol
This ensures accurate representation of traffic on the airport map relative to runway features.
What does AIRB display?
ADS-B traffic on CDTI to assist in visually acquiring enroute traffic
AIRB shows unique symbols and information based on ADS-B data received.
What factors determine how ADS-B data is displayed?
Accuracy and integrity criteria, traffic selection state, and ownship proximity
Different applications have varying criteria for displaying traffic.
What is the maximum number of airplanes the traffic processor can display?
30 airplanes
If there are more than 30, priority traffic is shown.
What does the TFC switch state selection affect?
The information shown on the ND and mini-map
States include OFF, TFC FLTR, and TFC ALL.
What does the TFC-ALL state display?
ADS-B (In) symbols and flight IDs for all surrounding traffic transmitting ADS-B (Out) data
This state provides comprehensive traffic information.
Fill in the blank: The _______ application shows ADS-B traffic to assist in visual acquisition.
AIRB
True or False: The mini-map shows flight ID and ground speed in the OFF state.
False
No ADS-B traffic is displayed in the OFF state.
What are the possible ND airplane indications?
- Selected and ITP reference traffic only
- ID (Flight ID and ADS-B (In) symbol)
- No Data (only ADS-B (In) symbol with altitude and climb/descend arrow)
These indications vary based on the TFC state selection.
What does VSA stand for in the context of flight management?
Visual Separation on Approach
VSA assists flight crews in acquiring and maintaining visual contact and separation.
What is the purpose of the CDTI?
To assist the flight crew in visually acquiring and maintaining contact with other airplanes during approach
The CDTI allows tracking of selected airplanes from a Traffic List.
What does the SURF application control?
Filtering and display of ADS-B traffic near the origin or destination airport
It increases accuracy and threshold requirements for ownship and surrounding traffic.
What happens to traffic that does not meet ADS-B data accuracy and integrity thresholds?
It can change from an ADS-B (In) symbol to a TCAS symbol
This ensures accurate representation of traffic on the airport map relative to runway features.
What does AIRB display?
ADS-B traffic on CDTI to assist in visually acquiring enroute traffic
AIRB shows unique symbols and information based on ADS-B data received.
What factors determine how ADS-B data is displayed?
Accuracy and integrity criteria, traffic selection state, and ownship proximity
Different applications have varying criteria for displaying traffic.
What is the maximum number of airplanes the traffic processor can display?
30 airplanes
If there are more than 30, priority traffic is shown.
What does the TFC switch state selection affect?
The information shown on the ND and mini-map
States include OFF, TFC FLTR, and TFC ALL.
What does the TFC-ALL state display?
ADS-B (In) symbols and flight IDs for all surrounding traffic transmitting ADS-B (Out) data
This state provides comprehensive traffic information.
Fill in the blank: The _______ application shows ADS-B traffic to assist in visual acquisition.
AIRB
True or False: The mini-map shows flight ID and ground speed in the OFF state.
False
No ADS-B traffic is displayed in the OFF state.
What are the possible ND airplane indications?
- Selected and ITP reference traffic only
- ID (Flight ID and ADS-B (In) symbol)
- No Data (only ADS-B (In) symbol with altitude and climb/descend arrow)
These indications vary based on the TFC state selection.
What does the Traffic List display to the flight crew?
A list of airplanes within ADS-B (In) receiving range, including flight ID, distance, category, ground speed, and range ring size
The list can show data for up to 127 airplanes and is synchronized on two MFDs.
How many airplanes can the Traffic List display at maximum?
Up to 127 airplanes
The Traffic List is not available on the ground.
What feature allows the Traffic List to be sorted?
By distance from ownship or alphanumerically by flight ID
The flight crew can select traffic meeting VSA requirements.
True or False: The Traffic List can be viewed while on the ground.
False
The Traffic List is not available on the ground.
Fill in the blank: The Traffic List shows the _____ of the airplanes within ADS-B (In) receiving range.
flight ID, distance, category, ground speed, and range ring size
What is the purpose of the ADS-B Traffic List?
To provide the flight crew with information on nearby airplanes for situational awareness
This enhances safety during flight operations.
What does VSA stand for in the context of the Traffic List?
Visual Separation Assurance
What are the categories of aircraft displayed in the Traffic List?
HVY, LRG, HPRF, BALN, LGT, SML, GND
These categories represent different sizes and types of aircraft.
What is the significance of the range ring size in the Traffic List?
It indicates the distance from ownship to the displayed traffic
Range rings can be selected to aid in visualizing traffic proximity.
What type of data is synchronized on both MFDs when displaying the Traffic List?
Traffic data and selections
This ensures all flight crew members have the same information.
What does the Traffic List display to the flight crew?
A list of airplanes within ADS-B (In) receiving range, including flight ID, distance, category, ground speed, and range ring size
The list can show data for up to 127 airplanes and is synchronized on two MFDs.
How many airplanes can the Traffic List display at maximum?
Up to 127 airplanes
The Traffic List is not available on the ground.
What feature allows the Traffic List to be sorted?
By distance from ownship or alphanumerically by flight ID
The flight crew can select traffic meeting VSA requirements.
True or False: The Traffic List can be viewed while on the ground.
False
The Traffic List is not available on the ground.
Fill in the blank: The Traffic List shows the _____ of the airplanes within ADS-B (In) receiving range.
flight ID, distance, category, ground speed, and range ring size
What is the purpose of the ADS-B Traffic List?
To provide the flight crew with information on nearby airplanes for situational awareness
This enhances safety during flight operations.
What does VSA stand for in the context of the Traffic List?
Visual Separation Assurance
What are the categories of aircraft displayed in the Traffic List?
HVY, LRG, HPRF, BALN, LGT, SML, GND
These categories represent different sizes and types of aircraft.
What is the significance of the range ring size in the Traffic List?
It indicates the distance from ownship to the displayed traffic
Range rings can be selected to aid in visualizing traffic proximity.
What type of data is synchronized on both MFDs when displaying the Traffic List?
Traffic data and selections
This ensures all flight crew members have the same information.
What is the purpose of the B787 FCOM?
Systems Description
FCOM stands for Flight Crew Operating Manual, which provides essential information on the aircraft systems.
What does the Traffic Sort Criteria Key allow?
Sorting traffic by:
* Alphanumerically by flight (ID) number
* Distance from ownship
This sorting helps pilots prioritize and manage traffic information effectively.
What is the function of the Selected Traffic Box?
Displays selected target traffic with:
* Green check + text
* Traffic highlighted (green) with groundspeed value
Only traffic transmitting VSA qualified ADS-B data can be selected.
What does the Qualified Traffic Box indicate?
Selectable traffic that:
* Transmits VSA qualified ADS-B data
* Replaces current selected traffic if chosen
Only one airplane can be selected at a time.
What type of traffic does the Unqualified Traffic Box represent?
Unselectable traffic that does not meet VSA data criteria
This indicates that the traffic cannot be interacted with due to insufficient data.
What is meant by ‘Traffic Flight (Identification) Number’?
ATC designated call sign
This is used for identifying aircraft in communication with Air Traffic Control.
What does ‘Traffic Distance’ refer to?
Lateral distance in nautical miles to traffic from ownship
This measurement is critical for situational awareness and collision avoidance.
Fill in the blank: Selected traffic always remains at the _____ of each page of the list.
top
What is the In Trail Procedure (ITP) application used for?
The ITP application is used to make a list of nearby traffic and allows the flight crew to select a desired altitude and create an ATC request to climb or descend to that altitude.
What altitude range does the ITP application operate within?
From FL240 up to the airplane service ceiling.
What data does the ITP application utilize to function?
ADS-B data.
How many airplanes can be designated as ITP reference airplanes?
Up to two airplanes.
What criteria must ITP reference airplanes meet?
- Within two flight levels of ownship
- Ahead or behind and within 45° of ownship track
- ITP distance at least 15 NM with a ground speed closure differential of 20 knots or less
- ITP distance at least 20 NM with a ground speed closure differential of 30 knots or less
What happens if the desired flight level is available but there are airplanes between the current and desired flight levels?
The application determines if these airplanes can be used as ITP reference airplanes.
What is displayed to the crew regarding flight levels in the ITP application?
Available flight levels, ITP reference airplanes, and flight level availability times.
What is the maximum angular deviation for reference airplanes relative to ownship track?
Within 45° of ownship track.
What is the significance of the initial ITP view?
It centers nearby traffic on the current ownship flight level.
What occurs when the flight crew selects a destination altitude in the ITP application?
An ITP level request (COMM) page is automatically created.
True or False: An ITP request may include just one reference airplane.
True.
Fill in the blank: The ITP application uses _______ to calculate when ownship and the ITP reference airplane paths intersect.
ADS-B data.
What can block flight levels in the ITP application?
Traffic preventing the climb or descent.
What is the minimum ITP distance for a closure differential of 20 knots or less?
At least 15 NM.
What is the minimum ITP distance for a closure differential of 30 knots or less?
At least 20 NM.
What types of reference airplanes can be used for climbs and descents?
Both ahead, both behind, or one ahead and one behind.
What data does the ADS-B (In) system provide to the Navigation Display (ND) and MiniMap?
Additional traffic details from surrounding airplanes
A maximum of 30 ADS-B and TCAS targets can be displayed.
How are surrounding airplanes that do not send ADS-B data represented on the ND?
As TCAS targets
ADS-B (In) symbols are integrated with TCAS for better identification.
What additional information is displayed on the Navigation Display for ADS-B traffic?
New traffic flight ID symbols and ground speed
Flight ID and ground speed are not shown on the MiniMap to reduce clutter.
How can ADS-B traffic be selected on the Navigation Display?
With the cursor on the ND or from the Traffic List using the PICK TFC function
A maximum of one target can be selected at a time.
What shows around selected traffic on the Navigation Display?
A dashed range ring
The radius can be entered on the Traffic List.
What is the purpose of completing the FMC preflight?
To optimize FMC accuracy
Data entry is required in all minimum data locations.
What data does the FMC provide to the Electronic Flight Bag (EFB)?
Zero Fuel Weight, Origin airport, and takeoff runway
This data is used to compute optimal V-speeds.
What prompts are displayed on the TAKEOFF REF 1/2 page for V-speeds?
REJECT and ACCEPT prompts
These are displayed at LSK SL and SR.
What happens when the flight crew selects the ACCEPT prompt on the TAKEOFF REF 1/2 page?
The V-speeds are displayed in large font on the CDU pages and on the PFD speed tape
V1, VR, and V2 are the takeoff V-speeds.
What is one alternative to using the EFB to provide V-speeds?
Manually entering the desired V-speeds
The crew can also receive V-speeds via datalink from the Airline Company.
True or False: The FMC preflight does not require data entry in all minimum required data locations.
False
Data entry is essential for FMC accuracy.
What data does the ADS-B (In) system provide to the Navigation Display (ND) and MiniMap?
Additional traffic details from surrounding airplanes
A maximum of 30 ADS-B and TCAS targets can be displayed.
How are surrounding airplanes that do not send ADS-B data represented on the ND?
As TCAS targets
ADS-B (In) symbols are integrated with TCAS for better identification.
What additional information is displayed on the Navigation Display for ADS-B traffic?
New traffic flight ID symbols and ground speed
Flight ID and ground speed are not shown on the MiniMap to reduce clutter.
How can ADS-B traffic be selected on the Navigation Display?
With the cursor on the ND or from the Traffic List using the PICK TFC function
A maximum of one target can be selected at a time.
What shows around selected traffic on the Navigation Display?
A dashed range ring
The radius can be entered on the Traffic List.
What is the purpose of completing the FMC preflight?
To optimize FMC accuracy
Data entry is required in all minimum data locations.
What data does the FMC provide to the Electronic Flight Bag (EFB)?
Zero Fuel Weight, Origin airport, and takeoff runway
This data is used to compute optimal V-speeds.
What prompts are displayed on the TAKEOFF REF 1/2 page for V-speeds?
REJECT and ACCEPT prompts
These are displayed at LSK SL and SR.
What happens when the flight crew selects the ACCEPT prompt on the TAKEOFF REF 1/2 page?
The V-speeds are displayed in large font on the CDU pages and on the PFD speed tape
V1, VR, and V2 are the takeoff V-speeds.
What is one alternative to using the EFB to provide V-speeds?
Manually entering the desired V-speeds
The crew can also receive V-speeds via datalink from the Airline Company.
True or False: The FMC preflight does not require data entry in all minimum required data locations.
False
Data entry is essential for FMC accuracy.
What is the primary tool expected to provide V-speeds on the B787?
EFB
EFB stands for Electronic Flight Bag.
What is the first step in the preflight page sequence for the FMC?
Identification (IDENT) page
This page is displayed when power is applied to the FMC.
What is one of the options for entering V-speeds and takeoff data on the B787?
Manually enter the desired V-speeds
The crew can also have data uplinked by datalink.
Fill in the blank: The _______ page follows the identification page in the preflight flow.
Position initialization (POS INIT) page
True or False: The EFB is the only method for entering V-speeds and takeoff data on the B787.
False
The crew can manually enter data or receive it via datalink.
What does using datalink for V-speeds reduce?
The number of required flight crew actions
Datalink allows for automatic data entry.
List the first three pages in the B787 preflight page sequence.
- Identification (IDENT) page
- Position initialization (POS INIT) page
- Route (RTE) page
What page is displayed after the route (RTE) page in the preflight sequence?
Departures page
This page does not have a prompt.
What is the purpose of the thrust limit (THRUST LIM) page in the preflight sequence?
To initialize thrust settings for takeoff
This page is part of the performance initialization.
Fill in the blank: The last page in the minimum preflight sequence is the _______.
Takeoff reference (TAKEOFF REF 1/2) page
What is the function of the EFB - Onboard Performance Tool page?
To assist in performance calculations for takeoff
This tool is integrated into the preflight process.
What is the function of the prompt in the lower right during preflight?
Directs the flight crew through the minimum requirements for preflight completion
Selecting the prompt key displays the next page in the flow.
What happens if a required entry is missed during preflight?
A prompt on the TAKEOFF page leads the flight crew to the preflight page missing data
This ensures that all necessary information is completed before takeoff.
Is the entry of inertial position mandatory for FMC preflight?
No, it is optional
The IRS has continuous access to GPS position.
What minimum route data must be entered for FMC preflight?
Origin and destination airports, and a route leg
This data is essential for proper flight planning.
What performance data is required for preflight?
Airplane weights, fuel reserves, cost index, and cruise altitude
This information is critical for flight safety and efficiency.
What specific data is required for takeoff?
Flap setting and center of gravity
This ensures the aircraft is configured correctly for takeoff.
What are supplementary pages in the FMC?
Pages that have no prompts and interrupt the usual sequence
They are sometimes required for additional data entry.
How can SIDs and STARs be entered into the route?
Using the DEPARTURES or ARRIVALS pages
This allows for proper routing in compliance with air traffic control.
Where are route discontinuities removed?
On the ROUTE and RTE LEGS pages
Modifying the route ensures a smooth flight path.
How are speed and altitude restrictions managed?
Entered and removed on the RTE LEGS page
This is crucial for maintaining safe flight profiles.
What information is added on the ALTN page?
Alternate airports
This is important for contingency planning.
What kind of data is referenced on the REF NAV DATA page?
Waypoints, navigation, airport, and runway data
This information is essential for navigation and approach procedures.
How can VNAV performance be improved during preflight?
By entering forecast winds and temperatures
This data is entered on the WIND page.
What does the initialization/reference index page allow?
Manual selection of FMC pages
It provides access to pages used during preflight and not usually used in flight.
What happens when INDEX is selected from any FMC page?
Returns to the INIT/REF INDEX page
This helps navigate back to the main reference for preflight.
What initiates the FMC takeoff phase?
Selection of takeoff/go around (TO/GA)
What is the first step in preparing for the takeoff phase?
Entry of the TAKEOFF REF page data
When does the takeoff phase transition to the climb phase?
When the FMC commands climb thrust
What phase starts after the top of climb point?
Cruise phase
Which page is used to make last minute changes to the departure runway?
TAKEOFF REF page
Which page is used to make last minute changes to the SID?
DEPARTURES page
What page is used to modify climb parameters and monitor airplane climb performance?
CLIMB page
What page is used to modify the route and monitor route progress?
RTE X LEGS page
What page is used to monitor the overall progress of the flight?
PROGRESS page
Which page allows the selection of alternate climb thrust limits?
THRUST LIM page
What page is used to select an approach during a turn-back?
DEP/ARR INDEX page
What must be modified to agree when changes are made to departure runway and SID?
TAKEOFF REF and DEPARTURES pages
What happens when the TO/GA switch is pushed with correct takeoff parameters?
The FMC commands the selected takeoff thrust
What is the target speed during the takeoff roll?
Between V2+15 and V2+25 knots
What activates LNAV when armed before takeoff?
At 50 feet radio altitude
What activates VNAV after takeoff?
At 400 feet above runway elevation
At what point does VNAV command acceleration to a speed during climb?
At acceleration height or below acceleration height
What speed does VNAV command for acceleration during climb?
5 knots below the flap placard speed
What does the FMC command at the climb thrust reduction point?
Reduction to the armed climb thrust
What speed does VNAV command after passing the transition altitude?
Economy climb speed
What takes priority during climb, waypoint speed constraints or transition speed?
Waypoint speed constraints, provided they are greater than transition speed
True or False: During the climb, VNAV does not comply with the LEGS page waypoint altitude and speed constraints.
False
Fill in the blank: The commanded climb speed is maintained until entering the _______.
[cruise phase]
What initiates the FMC takeoff phase?
Selection of takeoff/go around (TO/GA)
What is the first step in preparing for the takeoff phase?
Entry of the TAKEOFF REF page data
When does the takeoff phase transition to the climb phase?
When the FMC commands climb thrust
What phase starts after the top of climb point?
Cruise phase
Which page is used to make last minute changes to the departure runway?
TAKEOFF REF page
Which page is used to make last minute changes to the SID?
DEPARTURES page
What page is used to modify climb parameters and monitor airplane climb performance?
CLIMB page
What page is used to modify the route and monitor route progress?
RTE X LEGS page
What page is used to monitor the overall progress of the flight?
PROGRESS page
Which page allows the selection of alternate climb thrust limits?
THRUST LIM page
What page is used to select an approach during a turn-back?
DEP/ARR INDEX page
What must be modified to agree when changes are made to departure runway and SID?
TAKEOFF REF and DEPARTURES pages
What happens when the TO/GA switch is pushed with correct takeoff parameters?
The FMC commands the selected takeoff thrust
What is the target speed during the takeoff roll?
Between V2+15 and V2+25 knots
What activates LNAV when armed before takeoff?
At 50 feet radio altitude
What activates VNAV after takeoff?
At 400 feet above runway elevation
At what point does VNAV command acceleration to a speed during climb?
At acceleration height or below acceleration height
What speed does VNAV command for acceleration during climb?
5 knots below the flap placard speed
What does the FMC command at the climb thrust reduction point?
Reduction to the armed climb thrust
What speed does VNAV command after passing the transition altitude?
Economy climb speed
What takes priority during climb, waypoint speed constraints or transition speed?
Waypoint speed constraints, provided they are greater than transition speed
True or False: During the climb, VNAV does not comply with the LEGS page waypoint altitude and speed constraints.
False
Fill in the blank: The commanded climb speed is maintained until entering the _______.
[cruise phase]
What does VNAV comply with during the climb?
VNAV complies with the LEGS page waypoint altitude and speed constraints.
What is indicated by the magenta color during the climb?
The commanded speed.
What message is displayed if the climb speed profile violates a waypoint altitude constraint?
UNABLE NEXT ALTITUDE.
What must be manually selected if a steeper climb angle is required?
A different speed profile.
What happens when the altitude window is set to the required altitude?
The airplane levels at the set altitude.
What does VNAV SPD change to when an unplanned level-off is required?
VNAV ALT.
How can the climb be continued after leveling off?
By setting the altitude window to a higher altitude and pushing the altitude selector.
What happens if the altitude window is set above other altitude constraints?
Each altitude constraint can be deleted by each push of the altitude selector.
What can be deleted by selecting the CLB DIR > prompt on the CLB page?
All waypoint altitude climb constraints to the T/C.
What is the purpose of the climb page?
To evaluate, monitor, and modify the climb path.
Where does the data on the climb page come from?
From preflight entries made on the route and performance pages, and from the airline policy file.
What is the first of the three pages selected with the VNAV function key?
The climb page.
What happens to the climb page data when the FMC changes to cruise mode?
The climb page data is blanked.
What are the possible climb speed commands for the FMC?
- Economy
- Select
- Engine out
- RTA
What does the Cruise Altitude (CRZ ALT) display on the B787?
Displays cruise altitude entered on PERF INIT page
Valid entries are: XXX, XXXX, XXXXX, or FLXXX. Altitude displays in feet or flight level depending on transition altitude.
How can the cruise altitude be changed on the B787?
By two methods:
* Manually entered from the CDU
* Entered from the MCP
A modified cruise altitude displays in shaded white until executed. The MCP method changes altitude without modification or execution.
What is ECON SPD based on?
Cost index in CAS or Mach
Used by FMC at altitudes above all waypoint speed constraints, speed restrictions, and speed transition altitudes.
When does SEL SPD display on the B787?
Displays when intermediate level off required below an existing speed constraint or when flight crew enters speed
Valid entries are CAS or Mach.
What does RTA SPD indicate?
Displays when an RTA is active
The FMC commanded speed is magenta.
What is the color coding for speeds below and above the CAS/Mach transition altitude?
Below: CAS is magenta, Mach is white; Above: Mach is magenta, CAS is white
This indicates the active speed mode in relation to altitude.
What does the Speed Transition (SPD TRANS) line display?
Displays the transition speed/altitude from various sources
This is crucial for understanding speed changes during flight.
What does the Cruise Altitude (CRZ ALT) display on the B787?
Displays cruise altitude entered on PERF INIT page
Valid entries are: XXX, XXXX, XXXXX, or FLXXX. Altitude displays in feet or flight level depending on transition altitude.
How can the cruise altitude be changed on the B787?
By two methods:
* Manually entered from the CDU
* Entered from the MCP
A modified cruise altitude displays in shaded white until executed. The MCP method changes altitude without modification or execution.
What is ECON SPD based on?
Cost index in CAS or Mach
Used by FMC at altitudes above all waypoint speed constraints, speed restrictions, and speed transition altitudes.
When does SEL SPD display on the B787?
Displays when intermediate level off required below an existing speed constraint or when flight crew enters speed
Valid entries are CAS or Mach.
What does RTA SPD indicate?
Displays when an RTA is active
The FMC commanded speed is magenta.
What is the color coding for speeds below and above the CAS/Mach transition altitude?
Below: CAS is magenta, Mach is white; Above: Mach is magenta, CAS is white
This indicates the active speed mode in relation to altitude.
What does the Speed Transition (SPD TRANS) line display?
Displays the transition speed/altitude from various sources
This is crucial for understanding speed changes during flight.
What does the speed transition line display?
The transition speed/altitude from sources such as:
* Navigation database value for the origin airport
* Value specified from the airline policy page
* Greater of the transition speed associated with the origin airport or flaps up manoeuvre speed
Example: 250/10000
What color is the speed transition line when it is FMC command speed?
Magenta
Not displayed above transition
What can be done with the speed transition line?
It can be deleted
How are speed restrictions for altitudes less than cruise altitude entered?
Manually entered with dashes before entry by flight crew
Valid entry is a CAS and altitude (example 240/8000)
What happens to an entry for speed restriction before it is executed?
Shaded white until executed; magenta when it is FMC command speed
What does selecting ECON do?
Changes climb speed to ECON and must be executed
A prompt displays when the climb speed is not ECON
What types of climb are displayed in the page title?
Types of climb include:
* ECON - speed based on a cost index
* LIM SPD - speed based on airplane configuration limiting speed
* MCP SPD - MCP speed intervention selected
* EO - engine out mode selected
* XXXT - fixed CAS climb speed profile or when engine failure detected
XXX is flaps up manoeuvre speed
What does the speed transition line display?
The transition speed/altitude from sources such as:
* Navigation database value for the origin airport
* Value specified from the airline policy page
* Greater of the transition speed associated with the origin airport or flaps up manoeuvre speed
Example: 250/10000
What color is the speed transition line when it is FMC command speed?
Magenta
Not displayed above transition
What can be done with the speed transition line?
It can be deleted
How are speed restrictions for altitudes less than cruise altitude entered?
Manually entered with dashes before entry by flight crew
Valid entry is a CAS and altitude (example 240/8000)
What happens to an entry for speed restriction before it is executed?
Shaded white until executed; magenta when it is FMC command speed
What does selecting ECON do?
Changes climb speed to ECON and must be executed
A prompt displays when the climb speed is not ECON
What types of climb are displayed in the page title?
Types of climb include:
* ECON - speed based on a cost index
* LIM SPD - speed based on airplane configuration limiting speed
* MCP SPD - MCP speed intervention selected
* EO - engine out mode selected
* XXXT - fixed CAS climb speed profile or when engine failure detected
XXX is flaps up manoeuvre speed
What is the transition altitude (TRANS ALT)?
Transition altitude for origin airport contained in navigation database. FMC uses 18,000 feet if transition altitude is not available.
Manually change transition altitude here or on DESCENT FORECAST page. Valid entries are XXX, XXXX, XXXXX, or FLXXX.
What does the maximum angle (MAX ANGLE) display?
Displays maximum angle of climb speed.
Select - displays speed in the scratchpad for pilot selection to the speed line.
What happens when ‘Engine Out’ (ENG OUT) is selected below the speed transition or restriction altitude?
Displays MOD EO CLB page and deletes climb speed transition or restriction data.
Select (below engine-out maximum altitude) - displays MOD EO CLB page.
What does the ‘Engine Out’ (ENG OUT) selection do when above engine-out maximum altitude?
Displays MOD EO D/D or MOD EO LRC D/D page and lowers cruise altitude (IL) to engine-out maximum altitude if that altitude is less than the active cruise altitude.
Shaded white until the modification executed. Upon execution, thrust reference limit becomes CON in all cases above.
What does the Climb Direct (CLB DIR) function display?
Displays when climb altitude constraint exists between current altitude and FMC cruise altitude.
Select - deletes all waypoint altitude constraints between the airplane altitude and the MCP altitude or FMC cruise altitude, whichever is lower.
What does selecting ‘Climb’ (CLB) Forecast do?
Displays CLIMB FORECAST page.
This function helps in analyzing the expected climb performance.
Fill in the blank: The FMC uses _______ feet if transition altitude is not available.
18,000
What displays in large font on the FMC Takeoff and Climb page?
Waypoint speed or altitude constraints
FMC refers to Flight Management Computer, which manages flight plans and navigation.
What font size do FMC predictions display in?
Small font
This indicates that the predictions are secondary to the constraints.
During which flight phases is manual entry allowed for waypoint speed or altitude constraints?
Climb, cruise, or descent phase
Manual entry allows pilots to adjust constraints as necessary.
What color indicates an FMC commanded speed or altitude?
Magenta
Magenta highlights the commands that the FMC is controlling.
Valid entries for speed can be which two formats?
Airspeed or Mach (XXX/, 84/)
Here, ‘XXX’ represents an airspeed value and ‘84’ represents a Mach number.
What formats can altitude entries take?
Thousands of feet or flight level (19000, FL190)
Altitude can be entered in various forms, simplifying communication.
How should 9,000 feet be entered into the FMC?
090 or 9000
This allows for flexibility in input formats.
What does the suffix ‘A’ indicate in altitude constraints?
Cross at or above altitude
This allows pilots to specify crossing requirements clearly.
What does a blank suffix indicate in altitude constraints?
Cross at altitude
This is the default crossing instruction without any specific conditions.
How are altitude blocks entered in the FMC?
Lower altitude followed by ‘A’ and higher altitude followed by ‘B’
Example: 220A240B indicates crossing between 22,000 and 24,000 feet.
What do dashes display in the predicted descent region?
Dashes display prior to descent path calculation
This indicates that the descent has not yet been calculated.
What is required for descent path calculation?
An altitude constraint below cruise altitude
This ensures that the aircraft can descend safely.
What does the ACTIVATE function do in the B787 flight management system?
Activates inactive flight plan; displays RTE DATA prompt
This function is essential for initiating the flight plan for takeoff and climb phases.
What information does the RTE DATA display provide?
Displays route data page
This page contains specific details about the flight route, including waypoints and altitudes.
What does the MAP CTR STEP function change?
Changes centered waypoint on ND
ND stands for Navigation Display, which shows the aircraft’s position relative to the planned route.
When does the ACTIVATE prompt display?
When RTE and RTE LEGS flight plan is inactive
This indicates that the flight plan needs to be activated before proceeding.
What happens after the ACTIVATE prompt is selected?
RTE DATA displays
This allows the crew to review the route data immediately after activation.
What is replaced on the thrust limit page during flight?
Takeoff thrust limits with applicable thrust limits for climb
This ensures that the aircraft operates within safe thrust parameters during climb.
What thrust limits are available for selection on the thrust limit page?
- Fixed thrust derates for climb
- Go-around thrust limits
- Continuous thrust limits
- Cruise thrust limits
These options provide flexibility in managing aircraft performance during different phases of flight.
What does INIT/REF INDEX refer to in the B787?
Index used for initiating and referencing flight data
This index helps streamline the process of entering and retrieving flight-related information.
What does the ACTIVATE function do in the B787 flight management system?
Activates inactive flight plan; displays RTE DATA prompt
This function is essential for initiating the flight plan for takeoff and climb phases.
What information does the RTE DATA display provide?
Displays route data page
This page contains specific details about the flight route, including waypoints and altitudes.
What does the MAP CTR STEP function change?
Changes centered waypoint on ND
ND stands for Navigation Display, which shows the aircraft’s position relative to the planned route.
When does the ACTIVATE prompt display?
When RTE and RTE LEGS flight plan is inactive
This indicates that the flight plan needs to be activated before proceeding.
What happens after the ACTIVATE prompt is selected?
RTE DATA displays
This allows the crew to review the route data immediately after activation.
What is replaced on the thrust limit page during flight?
Takeoff thrust limits with applicable thrust limits for climb
This ensures that the aircraft operates within safe thrust parameters during climb.
What thrust limits are available for selection on the thrust limit page?
- Fixed thrust derates for climb
- Go-around thrust limits
- Continuous thrust limits
- Cruise thrust limits
These options provide flexibility in managing aircraft performance during different phases of flight.
What does INIT/REF INDEX refer to in the B787?
Index used for initiating and referencing flight data
This index helps streamline the process of entering and retrieving flight-related information.
What is the purpose of the Engine Out (EO) VNAV climb guidance?
To provide guidance during engine out climb phase
The EO VNAV climb guidance is available on the EO CLB page.
What must the flight crew do to utilize the EO CLB page?
Select and execute the EO CLB page
The EO CLB page provides engine out performance limitations.
When does the engine out climb phase change to the engine out cruise phase?
At the top of climb
What type of data is available on the EO CLB page?
Engine out performance limitations
Manual entries are allowed after execution.
What does VNAV provide after executing the EO CLB page?
EO guidance in the climb
Reference thrust limit changes to CON.
Fill in the blank: The EO CLB page must be __________ by the flight crew.
executed
True or False: The EO CLB page can only be executed with one engine operating.
False
Engine out data is available with both engines operating.
What happens to the thrust limit after executing the EO CLB page?
Changes to CON
What is displayed on the modified EO CLB page?
Engine out performance limitations
What is the transition altitude mentioned in the EO CLB page?
18000
What does the Cruise Altitude (CRZ ALT) display?
Displays cruise altitude if less than MAX ALT, displays MAX ALT if less than cruise altitude
Manual entry is allowed.
What is the Engine Out Speed (EO SPD)?
Displays engine out climb speed, valid entry is XXX for CAS and 0.XXX for Mach
Trailing zeros can be omitted, and a manual entry may cause MAX ALT to change.
What does Maximum Altitude (MAX ALT) display?
Displays lower of maximum altitude at engine out climb speed or cruise speed
Entry not allowed.
What does the ALL ENG selection modify?
Modifies page to display all engine (ALL ENG) performance data.
What is the Engine Out Departure configuration for all engines?
1 all 5G 60%.
What is the purpose of the DEP /ARR INDEX in the B787?
Used to access departure and arrival information.
What information is displayed on the EO CLB Page?
Engine Out Climb performance data.
Fill in the blank: Manual entry in the Cruise Altitude can modify _______.
MAX ALT.
True or False: The Maximum Altitude can be manually entered.
False.
What does the Cruise Altitude (CRZ ALT) display?
Displays cruise altitude if less than MAX ALT, displays MAX ALT if less than cruise altitude
Manual entry is allowed.
What is the Engine Out Speed (EO SPD)?
Displays engine out climb speed, valid entry is XXX for CAS and 0.XXX for Mach
Trailing zeros can be omitted, and a manual entry may cause MAX ALT to change.
What does Maximum Altitude (MAX ALT) display?
Displays lower of maximum altitude at engine out climb speed or cruise speed
Entry not allowed.
What does the ALL ENG selection modify?
Modifies page to display all engine (ALL ENG) performance data.
What is the Engine Out Departure configuration for all engines?
1 all 5G 60%.
What is the purpose of the DEP /ARR INDEX in the B787?
Used to access departure and arrival information.
What information is displayed on the EO CLB Page?
Engine Out Climb performance data.
Fill in the blank: Manual entry in the Cruise Altitude can modify _______.
MAX ALT.
True or False: The Maximum Altitude can be manually entered.
False.
What is an Engine Out Standard Instrument Departure (EO SID)?
Engine out SIDs can be created by the airline for specific runways
EO SIDs are designed to ensure safe departures in the event of an engine failure.
What conditions must be met for the FMC to modify the route to include an EO SID?
The conditions are:
* An engine failure is sensed
* Flaps extended
* The navigation database has an EO SID for the departure runway
These conditions ensure that the EO SID is relevant to the current flight situation.
What happens if no EO SID exists in the navigation database?
-NONE- is displayed
This indicates that there are no available engine out departures for the selected runway.
What is the purpose of the Arrivals Page during a turn-back situation?
To provide the flight crew quick access to arrivals data for the origin airport
This allows for efficient decision-making without changing the destination on the route page.
When should the DEP ARR function key be selected to show the ARRIVALS page?
During climb, less than 400 miles from the origin, and while nearer to the origin than the destination
This ensures that the crew has the necessary information to manage the flight effectively.
Fill in the blank: The modification of an EO SID can be _______ or erased.
executed
This flexibility allows the flight crew to adapt the flight plan as necessary.
True or False: The arrivals page can be accessed by changing the destination airport.
False
The arrivals page allows access without changing the destination, which is crucial in emergency situations.
What is an Engine Out Standard Instrument Departure (EO SID)?
Engine out SIDs can be created by the airline for specific runways
EO SIDs are designed to ensure safe departures in the event of an engine failure.
What conditions must be met for the FMC to modify the route to include an EO SID?
The conditions are:
* An engine failure is sensed
* Flaps extended
* The navigation database has an EO SID for the departure runway
These conditions ensure that the EO SID is relevant to the current flight situation.
What happens if no EO SID exists in the navigation database?
-NONE- is displayed
This indicates that there are no available engine out departures for the selected runway.
What is the purpose of the Arrivals Page during a turn-back situation?
To provide the flight crew quick access to arrivals data for the origin airport
This allows for efficient decision-making without changing the destination on the route page.
When should the DEP ARR function key be selected to show the ARRIVALS page?
During climb, less than 400 miles from the origin, and while nearer to the origin than the destination
This ensures that the crew has the necessary information to manage the flight effectively.
Fill in the blank: The modification of an EO SID can be _______ or erased.
executed
This flexibility allows the flight crew to adapt the flight plan as necessary.
True or False: The arrivals page can be accessed by changing the destination airport.
False
The arrivals page allows access without changing the destination, which is crucial in emergency situations.
What is the starting point of the cruise phase in a flight?
The top of climb
The cruise phase begins once the aircraft reaches its cruising altitude.
What are the primary FMC pages used during cruise?
- RTE X LEGS
- CRZ
- PROGRESS
These pages are essential for managing flight routes and progress during the cruise phase.
What is the purpose of the RTE LEGS pages?
To modify the route
The RTE LEGS pages allow pilots to adjust the flight path as needed.
What information do the CRZ pages display?
VNAV related data
VNAV stands for Vertical Navigation, which is crucial for managing altitude and descent profiles.
What type of data does the PROGRESS pages show?
Flight progress data
This data helps the flight crew monitor the current status of the flight.
What does the POS REF page verify?
The FMC position
This page is used to ensure the aircraft’s position is accurately represented in the FMC.
What information is displayed on the RTE DATA page?
Progress data for each waypoint
This page provides detailed information about the progress of the flight through each waypoint.
What is the function of the WINDS page?
To enter forecast wind and temperature
Accurate wind and temperature data are essential for performance calculations.
What kind of information can be found on the REF NAV DATA page?
- Data about waypoints
- Navaids
- Airports
- Runways
This page also allows the crew to inhibit navaids if necessary.
What is the purpose of the RTE X page?
To select a route offset
Route offsets can help avoid obstacles or manage air traffic.
What does the FIX INFO page display?
Data about waypoints
This page can also transfer data to create new waypoints and fixes.
What does the SELECT DESIRED WAYPOINT page show?
A list of duplicate waypoints from the navigation database
The flight crew must select the correct waypoint from this list.
What is the function of the POS REPORT page?
To display data for a position report
Position reports are important for maintaining situational awareness.
What happens to the CLB page at the top of climb?
It changes to CRZ
This indicates the transition from climb to cruise mode.
What modifications can be made to the route as described in LNAV Modifications?
- Add and delete waypoints
- Remove discontinuities
- Intercept a course
- Change waypoint’s sequence
These modifications allow for dynamic route adjustments during flight.
What is the significance of the RTE LEGS page modifications?
They allow the flight crew to make necessary route adjustments
Modifications ensure the flight remains on the optimal path.
What are the identifying features that assist the flight crew in modifying a RTE LEGS page?
- ERASE
- INTC CRS TO
- INTC CRS FROM
These features help the crew make necessary modifications to the route legs.
What happens to modified entries on the RTE LEGS page?
They display in shaded white.
This visual cue indicates that the entries have been altered.
How can waypoints be added to the route?
Waypoints can be added at any point, followed by route discontinuities.
The process involves entering the waypoint name in the scratchpad and selecting the appropriate line in the flight plan.
What is the first step in adding a waypoint to the RTE LEGS page?
Enter the waypoint name in the scratchpad.
This initiates the process of adding a waypoint to the flight plan.
What is the second step after entering a waypoint name in the scratchpad?
Locate the desired line in the flight plan and select the adjacent line select key.
This action inserts the waypoint into the selected line of the flight plan.
What does the FMC assume when a waypoint like OED is added?
The FMC assumes a direct route from the waypoint above it.
For example, if OED is added after BTG, the route is assumed to be BTG direct OED.
What follows a newly added waypoint in the RTE LEGS page?
A route discontinuity follows the waypoint.
This indicates that there is a break in the flight path that needs to be addressed.
Fill in the blank: Modified entries on the RTE LEGS page are displayed in _______.
shaded white.
This helps the flight crew visually identify changes made to the route.
True or False: Waypoints can only be added at the beginning of the route.
False.
Waypoints can be added at any point in the route.
What does MOD indicate in the context of waypoint modification?
MOD (shaded white) replaces ACT when modification in progress
ACT (white) replaces MOD when ERASE selected or execute key selected.
What color is the waypoint name when it is modified but not yet executed?
Shaded white
The waypoint name remains shaded white until executed.
What happens when a modified waypoint is entered into the route after a waypoint that is not part of the active route?
Creates a route discontinuity
The FMC requires routing beyond the modified waypoint.
How is a discontinuity removed from the route?
By entering an applicable waypoint in boxes
This action resolves the discontinuity.
What does the ERASE function do in the FMC?
Removes all modifications and shows active data
Displays when the FMC contains modified data.
What does the title ‘ROUTE DISCONTINUITY’ signify?
It separates route segments when there is a discontinuity
Performance predictions to the destination on the PROGRESS page are calculated assuming direct routing.
Which page is used to delete waypoints from the route?
RTE LEGS page
The active waypoint cannot be deleted.
What are the two methods to remove a waypoint from the route?
- Change the waypoints sequence
- Delete the waypoint with the DELETE function key
A discontinuity is created when a waypoint is removed using the DELETE function.
Fill in the blank: The data in the route ______ does not change before and after the deleted waypoint.
does not change
This is true regardless of the method used for deletion.
What is the purpose of the DELETE function key in the flight management system?
Arms the delete function and selects DELETE to the scratchpad
This function allows for the removal of waypoints from the active route.
What happens when a waypoint is deleted from the active route?
Boxes replace the deleted waypoint and a route discontinuity displays
This indicates that the waypoint has been successfully removed from the flight plan.
Does changing the sequence of waypoints cause route discontinuities?
No
Waypoints moved from one position in the flight plan to another do not result in route discontinuities.
How can a waypoint be copied from the flight plan?
Find the applicable waypoint on one of the RTE LEGS pages and select the line select key adjacent to the waypoint
This allows for easy modification of the flight plan.
What is the result of modifying a flight plan to fly directly from BTG to OAK?
RBL is removed from the flight plan and routing is direct from BTG to OAK to AVE
This modification does not cause a route discontinuity.
Fill in the blank: The active route shows ______ followed by OAK and AVE.
RBL
True or False: Several waypoints can be removed from the flight plan at a time.
True
This can be done using the method involving the line select key.
What is a discontinuity in flight management navigation?
A discontinuity exists when two waypoints are not connected by a route segment.
How can you remove a discontinuity in a flight plan?
Connect a route segment after the discontinuity to the route segment before the discontinuity.
What is the procedure to enter a waypoint into a discontinuity?
Copy the subsequent waypoint from the route into the scratchpad and enter it into the discontinuity, just as when adding a waypoint.
Fill in the blank: A route segment must be _______ to remove a discontinuity.
[connected]
What does ‘LNAV’ stand for in navigation?
[Lateral Navigation]
True or False: A route segment can be created without connecting waypoints.
False
What should be done to the scratchpad when dealing with waypoints?
Copy the subsequent waypoint from the route into the scratchpad.
What is the significance of route data in flight management?
Route data provides information about the planned flight path and waypoints.
What are the two main sections mentioned for the B787 in the context of navigation?
- B787 FCOM
- B787 FCTM
What altitude is indicated for the waypoints in the example?
FL350
What is a discontinuity in flight management navigation?
A discontinuity exists when two waypoints are not connected by a route segment.
How can you remove a discontinuity in a flight plan?
Connect a route segment after the discontinuity to the route segment before the discontinuity.
What is the procedure to enter a waypoint into a discontinuity?
Copy the subsequent waypoint from the route into the scratchpad and enter it into the discontinuity, just as when adding a waypoint.
Fill in the blank: A route segment must be _______ to remove a discontinuity.
[connected]
What does ‘LNAV’ stand for in navigation?
[Lateral Navigation]
True or False: A route segment can be created without connecting waypoints.
False
What should be done to the scratchpad when dealing with waypoints?
Copy the subsequent waypoint from the route into the scratchpad.
What is the significance of route data in flight management?
Route data provides information about the planned flight path and waypoints.
What are the two main sections mentioned for the B787 in the context of navigation?
- B787 FCOM
- B787 FCTM
What altitude is indicated for the waypoints in the example?
FL350
What is a route discontinuity in flight management?
A route discontinuity occurs when the active route has a break after a waypoint, requiring navigation adjustments to continue.
Example: The active route has a discontinuity after BTG.
How can a route discontinuity be removed?
By selecting a subsequent waypoint to the scratchpad and entering it into the route boxes.
Example: To fly direct from BTG to OAK, copy OAK to the scratchpad.
What happens when a waypoint not already in the route is entered in the boxes?
It moves the discontinuity one waypoint further down the route.
What does LNAV do when passing the last active route waypoint?
Maintains the current heading and displays the EICAS advisory message FMC INTERCEPT HDG.
What is the first way to activate LNAV?
Push the LNAV switch when within 2.5 miles of the active leg on an intercept heading.
What is the second way to activate LNAV when more than 2.5 miles from the active leg?
Push the LNAV switch while on an intercept heading to arm LNAV and display the intercept path on the ND map.
What is the third way to activate LNAV?
Fly direct to a waypoint or create an intercept course to a waypoint using the INTC CRS TO prompt.
Fill in the blank: LNAV is activated by pushing the LNAV switch when the airplane is within _______ miles of the active leg.
2.5
What is the result of entering a waypoint in the RTE LEGS page active waypoint line?
It allows the airplane to fly direct to that waypoint.
What does the INTC CRS TO prompt do?
Creates an intercept course to the specified waypoint.
True or False: If the intercept angle is large, the airplane may undershoot the active leg when activating LNAV.
False
What is displayed on the ND map when LNAV is armed while more than 2.5 miles from the active leg?
The intercept path.
What happens if LNAV is not active and the airplane is on an intercept heading to the active leg?
LNAV can be activated by pushing the LNAV switch.
What does ‘Direct To’ in flight management refer to?
Direct course from airplane present position to entered waypoint
What happens when the ‘Execute’ command is used in ‘Direct To’?
Proceed direct to active waypoint
What is the purpose of ‘Intercept Course’ in flight management?
Displays current required track to fly inbound course to the waypoint after execution
What is created when ‘Abeam Points’ (ABEAM PTS) is selected?
Place bearing distance waypoint on the Direct To leg abeam the bypassed waypoint
What does ABEAM PTS create if the bypassed waypoint is a latitude/longitude waypoint?
Creates latitude/longitude waypoint on the Direct To leg abeam the bypassed waypoint
What happens to altitude/speed constraints for bypassed waypoints when ABEAM PTS is selected?
Constraints are removed
When does the ABEAM PTS prompt display?
Whenever the active waypoint name is modified
What does the ‘Route Copy’ (RTE COPY) function do?
Copies the active route into the inactive route
What happens to the previous inactive route when RTE COPY is selected?
Erases previous inactive route
What is displayed on the line title after executing RTE COPY?
RTE COPY and line data displays COMPLETE
True or False: Abeam waypoints created from designated position reporting waypoints become position reporting waypoints.
True
Fill in the blank: ‘Intercept Course’ is modified by entry in _______ line or by selecting intercept course to.
[INTC CRS TO]
What does INTC CRS TO stand for?
Intercept Course To
This term is used in flight management to denote the course to an active waypoint.
What is displayed when the active waypoint name is modified in the FMC?
Displays boxes if entered waypoint not in the active route
This indicates that the entered waypoint is not part of the current flight plan.
What is the valid entry range for intercept course when boxes are displayed?
From 000° through 360°
This range allows pilots to set an intercept course in any direction.
How does the system display the entered or selected value for intercept course?
Displays in large font
This ensures clarity and visibility for the pilots.
What happens when the current route course is displayed?
Selects it as intercept course to active waypoint
This allows for easy adjustment of the intercept course.
What are the steps to change the intercept course?
Enter inbound intercept course in scratchpad, select INTC CRS TO line
These steps allow pilots to modify the intercept course effectively.
What suffix is added to the waypoint name in the scratchpad when creating an intercept course from a waypoint?
Outbound course
This denotes the direction of the course being created.
Can an intercept course be created from a waypoint not in the route?
Yes
The FMC allows for flexibility in navigation planning.
What does the FMC calculate when a waypoint and course pair are entered?
Calculates a route leg with the waypoint as the origin of the entered course
This helps in establishing a clear navigation path.
When creating an intercept course from BTG, what is the example course entered?
BTG090
This indicates a 090° course from the waypoint BTG.
What is displayed when the course intercept is line selected to the active waypoint line?
Course (090°) displays in the leg direction
This provides immediate feedback on the navigation input.
What does INTC CRS TO stand for?
Intercept Course To
This term is used in flight management to denote the course to an active waypoint.
What is displayed when the active waypoint name is modified in the FMC?
Displays boxes if entered waypoint not in the active route
This indicates that the entered waypoint is not part of the current flight plan.
What is the valid entry range for intercept course when boxes are displayed?
From 000° through 360°
This range allows pilots to set an intercept course in any direction.
How does the system display the entered or selected value for intercept course?
Displays in large font
This ensures clarity and visibility for the pilots.
What happens when the current route course is displayed?
Selects it as intercept course to active waypoint
This allows for easy adjustment of the intercept course.
What are the steps to change the intercept course?
Enter inbound intercept course in scratchpad, select INTC CRS TO line
These steps allow pilots to modify the intercept course effectively.
What suffix is added to the waypoint name in the scratchpad when creating an intercept course from a waypoint?
Outbound course
This denotes the direction of the course being created.
Can an intercept course be created from a waypoint not in the route?
Yes
The FMC allows for flexibility in navigation planning.
What does the FMC calculate when a waypoint and course pair are entered?
Calculates a route leg with the waypoint as the origin of the entered course
This helps in establishing a clear navigation path.
When creating an intercept course from BTG, what is the example course entered?
BTG090
This indicates a 090° course from the waypoint BTG.
What is displayed when the course intercept is line selected to the active waypoint line?
Course (090°) displays in the leg direction
This provides immediate feedback on the navigation input.
What does LNAV Modifications allow you to do?
Intercept Course From Waypoint and Outbound Course
LNAV (Lateral Navigation) Modifications are used to adjust flight paths based on waypoints.
How do you enter the outbound course in the FMC?
Enter the waypoint name and outbound course in the scratchpad
The scratchpad is a temporary display area for inputting commands.
What happens when you select the active waypoint line?
The outbound course displays
The waypoint name is not used in this display.
What is the valid input range for course entry in the FMC?
Any course from 000° through 360°
The course can be changed until executed.
What does the SELECT DESIRED WPT page display?
It displays when the FMC encounters more than one location for the same waypoint name
This allows the pilot to select the correct waypoint.
What is the purpose of entering P/P in the FMC?
To enter Present Position and outbound course in the scratchpad
This is useful for setting a course based on the current position.
What does the INTC CRS FROM function do?
Displays outbound course from entered waypoint
It shows modifications to the active waypoint name.
Fill in the blank: The FMC calculates a new route leg with _______ as the origin.
BTG
BTG is used as an example waypoint in the text.
True or False: The waypoint name is used in the display of the active outbound course.
False
The waypoint name is not displayed when showing the outbound course.
What is displayed after entering a waypoint name in the SELECT DESIRED WAYPOINT page?
A list of possible locations for the entered waypoint name
The pilot can select the correct waypoint from this list.
What information is provided about the waypoint ENO in the SELECT DESIRED WAYPOINT page?
It lists multiple locations with coordinates for the waypoint ENO
Examples include SYMRNA and ENODAK with their respective coordinates.
What does 5G stand for in aviation context?
5G refers to a system that incorporates advanced communication technologies, particularly in aircraft systems.
What is the purpose of the B787 FCOM?
The B787 FCOM (Flight Crew Operations Manual) provides operational procedures and guidelines for the B787 aircraft.
What does QRH stand for in aviation?
QRH stands for Quick Reference Handbook.
What does FAM stand for?
FAM stands for Flight Attendant Manual.
What is the function of the B787 FCTM?
The B787 FCTM (Flight Crew Training Manual) assists in training pilots on the B787 aircraft systems and operations.
What is the significance of the LEGS page in flight management?
The LEGS page displays the flight plan waypoints and allows for navigation modifications.
What is the process to make PLUSS the active waypoint?
Move PLUSS to the scratchpad, then to IL, and enter the V2 inbound course to PLUSS.
What indicates a successful airway intercept to PLUSS?
The LEGS page displays PLUSS as the active waypoint.
How can the LATERAL OFFSET page be accessed?
By selecting the OFST function key, the OFFSET prompt on the INIT REF INDEX page, or the LOAD SLOP command button.
What visual indication does the offset route have before execution?
It displays as a white, dashed line on the ND.
What happens after executing the offset modification?
The offset route displays as a dashed magenta line.
What does the solid magenta line represent on the ND?
The original route.
What occurs when executing the offset modification without a START waypoint?
The airplane turns to capture the offset course.
How do active route waypoints behave when on the route offset?
They sequence normally.
What occurs at the SLOP START waypoint with SLOP OFFSET ON?
The airplane turns right to the offset distance and follows the parallel track.
Fill in the blank: The OFFSET prompt displays for the active route when the airplane is _______.
in flight.
True or False: The dashed magenta line represents the original route after executing an offset modification.
False.
What does 5G stand for in aviation context?
5G refers to a system that incorporates advanced communication technologies, particularly in aircraft systems.
What is the purpose of the B787 FCOM?
The B787 FCOM (Flight Crew Operations Manual) provides operational procedures and guidelines for the B787 aircraft.
What does QRH stand for in aviation?
QRH stands for Quick Reference Handbook.
What does FAM stand for?
FAM stands for Flight Attendant Manual.
What is the function of the B787 FCTM?
The B787 FCTM (Flight Crew Training Manual) assists in training pilots on the B787 aircraft systems and operations.
What is the significance of the LEGS page in flight management?
The LEGS page displays the flight plan waypoints and allows for navigation modifications.
What is the process to make PLUSS the active waypoint?
Move PLUSS to the scratchpad, then to IL, and enter the V2 inbound course to PLUSS.
What indicates a successful airway intercept to PLUSS?
The LEGS page displays PLUSS as the active waypoint.
How can the LATERAL OFFSET page be accessed?
By selecting the OFST function key, the OFFSET prompt on the INIT REF INDEX page, or the LOAD SLOP command button.
What visual indication does the offset route have before execution?
It displays as a white, dashed line on the ND.
What happens after executing the offset modification?
The offset route displays as a dashed magenta line.
What does the solid magenta line represent on the ND?
The original route.
What occurs when executing the offset modification without a START waypoint?
The airplane turns to capture the offset course.
How do active route waypoints behave when on the route offset?
They sequence normally.
What occurs at the SLOP START waypoint with SLOP OFFSET ON?
The airplane turns right to the offset distance and follows the parallel track.
Fill in the blank: The OFFSET prompt displays for the active route when the airplane is _______.
in flight.
True or False: The dashed magenta line represents the original route after executing an offset modification.
False.
What does SLOP stand for in aviation?
Strategic Lateral Offset Procedure
SLOP is a procedure that allows aircraft to offset laterally from their intended flight path.
What are the valid entries for OFFSET Distance?
L or R followed by magnitude XX.X, or XX.X followed by L or R
XX.X represents any number from 0.1 to 99.0 NM, in 0.1 NM increments.
What displays on the ND when a valid offset distance is entered?
START WAYPOINT in 2L and END WAYPOINT in 3L lines titles
The ND shows a dashed magenta line from the current position.
What is indicated when no start waypoint has been entered?
The offset displays on the ND as a dashed magenta line from the current position
The ND also displays a 30° entry and exit path to the offset.
What happens if the current leg is non-offsetable?
Box prompts display
This indicates that an offset cannot be applied to that leg.
How can an offset be removed?
By deleting the offset, entering an offset value of zero, executing a direct to, or entering a PPOS hold
PPOS hold refers to a position hold based on the aircraft’s current location.
What displays when there is no active route or no offset-able legs?
Blank
This indicates that no offset can be applied due to the lack of a valid route.
What valid entries are allowed for START WAYPOINT?
Waypoints in the active, modified, or pending active route
A non-offsetable leg will display a help window message indicating that an offset cannot be applied.
What message is displayed when a non-offsetable leg is encountered?
NO OFFSET AT LEG XXXXXXX
This message indicates that the leg cannot support an offset.
What does the END WAYPOINT display when a valid end waypoint is entered?
Dashes
This indicates the ability to enter a valid end waypoint.
What happens when a flight plan change results in a non-offsetable leg in the lateral offset?
The help window message OFFSET ENDS AT YYYYYYY displays
YYYYYY represents the flight plan default Offset End waypoint.
What is shown when a valid direction/distance is entered and no end waypoint exists?
FMC calculated end point in the active route
This is based on the current offset parameters set by the pilot.
What does the help window message OFFSET ENDS AT indicate?
That the offset will terminate before reaching the entered end waypoint
The entered end waypoint continues to display in large font.
What occurs when the entered end waypoint is deleted?
The offset extends to the next downtrack valid Offset End waypoint
The new waypoint displays in small font.
What does SLOP stand for in aviation?
Strategic Lateral Offset Procedure
SLOP is a procedure that allows aircraft to offset laterally from their intended flight path.
What are the valid entries for OFFSET Distance?
L or R followed by magnitude XX.X, or XX.X followed by L or R
XX.X represents any number from 0.1 to 99.0 NM, in 0.1 NM increments.
What displays on the ND when a valid offset distance is entered?
START WAYPOINT in 2L and END WAYPOINT in 3L lines titles
The ND shows a dashed magenta line from the current position.
What is indicated when no start waypoint has been entered?
The offset displays on the ND as a dashed magenta line from the current position
The ND also displays a 30° entry and exit path to the offset.
What happens if the current leg is non-offsetable?
Box prompts display
This indicates that an offset cannot be applied to that leg.
How can an offset be removed?
By deleting the offset, entering an offset value of zero, executing a direct to, or entering a PPOS hold
PPOS hold refers to a position hold based on the aircraft’s current location.
What displays when there is no active route or no offset-able legs?
Blank
This indicates that no offset can be applied due to the lack of a valid route.
What valid entries are allowed for START WAYPOINT?
Waypoints in the active, modified, or pending active route
A non-offsetable leg will display a help window message indicating that an offset cannot be applied.
What message is displayed when a non-offsetable leg is encountered?
NO OFFSET AT LEG XXXXXXX
This message indicates that the leg cannot support an offset.
What does the END WAYPOINT display when a valid end waypoint is entered?
Dashes
This indicates the ability to enter a valid end waypoint.
What happens when a flight plan change results in a non-offsetable leg in the lateral offset?
The help window message OFFSET ENDS AT YYYYYYY displays
YYYYYY represents the flight plan default Offset End waypoint.
What is shown when a valid direction/distance is entered and no end waypoint exists?
FMC calculated end point in the active route
This is based on the current offset parameters set by the pilot.
What does the help window message OFFSET ENDS AT indicate?
That the offset will terminate before reaching the entered end waypoint
The entered end waypoint continues to display in large font.
What occurs when the entered end waypoint is deleted?
The offset extends to the next downtrack valid Offset End waypoint
The new waypoint displays in small font.
What does SLOP stand for?
Strategic Lateral Offset Procedure
SLOP is used to enhance the safety of aircraft operations by allowing a lateral offset from the centerline of the route.
What is the default setting for SLOP?
OFF
The default status is indicated in large font green.
What does the line title display when SLOP is not active?
START SLOP
This indicates that the SLOP procedure can be initiated.
What is indicated when the line title displays END SLOP?
SLOP is active
This shows that the Strategic Lateral Offset Procedure is currently being utilized.
What does the NOW> display indicate?
SLOP OFFSET is ON
It also indicates that an offset is not active, the active leg is offsetable, and a MOD SLOP offset does not exist.
What color and font size is used to display SLOP offset when active?
Magenta line
The line appears at the offset distance shown when LNAV is active and the autopilot is engaged.
What is the valid entry format for SLOP OFFSET Distance?
X (0.1 to 2.0 NM)
Leading and trailing zeroes, and decimal points are optional.
What happens when no SLOP START waypoint is entered?
Displays dashes
This occurs when START SLOP NOW> is in 2R.
What is the purpose of the Cruise Page?
Monitor and change cruise altitude and speed
It facilitates manual or automatic speed changes and supports various climb and descent operations.
What can be accomplished from the cruise page?
- Cruise climbs
- Cruise descents
- Step climbs
These operations can be performed to optimize flight performance.
True or False: The cruise page allows only manual selection of speed changes.
False
Speed changes can also be automatically selected with the selection of other VNAV modes.
What does VNAV stand for?
Vertical Navigation
VNAV is a system that automates the vertical profile of a flight.
In VNAV economy mode, what is the basis for page data?
Operating at ECON SPD
ECON SPD is determined by the cost index.
What happens when the flight crew enters a selected speed in VNAV?
Page data changes
This reflects the new speed input by the crew.
What does the FMC display during engine out mode?
Airplane capabilities with one engine inoperative
This helps crews understand performance limitations.
What is the purpose of long range cruise (LRC) mode?
To maximize airplane range
LRC mode optimizes fuel efficiency and distance.
Fill in the blank: Economy cruise speed is based on _______.
[cost index]
What is indicated by ‘FL’ in aviation terms?
Flight Level
Flight Level is a standardized altitude reference in aviation.
What does the acronym ‘KORD’ refer to?
Chicago O’Hare International Airport
KORD is the ICAO code for this airport.
What does ‘ETA’ stand for?
Estimated Time of Arrival
ETA is used to indicate when an aircraft is expected to arrive at its destination.
What is the significance of the ‘cost index’ in flight operations?
It determines the balance between time and fuel cost
A higher cost index prioritizes speed, while a lower index favors fuel savings.
Identify the mode that reflects the airplane’s capabilities with one engine inoperative.
Engine Out Mode
True or False: The cruise page displays information based on maximum speed settings.
False
The cruise page is based on ECON SPD, not maximum speed.
Fill in the blank: The ‘STEP TO’ feature indicates a change in _______.
[altitude]
What does ‘N1’ refer to in aviation?
Engine speed setting
N1 is the speed of the first stage of a jet engine.
What does ‘RECMD’ stand for in flight planning?
Recommended
RECMD indicates the suggested flight level or speed.
What does the term ‘ACT ECON CRZ’ refer to?
Actual Economy Cruise
This term is used in the context of current operational cruise settings.
What does the page title indicate in the cruise management system?
Indicates active (ACT) or modified (MOD) cruise, often containing ECON for economy cruise.
What does ‘CO CRZ’ signify in the cruise page titles?
Engine out mode with CO speed selected.
What is indicated by ‘ECON CRZ’ in the cruise titles?
Speed based on cost index.
What does ‘EO CRZ’ represent?
Engine out mode with EO SPD selected.
What does ‘EO D/D’ indicate?
Engine out mode with the airplane altitude above the maximum altitude for engine out performance.
What is displayed by ‘EO LRC CRZ’?
Displays after descending to engine out maximum altitude.
What does ‘LRC CRZ’ mean?
Long range cruise selected.
What is indicated by ‘MCP SPD CRZ’?
Selected MCP cruise speed.
What does the ‘Cruise Altitude (CRZ ALT)’ display?
Displays cruise altitude entered on PERF INIT page.
What are valid entries for cruise altitude?
XXX, XXXX, XXXXX, OR FLXXX.
How does the altitude display in the cruise system?
Displays in feet or flight level depending on the transition altitude.
What happens when a new entry is made for cruise altitude?
Changes the page title to CRZ CLB or CRZ DES.
What occurs when changing the MCP altitude and pushing the altitude selector?
Enters the MCP altitude as the active cruise altitude without creating a modification.
What does the page title indicate in the cruise management system?
Indicates active (ACT) or modified (MOD) cruise, often containing ECON for economy cruise.
What does ‘CO CRZ’ signify in the cruise page titles?
Engine out mode with CO speed selected.
What is indicated by ‘ECON CRZ’ in the cruise titles?
Speed based on cost index.
What does ‘EO CRZ’ represent?
Engine out mode with EO SPD selected.
What does ‘EO D/D’ indicate?
Engine out mode with the airplane altitude above the maximum altitude for engine out performance.
What is displayed by ‘EO LRC CRZ’?
Displays after descending to engine out maximum altitude.
What does ‘LRC CRZ’ mean?
Long range cruise selected.
What is indicated by ‘MCP SPD CRZ’?
Selected MCP cruise speed.
What does the ‘Cruise Altitude (CRZ ALT)’ display?
Displays cruise altitude entered on PERF INIT page.
What are valid entries for cruise altitude?
XXX, XXXX, XXXXX, OR FLXXX.
How does the altitude display in the cruise system?
Displays in feet or flight level depending on the transition altitude.
What happens when a new entry is made for cruise altitude?
Changes the page title to CRZ CLB or CRZ DES.
What occurs when changing the MCP altitude and pushing the altitude selector?
Enters the MCP altitude as the active cruise altitude without creating a modification.
What does ECON SPD display?
Displays target speed or Mach in magenta
What is shown in the page title when MOD is active?
Displays in shaded white until the modification is erased or executed
When does SEL SPD display?
Displays when flight crew enters speed
What types of speeds can be displayed depending on VNAV mode?
- LRC SPD
- ECON
- RTA SPD
- EO SPD
- CO SPD
What does N1 display?
Required N1 setting to maintain level flight at the target airspeed
What does the RTA PROGRESS select option display?
Displays RTA PROGRESS 3/4
What does the ECON select option do?
Selects VNAV ECON mode
When is ECON displayed?
When an RTA waypoint is not in the flight plan and VNAV is not in the economy mode
What does the RTA/ECON select option do?
Selects RTA speed mode
What does the destination ETA/FUEL display show?
Displays estimated time of arrival and calculated fuel remaining at the destination
What additional information does the destination ETA/FUEL display provide when DIVERT NOW is selected?
Displays the same data for the alternate airport
What does the line title display when a route modification is pending?
Displays ETA/FUEL W/MOD
What are the calculations for ETA/FUEL based on?
Based on optimum step climbs and cruise altitudes
What does OPT stand for?
Optimum Altitude
What does MAX stand for?
Maximum Altitude
What does RECMD stand for?
Recommended Altitude
What does OPT stand for in the context of altitude calculation?
Optimum Altitude
Calculation based on gross weight, cost index, cruise speed schedule, and cruise center of gravity (cg).
What factors influence the calculation of MAX altitude?
Factors include:
* Current gross weight
* Calculated fuel burn
* Temperature
* Number of engines operating
* Cruise reference thrust limit
* Speed
* Residual rate of climb
* Cruise cg
The MAX altitude does not reflect the effect of speed if speed intervention is selected.
What is the purpose of the RECMD altitude?
Displays the most economical altitude for the next 250 - 500 NM
Based on gross weight, cruise speed schedule, and entered forecast winds and temperatures.
When is the OPT altitude not calculated?
During an RTA cruise segment
RTA refers to Required Time of Arrival.
What happens to the OPT, MAX, and RECMD headers when RTA CRZ mode is active?
They are blank
Indicates that these altitudes are not computed during RTA mode.
What is the default step size for calculating recommended altitude?
Assumed 2,000 feet
If the step size is zero, this default is used.
What is the required distance from T/D or destination airport for the recommended altitude to be set to CRZ ALT?
Within 200 NM of T/D or within 500 NM of destination airport
T/D refers to Top of Descent.
Fill in the blank: The cruise reference thrust limit can be set by the _______.
[airline]
True or False: The calculation of RECMD altitude considers the forecast winds at cruise altitudes.
True
RECMD altitude is based on entered forecast winds and temperatures.
What does the Engine Out (ENG OUT) selection refer to?
A specific operational mode for engine failure scenarios
Details are not provided in the text.
What does selecting ‘Engine Out (ENG OUT)’ do in the B787 flight management system?
Displays MOD XXX CRZ page title; changes command speed line title to EO SPD
XXX is the active all-engine cruise speed mode before ENG OUT is selected.
What happens below engine-out maximum altitude when ‘Engine Out’ is executed?
Thrust reference limit changes to CON and page title becomes ACT EO CRZ
This indicates that the system is now in engine-out cruise mode.
What occurs above engine-out maximum altitude when ‘Engine Out’ is selected?
Sets CRZ ALT to engine-out maximum altitude; thrust reference limit becomes CON and page title becomes ACT
This reflects the need to adjust cruise altitude when experiencing an engine-out scenario.
What does the EO D/D page display?
Changes fuel burn calculations based on single engine performance and includes APU predicted burn
This is crucial for managing fuel efficiency during an engine-out situation.
What is shown when ‘Long Range Cruise (LRC)’ is selected?
Displays long range cruise page
This option is utilized to optimize fuel consumption during long flights.
What is the purpose of engine-out VNAV guidance?
Displays on the EO CRZ or EO D/D page; calculates engine-out guidance for driftdown (D/D)
This is essential for maintaining optimal flight path and safety during engine failure.
What happens to the EO D/D page when reaching the engine-out cruise altitude?
Changes to the EO CRZ page
This transition indicates a shift in operational mode once the target altitude is achieved.
How does airplane gross weight affect maximum altitude in an engine-out scenario?
As airplane gross weight decreases, maximum altitude increases
This allows for potential step climbs to higher altitudes.
What is the default target speed when ENG OUT is first selected?
EO SPD
This sets the speed target for the aircraft in an engine-out configuration.
Fill in the blank: The page title changes to _______ when the thrust reference limit becomes CON.
ACT EO CRZ
This indicates active engine-out cruise mode.
What does selecting ‘Engine Out (ENG OUT)’ do in the B787 flight management system?
Displays MOD XXX CRZ page title; changes command speed line title to EO SPD
XXX is the active all-engine cruise speed mode before ENG OUT is selected.
What happens below engine-out maximum altitude when ‘Engine Out’ is executed?
Thrust reference limit changes to CON and page title becomes ACT EO CRZ
This indicates that the system is now in engine-out cruise mode.
What occurs above engine-out maximum altitude when ‘Engine Out’ is selected?
Sets CRZ ALT to engine-out maximum altitude; thrust reference limit becomes CON and page title becomes ACT
This reflects the need to adjust cruise altitude when experiencing an engine-out scenario.
What does the EO D/D page display?
Changes fuel burn calculations based on single engine performance and includes APU predicted burn
This is crucial for managing fuel efficiency during an engine-out situation.
What is shown when ‘Long Range Cruise (LRC)’ is selected?
Displays long range cruise page
This option is utilized to optimize fuel consumption during long flights.
What is the purpose of engine-out VNAV guidance?
Displays on the EO CRZ or EO D/D page; calculates engine-out guidance for driftdown (D/D)
This is essential for maintaining optimal flight path and safety during engine failure.
What happens to the EO D/D page when reaching the engine-out cruise altitude?
Changes to the EO CRZ page
This transition indicates a shift in operational mode once the target altitude is achieved.
How does airplane gross weight affect maximum altitude in an engine-out scenario?
As airplane gross weight decreases, maximum altitude increases
This allows for potential step climbs to higher altitudes.
What is the default target speed when ENG OUT is first selected?
EO SPD
This sets the speed target for the aircraft in an engine-out configuration.
Fill in the blank: The page title changes to _______ when the thrust reference limit becomes CON.
ACT EO CRZ
This indicates active engine-out cruise mode.
What does the cruise page title display when Long Range Cruise (LRC) is selected?
Displays LRC D/D
LRC indicates the Long Range Cruise mode selected for optimal fuel efficiency.
What is displayed on the cruise page when MCP speed is selected?
Displays MCP SPD D/D
MCP refers to the Mode Control Panel, which allows pilots to set the desired speed.
What does EO LRC CRZ indicate?
Displays EO LRC CRZ when reaching engine out cruise altitude
EO refers to Engine Out, indicating the operational mode when one engine is inoperative.
What is indicated when EO SPD is selected and the airplane is below the engine-out maximum altitude?
Displays EO CRZ CLB or EO CRZ DES
EO CRZ CLB indicates a climb, while EO CRZ DES indicates a descent in engine-out conditions.
What happens if a manual entry of an altitude is made above the maximum engine-out altitude?
Results in the CDU help window message, ‘MAX ALT FLXXX’
CDU stands for Control Display Unit, which provides feedback on entered values.
What does the Engine Out Speed (EO SPD) display?
Displays the target speed or Mach in magenta
Magenta indicates a selected value, highlighting the importance for pilots.
What occurs when a speed is manually entered on the cruise page?
Changes the line title to SEL SPD
SEL SPD indicates the selected speed which overrides the default.
What does selecting Company Speed (CO SPD) do?
Modifies the page with company speed, engine out data from the airline policy page
CO SPD is tailored to the airline’s operational policies.
What does ALL Engine (ENG) selection display?
Displays a MOD XXX CRZ page with performance based on both engines operating
This mode allows for two-engine economy VNAV modes to be selected.
What is the Long Range Cruise (LRC) mode used for?
Optimizes fuel efficiency during flight
LRC is crucial for long-distance flights to conserve fuel.
What does the cruise page title display when Long Range Cruise (LRC) is selected?
Displays LRC D/D
LRC indicates the Long Range Cruise mode selected for optimal fuel efficiency.
What is displayed on the cruise page when MCP speed is selected?
Displays MCP SPD D/D
MCP refers to the Mode Control Panel, which allows pilots to set the desired speed.
What does EO LRC CRZ indicate?
Displays EO LRC CRZ when reaching engine out cruise altitude
EO refers to Engine Out, indicating the operational mode when one engine is inoperative.
What is indicated when EO SPD is selected and the airplane is below the engine-out maximum altitude?
Displays EO CRZ CLB or EO CRZ DES
EO CRZ CLB indicates a climb, while EO CRZ DES indicates a descent in engine-out conditions.
What happens if a manual entry of an altitude is made above the maximum engine-out altitude?
Results in the CDU help window message, ‘MAX ALT FLXXX’
CDU stands for Control Display Unit, which provides feedback on entered values.
What does the Engine Out Speed (EO SPD) display?
Displays the target speed or Mach in magenta
Magenta indicates a selected value, highlighting the importance for pilots.
What occurs when a speed is manually entered on the cruise page?
Changes the line title to SEL SPD
SEL SPD indicates the selected speed which overrides the default.
What does selecting Company Speed (CO SPD) do?
Modifies the page with company speed, engine out data from the airline policy page
CO SPD is tailored to the airline’s operational policies.
What does ALL Engine (ENG) selection display?
Displays a MOD XXX CRZ page with performance based on both engines operating
This mode allows for two-engine economy VNAV modes to be selected.
What is the Long Range Cruise (LRC) mode used for?
Optimizes fuel efficiency during flight
LRC is crucial for long-distance flights to conserve fuel.
What are the two types of climbs VNAV can calculate during the cruise phase?
Cruise climbs and step climbs
These types of climbs can be entered by the flight crew, while optimum step climbs are calculated by the FMC.
What must be done before VNAV commands a climb?
The new climb altitude must be selected in the MCP altitude window
This is a prerequisite for initiating a climb.
What happens when the altitude selector is pushed after setting a higher altitude in the MCP?
The cruise altitude is set to the MCP altitude and the airplane climbs to the new cruise altitude
The reference thrust limit during this operation is CLB.
What does the VNAV page title display during a cruise climb?
CRZ CLB
This indicates the airplane is climbing to cruise altitude.
What does the VNAV page title display after level off at cruise altitude?
ECON CRZ
This indicates the end of the cruise climb phase.
How can a planned step climb be initiated?
Data can be entered on the RTE LEGS page
The FMC performance predictions assume the airplane will start the climb at the identified waypoint.
What information does the FMC display regarding a step climb?
The distance and ETA to the step point on the PROGRESS page
The corresponding altitude profile point and identifier is shown on the ND.
What advisory message displays if a climb is not initiated within 5 minutes after passing a planned step climb point?
VNAV STEP CLIMB
This occurs when the altitude difference is greater than 3,500 feet.
Fill in the blank: The reference thrust limit during a cruise climb is _______.
CLB
What are the two types of climbs VNAV can calculate during the cruise phase?
Cruise climbs and step climbs
These types of climbs can be entered by the flight crew, while optimum step climbs are calculated by the FMC.
What must be done before VNAV commands a climb?
The new climb altitude must be selected in the MCP altitude window
This is a prerequisite for initiating a climb.
What happens when the altitude selector is pushed after setting a higher altitude in the MCP?
The cruise altitude is set to the MCP altitude and the airplane climbs to the new cruise altitude
The reference thrust limit during this operation is CLB.
What does the VNAV page title display during a cruise climb?
CRZ CLB
This indicates the airplane is climbing to cruise altitude.
What does the VNAV page title display after level off at cruise altitude?
ECON CRZ
This indicates the end of the cruise climb phase.
How can a planned step climb be initiated?
Data can be entered on the RTE LEGS page
The FMC performance predictions assume the airplane will start the climb at the identified waypoint.
What information does the FMC display regarding a step climb?
The distance and ETA to the step point on the PROGRESS page
The corresponding altitude profile point and identifier is shown on the ND.
What advisory message displays if a climb is not initiated within 5 minutes after passing a planned step climb point?
VNAV STEP CLIMB
This occurs when the altitude difference is greater than 3,500 feet.
Fill in the blank: The reference thrust limit during a cruise climb is _______.
CLB
What is the purpose of entering the cruise altitude as an altitude constraint in the FMC?
To initiate a planned step climb at the waypoint
What does the FMC calculate when a non-zero value is entered on the STEP SIZE line?
Step climb points that minimize trip cost
What factors influence the calculation of step climb points in the FMC?
- Lateral flight plan
- Entered COST INDEX (for ECON and RTA speed modes only)
- Entered forecast winds and temperatures
- CRZ ALT
- Gross weight
- STEP SIZE
What is the maximum altitude at the step point in relation to the calculated STEP TO altitude?
The calculated STEP TO altitude is less than or equal to the maximum altitude
What happens if a climb is not initiated within 5 minutes after passing a calculated step climb point?
The EICAS advisory message VNAV STEP CLIMB displays
What is the altitude difference that triggers the VNAV STEP CLIMB message?
Greater than 3,500 feet
Fill in the blank: The FMC assumes the step climb starts at the _______.
waypoint
True or False: Multiple step climbs are possible based on performance and route length.
True
What is the abbreviation for Flight Management, Navigation in the B787 documentation?
FMC
What does the acronym EICAS stand for?
Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System
What are the sources of information the FMC uses to calculate step climb points?
- Lateral flight plan
- Entered COST INDEX
- Forecast winds and temperatures
- CRZ ALT
- Gross weight
- STEP SIZE
What is the significance of the STEP SIZE line on the PERF INIT or CRZ page?
It affects the calculation of step climb points
What is the purpose of STEP SIZE in the FMC?
Used for calculation of optimum step point and step climb predictions
Displays the default step climb size of ICAO. Valid entries are altitudes from 0 to 9000 in 1000 foot increments.
What happens when a ‘0’ value is entered for STEP SIZE?
Causes the FMC to compute ETA and fuel predictions for a constant cruise altitude
Deletion of a manual entry defaults back to ICAO.
What does the line title TO STEP CLIMB indicate?
The cruise climb start point is the next VNAV event
Displays the ETA and DTG to the point where the step climb starts.
What replaces ETA and DTG if the airplane passes the step climb point without starting to climb?
NOW
If the FMC calculates a step climb is not advised, the ETA and DTG are replaced with the word NONE.
Under what conditions does the line title STEP TO display?
When an active route exists, no pending activation or flight plan modification, and other specific conditions are met
Conditions include being more than 200 mm from T/D, more than 500 nm from destination, and no engine-out driftdown active.
What does the FMC calculate performance based on?
Accomplishing step climbs at calculated step climb points throughout the flight plan
The FMC uses entered forecast winds and temperatures to evaluate step climbs.
What can be done to a calculated step climb altitude displayed in small font?
It can be overwritten to evaluate another step climb
The FMC calculates the step climb location using entered forecast winds and temperatures.
What is the purpose of STEP SIZE in the FMC?
Used for calculation of optimum step point and step climb predictions
Displays the default step climb size of ICAO. Valid entries are altitudes from 0 to 9000 in 1000 foot increments.
What happens when a ‘0’ value is entered for STEP SIZE?
Causes the FMC to compute ETA and fuel predictions for a constant cruise altitude
Deletion of a manual entry defaults back to ICAO.
What does the line title TO STEP CLIMB indicate?
The cruise climb start point is the next VNAV event
Displays the ETA and DTG to the point where the step climb starts.
What replaces ETA and DTG if the airplane passes the step climb point without starting to climb?
NOW
If the FMC calculates a step climb is not advised, the ETA and DTG are replaced with the word NONE.
Under what conditions does the line title STEP TO display?
When an active route exists, no pending activation or flight plan modification, and other specific conditions are met
Conditions include being more than 200 mm from T/D, more than 500 nm from destination, and no engine-out driftdown active.
What does the FMC calculate performance based on?
Accomplishing step climbs at calculated step climb points throughout the flight plan
The FMC uses entered forecast winds and temperatures to evaluate step climbs.
What can be done to a calculated step climb altitude displayed in small font?
It can be overwritten to evaluate another step climb
The FMC calculates the step climb location using entered forecast winds and temperatures.
What happens when zero is entered for step size in the FMC?
The FMC calculates performance data at the entered CRZ ALT with no step climbs.
What effect does preflight entry of a non-zero increment have on the FMC?
It causes the FMC to calculate STEP TO altitudes correct for the direction of flight based on the entered CRZ ALT.
When inflight changes to CRZ ALT occur, what do they affect?
They affect the calculation of STEP TO altitudes when using ICAO step size.
How is STEP TO altitude displayed on the LEGS page?
By entering ‘S’ (following altitude) on a waypoint.
What is the next higher altitude when using a non-zero step size?
The STEP TO altitude is calculated by adding the step size increment to the current CRZ ALT.
What message is displayed when entering an altitude above maximum altitude?
The scratchpad message MAX ALT FLXXX.
Under what conditions will the scratchpad display be blank?
When there is no active flight plan, within 200 NM of the T/D, within 500 NM of the destination airport with no planned steps, or engine out driftdown is active.
What does ‘AT’ indicate on the LEGS page?
Displays when the altitude in 1R is not an entered step climb.
What information does ‘AT XXXXXXX’ provide?
Displays the LEGS page step climb waypoint when the FMC calculates the step climb can occur within 5 NM of the step climb waypoint.
What does ‘AVAIL AT’ signify?
Displays when a STEP TO the next step altitude cannot occur within 5 NM of the planned step waypoint due to thrust or buffet.
What is indicated by ‘TO FLXXX’?
Displays when the airplane is more than 200 NM from the T/D or more than 500 NM from the destination airport with engine out driftdown active.
Fill in the blank: Entering a non-zero increment or ICAO step size causes the FMC to calculate _______.
STEP TO altitudes correct for the direction of flight based on the entered CRZ ALT.
True or False: The data line displays ETA and DTG to the climb point for all step climbs.
True.
What happens when zero is entered for step size in the FMC?
The FMC calculates performance data at the entered CRZ ALT with no step climbs.
What effect does preflight entry of a non-zero increment have on the FMC?
It causes the FMC to calculate STEP TO altitudes correct for the direction of flight based on the entered CRZ ALT.
When inflight changes to CRZ ALT occur, what do they affect?
They affect the calculation of STEP TO altitudes when using ICAO step size.
How is STEP TO altitude displayed on the LEGS page?
By entering ‘S’ (following altitude) on a waypoint.
What is the next higher altitude when using a non-zero step size?
The STEP TO altitude is calculated by adding the step size increment to the current CRZ ALT.
What message is displayed when entering an altitude above maximum altitude?
The scratchpad message MAX ALT FLXXX.
Under what conditions will the scratchpad display be blank?
When there is no active flight plan, within 200 NM of the T/D, within 500 NM of the destination airport with no planned steps, or engine out driftdown is active.
What does ‘AT’ indicate on the LEGS page?
Displays when the altitude in 1R is not an entered step climb.
What information does ‘AT XXXXXXX’ provide?
Displays the LEGS page step climb waypoint when the FMC calculates the step climb can occur within 5 NM of the step climb waypoint.
What does ‘AVAIL AT’ signify?
Displays when a STEP TO the next step altitude cannot occur within 5 NM of the planned step waypoint due to thrust or buffet.
What is indicated by ‘TO FLXXX’?
Displays when the airplane is more than 200 NM from the T/D or more than 500 NM from the destination airport with engine out driftdown active.
Fill in the blank: Entering a non-zero increment or ICAO step size causes the FMC to calculate _______.
STEP TO altitudes correct for the direction of flight based on the entered CRZ ALT.
True or False: The data line displays ETA and DTG to the climb point for all step climbs.
True.
What does FCOM stand for in the context of the B787?
Flight Crew Operations Manual
FCOM provides operational information and procedures for flight crews.
What does QRH stand for?
Quick Reference Handbook
QRH is used for quick access to emergency procedures and checklists.
What does FAM refer to?
Flight Attendant Manual
FAM contains procedures and guidelines for flight attendants.
What does FCTM stand for?
Flight Crew Training Manual
FCTM includes training information and operational guidance for flight crews.
What is the purpose of the FMC Cruise mode?
To maintain a constant speed between two waypoints during cruise
The FMC controls speed after the end waypoint or top of descent.
What does VNAV stand for?
Vertical Navigation
VNAV allows for automated altitude management during flight.
What is a calculated step climb in aviation?
A planned altitude increase during the cruise phase of flight
This is executed based on fuel efficiency and air traffic control.
When does the T/D display activate on the B787?
When within 200 NM of the T/D or within 500 NM of the destination airport
T/D stands for Top of Descent.
Fill in the blank: A speed for a cruise segment can be specified, which has a _______ and an end waypoint.
start waypoint
What are the two parameters displayed when the airplane is approaching the T/D?
- ETA (Estimated Time of Arrival)
- DTG (Distance to Go)
These metrics help pilots manage descent and arrival.
True or False: The FMC controls the speed after the end waypoint during a cruise segment.
True
What is the significance of the ECON mode in B787 flight management?
It optimizes fuel efficiency during flight
ECON mode adjusts speed and altitude for cost-effective operations.
What is the importance of modifications in the FMC?
Modifications must be executed to change flight parameters
This allows for adjustments based on flight conditions or operational needs.
What is the start waypoint for constant speed cruise on the B787?
BTG at Mach 0.800
Entry for constant speed cruise begins at BTG.
What is the end waypoint for constant speed cruise on the B787?
OAK
Constant speed cruise ends at OAK unless otherwise specified.
What happens if an RTA waypoint exists at RBL or OAK during constant speed cruise?
The RTA is deleted
The presence of an RTA waypoint leads to its deletion when entering constant speed cruise.
What should be entered if no end waypoint is specified for constant speed cruise?
Top of descent
The constant speed cruise automatically terminates at top of descent if no end waypoint is indicated.
What does the FMC do if an RTA waypoint is entered?
Selects the end waypoint
The FMC selects the end waypoint to ensure timely arrival at the RTA waypoint.
What is displayed on the CRZ page during cruise descent?
ACT ECON CRZ DES
The CRZ page shows the active economy cruise descent indication.
What effect does setting an altitude below the current altitude in the MCP altitude window have?
Causes the airplane to descend to the new altitude
This occurs if the altitude change is initiated more than 50 NM from the top of descent.
What happens to speed transition or restriction altitudes during cruise descent?
Those altitudes and speeds are deleted
This occurs if the new altitude is below the SPD TRANS or SPD RESTR displayed on the DES page.
What does the autothrottle do during cruise descent?
Sets a calculated thrust value for approximately 1250 feet per minute descent
This allows for a controlled descent rate while maintaining commanded cruise speed.
Fill in the blank: The cruise phase during descent is displayed on the _______ page.
VNAV
The VNAV page indicates the cruise phase when descending to a new cruise altitude.
What does the VNAV page title display after level off at a new cruise altitude?
Cruise phase
VNAV stands for Vertical Navigation, which manages the vertical profile of the flight.
What is an early descent in the context of flight management?
A descent started prior to the T/D (Top of Descent)
The VNAV descent page becomes active during an early descent.
What activates the DES NOW function during cruise?
Setting an altitude below the current altitude in the MCP altitude window and pushing the altitude selector when within 50 NM of the T/D or if the MCP altitude is below the highest descent altitude constraint in the VNAV descent profile
MCP stands for Mode Control Panel.
What happens to the autothrottle during the DES NOW function?
Sets thrust to maintain the target descent rate and then annunciates HOLD
The pitch maintains the commanded speed during this process.
What is the function of the thrust levers during descent?
To manually position and adjust the descent rate
This allows pilots to have manual control over the descent parameters.
How can an early descent be accomplished using the MCP altitude?
Set a lower MCP altitude, page forward to the VNAV DES page, and line select DES NOW, then execute
This allows for planned descent management.
What does the DES NOW prompt indicate?
It is shown when the descent phase is not active and the airplane is airborne
Selecting the DES NOW prompt initiates a VNAV ECON descent.
What is the target descent rate during a VNAV ECON descent initiated by DES NOW?
Approximately 1250 feet per minute at ECON speed
ECON speed is the most economical speed for fuel efficiency.
What does VNAV command upon reaching the planned descent path?
Commands pitch to capture the path and maintain ECON speed with idle thrust
This is essential for efficient descent management.
What happens if the airplane approaches a constraint altitude before reaching the constraint waypoint?
VNAV commands level off and changes to VNAV PTH until the planned descent path is intercepted
VNAV PTH refers to Vertical Navigation Path mode.
What information does the reference navigation data page display?
Data about waypoints, navaids, airports, and runways
This page is crucial for ensuring accurate navigation and flight management.
What is the purpose of inhibiting FMC position updates from radio navaids?
To maintain control over navigation data and ensure accuracy
This can be useful in certain operational contexts.
What does the VNAV page title display after level off at a new cruise altitude?
Cruise phase
VNAV stands for Vertical Navigation, which manages the vertical profile of the flight.
What is an early descent in the context of flight management?
A descent started prior to the T/D (Top of Descent)
The VNAV descent page becomes active during an early descent.
What activates the DES NOW function during cruise?
Setting an altitude below the current altitude in the MCP altitude window and pushing the altitude selector when within 50 NM of the T/D or if the MCP altitude is below the highest descent altitude constraint in the VNAV descent profile
MCP stands for Mode Control Panel.
What happens to the autothrottle during the DES NOW function?
Sets thrust to maintain the target descent rate and then annunciates HOLD
The pitch maintains the commanded speed during this process.
What is the function of the thrust levers during descent?
To manually position and adjust the descent rate
This allows pilots to have manual control over the descent parameters.
How can an early descent be accomplished using the MCP altitude?
Set a lower MCP altitude, page forward to the VNAV DES page, and line select DES NOW, then execute
This allows for planned descent management.
What does the DES NOW prompt indicate?
It is shown when the descent phase is not active and the airplane is airborne
Selecting the DES NOW prompt initiates a VNAV ECON descent.
What is the target descent rate during a VNAV ECON descent initiated by DES NOW?
Approximately 1250 feet per minute at ECON speed
ECON speed is the most economical speed for fuel efficiency.
What does VNAV command upon reaching the planned descent path?
Commands pitch to capture the path and maintain ECON speed with idle thrust
This is essential for efficient descent management.
What happens if the airplane approaches a constraint altitude before reaching the constraint waypoint?
VNAV commands level off and changes to VNAV PTH until the planned descent path is intercepted
VNAV PTH refers to Vertical Navigation Path mode.
What information does the reference navigation data page display?
Data about waypoints, navaids, airports, and runways
This page is crucial for ensuring accurate navigation and flight management.
What is the purpose of inhibiting FMC position updates from radio navaids?
To maintain control over navigation data and ensure accuracy
This can be useful in certain operational contexts.
What does IDENT refer to in the B787 systems description?
IDENT refers to Identification including Flight Management and Navigation systems.
What is displayed when a valid waypoint, navaid, airport, or runway is entered from the navigation database?
The Navigation Data Page displays valid entries.
What happens to entry changes when the page is exited and then reselected?
Entry changes turn to dashes.
What information does the LATITUDE display provide?
Displays latitude of the entered identifier.
What does MAG VAR display when a navaid identifier is entered?
Displays magnetic variation.
What does LENGTH display when a runway identifier is entered?
Displays runway length.
What valid entries can be used for NAVAID INHIBIT?
- VOR
- VOR/DME
- VORTAC
- DME
What is the effect of using NAVAID INHIBIT?
It inhibits the use of entered navaids for updating by the FMCs.
What happens to entries at flight completion for NAVAID INHIBIT?
Entries are blanked.
What is the function of deleting or overwriting in NAVAID INHIBIT?
Removes a previous inhibit.
What valid entries can be used for VOR ONLY INHIBIT?
VOR identifiers from the navigation database.
What is inhibited by VOR ONLY INHIBIT?
Inhibits only the VOR portion of the entered navaid for updating.
What happens to entries at flight completion for VOR ONLY INHIBIT?
Entries are blanked.
What is displayed when VOR/DME NAV is selected OFF?
ALL is displayed.
What does the INDEX function do?
Selects and displays the INIT/REF INDEX page.
What does FREQ display when a valid navaid identifier is entered?
Displays frequency of the entered identifier.
Fill in the blank: Valid entries for NAVAID INHIBIT are _______.
VOR, VOR/DME, VORTAC, or DME identifiers.
What does FMC stand for in the context of flight management?
Flight Management Computer
The FMC is a key component in modern aircraft that automates various in-flight tasks.
What information does the Frequency (FREQ) display when an identifier is entered?
Displays frequency of entered identifier when it is a navaid
Navaids are navigational aids used in aviation.
What does the LONGITUDE display when an identifier is entered?
Displays longitude of entered identifier
Longitude is a geographic coordinate that specifies the east-west position of a point on the Earth’s surface.
What does the ELEVATION display when an identifier is a navaid, airport, or runway?
Displays elevation of entered identifier
Elevation is the height above a specific reference point, usually sea level.
How many identical FIX INFORMATION pages are used to create waypoint fixes?
Four
These pages facilitate the creation and management of waypoints for navigation.
What happens when the ERASE FIX prompt is selected?
The FIX INFORMATION page can be cleared
This function allows for the removal of existing waypoints or fixes.
What is the significance of Magnetic/True Bearing in navigation?
Depends on airplane location
The bearing indicates the direction to a waypoint relative to magnetic or true north.
Fill in the blank: The fix information page can be cleared by selecting the _______ prompt.
ERASE FIX
This prompt is used to remove specific fix information from the display.
What is indicated by the BRG / DIS format in the FIX section?
Bearing and distance to the fix
This information is crucial for navigation and route planning.
True or False: The DTG value represents the distance to the fix.
True
DTG stands for Distance To Go, indicating how far the aircraft is from the waypoint.
What does the ALT value indicate in the FIX information?
Altitude
This represents the height of the aircraft above a specific reference point.
What does FCOM stand for in the context of B787?
Flight Crew Operating Manual
FCOM provides detailed information about the aircraft’s systems and operating procedures.
What is the purpose of the QRH in the B787?
Quick Reference Handbook
QRH is used for emergency procedures and checklists.
What types of valid entries can be made in the Fix Information Page?
- Airports
- Navaids
- Place bearing distance
- Place bearing/place bearing
- Along-track
- Latitude/longitude
- Waypoints from the navigation database
These entries help in navigation and route planning.
How is a selected fix indicated on the Navigation Display (ND)?
Highlighted by a green circle
This visual cue helps pilots quickly identify the selected fix.
What is the format for distance only entries on the Fix Information Page?
Must start with a slash (/)
This format allows for distances up to 5400 NM.
What information is displayed when the circle from the fix intersects the active route?
- ETA
- DTG
- Predicted altitude
This information is crucial for flight navigation and planning.
What does ETA stand for and what does it display?
Estimated Time of Arrival; displays time to the intersection point
ETA is vital for flight timing and coordination.
Fill in the blank: The __________ displays the distance to go to the intersection point.
DTG
DTG stands for Distance To Go.
What does ALT represent on the navigation display?
Predicted altitude at the intersection point
This information aids in altitude management during flight.
What function does the ‘Select’ command perform concerning a fix?
Copies the fix place/bearing/distance into the scratchpad
This allows for easy insertion into the flight plan.
What is displayed when a bearing and distance from the fix are entered?
A waypoint fix point on the ND
This helps in visualizing navigation paths.
What does the ABEAM prompt indicate?
The entered fix exists in the navigation database and an active route exists
This helps ensure that the flight path is correctly aligned with navigational aids.
What does the ‘ERASE FIX’ command do?
Removes the selected fix from the navigation system
This function is important for managing waypoints during flight.
What does the Fix Information Page allow the user to do?
Select a line select key for one of the BRG/DIS entries to copy the fix place/bearing/distance definition into the scratchpad
This fix can be placed into the route on a LEGS page as a waypoint.
What is displayed by the Bearing/Distance From (BRG/DIS FR)?
The bearing and distance of the airplane from the fix.
What types of valid entries can be made for Predicted Distance to ETA or Altitude (PRED ETA-ALT)?
Altitude, flight level, or time
Time entry must be followed by ‘Z’.
What happens when an altitude or flight level is entered in PRED ETA-ALT?
Displays the predicted along-track distance and altitude or flight level on this line.
How is the predicted airplane position represented on the ND route line when entering an altitude or flight level?
As a green circle with the entered altitude/flight level.
What does entering a time in PRED ETA-ALT display?
The predicted along-track distance and time.
How is the predicted airplane position represented on the ND route line when entering a time?
As a green circle with the entered ETA.
What information does the Route Data Page display?
Data for each waypoint on the ACT RTE X LEGS page, including ETA and calculated fuel remaining
Manual entry is not possible.
What is the purpose of the WIND page in the Route Data Page?
Allows access to wind data for the active route.
Is the Route Data Page available for inactive routes?
No, it is available only for the active route.
What does the Fix Information Page allow the user to do?
Select a line select key for one of the BRG/DIS entries to copy the fix place/bearing/distance definition into the scratchpad
This fix can be placed into the route on a LEGS page as a waypoint.
What is displayed by the Bearing/Distance From (BRG/DIS FR)?
The bearing and distance of the airplane from the fix.
What types of valid entries can be made for Predicted Distance to ETA or Altitude (PRED ETA-ALT)?
Altitude, flight level, or time
Time entry must be followed by ‘Z’.
What happens when an altitude or flight level is entered in PRED ETA-ALT?
Displays the predicted along-track distance and altitude or flight level on this line.
How is the predicted airplane position represented on the ND route line when entering an altitude or flight level?
As a green circle with the entered altitude/flight level.
What does entering a time in PRED ETA-ALT display?
The predicted along-track distance and time.
How is the predicted airplane position represented on the ND route line when entering a time?
As a green circle with the entered ETA.
What information does the Route Data Page display?
Data for each waypoint on the ACT RTE X LEGS page, including ETA and calculated fuel remaining
Manual entry is not possible.
What is the purpose of the WIND page in the Route Data Page?
Allows access to wind data for the active route.
Is the Route Data Page available for inactive routes?
No, it is available only for the active route.
What does the FMC use for performance predictions far ahead of the airplane?
Entered winds
The FMC combines entered wind data with sensed wind data for performance predictions based on distance from the aircraft.
What happens to the accuracy of the recommended altitude displayed on the cruise page when forecast wind and temperature information is inaccurate?
It degrades
Inaccurate forecast data negatively impacts the FMC’s altitude recommendations.
What factors can cause fluctuations in the FMC calculated ECON climb speed?
Top of climb near a waypoint with a large track change and significant wind velocity
Fluctuations do not occur with manually entered climb speeds.
What is the purpose of the Wind Page in the FMC?
To enter forecast winds and temperatures at waypoints for VNAV performance
The Wind Page allows for data entry at up to four altitudes.
How is the outside air temperature (OAT) entered on the Wind Page?
For any one altitude
The FMC calculates temperature for entered altitudes using the standard lapse rate.
In what order are altitudes displayed on the Wind Page after entry?
Ascending order
Altitudes can be entered in any order but will be sorted automatically.
Fill in the blank: The FMC mixes entered winds with _______ for predictions in between.
Sensed winds
Sensed winds are used for predictions close to the airplane.
True or False: The wind speed and direction are entered for specific altitudes on the Wind Page.
True
Data entry includes wind speed and direction for each specified altitude.
What is the significance of the 45-degree track change in relation to FMC calculations?
It can cause fluctuations in ECON climb speed
Significant track changes near waypoints influence climb speed calculations.
What is the function of the ETA shown in the data?
Estimated Time of Arrival
ETA provides information on the expected arrival time at a waypoint.
What does RTA stand for in aviation?
Required Time Of Arrival
RTA is used to manage arrival times at specific fixes.
What is the valid entry time range for RTA?
0000.00 to 2359.59
Entry of seconds is optional.
What does a suffix of ‘A’ indicate when used with RTA?
Arrive at or after entered time
Suffixes modify the conditions for arriving at the RTA fix.
What happens when RTA is deleted?
Terminates RTA and returns ECON as the command speed
ECON refers to the economic speed setting for flight.
What does DTG stand for?
Distance To Go
DTG shows the remaining distance to the destination.
What does ETA stand for?
Estimated Time Of Arrival
ETA calculates the expected arrival time at a specified fix.
What does the display show after entering a FIX in 1L?
Calculated altitude and ETA at RTA fix
This information helps pilots understand their flight status.
What is indicated when the display shows ‘ON TIME’?
The airplane will arrive at the RTA fix time
This indicates that the flight is on schedule.
What is displayed when no takeoff time has been entered and the current time is later than the calculated time?
NOW in the data line
This alerts pilots that they have missed the calculated takeoff time.
What does the display show for Recommended Takeoff (RECMD T/O) until a FIX is entered?
T/O in line title and dashes
This indicates that the takeoff time is not yet determined.
What is the purpose of manual entry in the flight management system?
Recalculates all flight plan time predictions
This allows for adjustments based on real-time changes.
True or False: The time error display shows ‘EADTV MM-CC’ when the ETA is earlier than the DTA fix time.
True
This indicates a timing discrepancy that needs addressing.
What does the RNP Progress Page display?
Leg segment data including arcs, courses, heading leg segments, special procedural instructions, and track leg segments
RNP stands for Required Navigation Performance, which is a specification for aircraft navigation accuracy.
What is indicated by the leg segment data for arcs?
Distance in miles, ARC, turn direction (example: 24 ARC L)
The turn direction indicates whether the turn is to the left (L) or right (R).
How are courses displayed on the RNP Progress Page?
As magnetic (xxx°) or true (xxx° T)
Magnetic courses are based on the Earth’s magnetic field, while true courses are based on geographic north.
What does ‘xxx° HDG’ signify in the leg segment data?
Heading leg segments
HDG stands for heading, indicating the direction the aircraft should fly.
What are the special procedural instructions that may appear on the RNP Progress Page?
HOLD AT, PROC TURN, or PROC HOLD
These instructions guide pilots on specific procedures to follow during flight.
What does ‘xxx° TRK’ represent in the leg segment data?
Track leg segments
TRK stands for track, indicating the actual path the aircraft is following over the ground.
What does the display show when the calculated great circle route leg directions differ from chart values?
Dashes for an undefined course
This indicates that the system cannot determine a valid course based on the data available.
What is the purpose of the Waypoint Identifier on the RNP Progress Page?
Displays the next waypoint
Waypoints are fixed locations used for navigation.
How are Required Navigation Performance (RNP) and Actual Navigation Performance displayed?
Same as 5L POS REF 2/4, with manual entry in large font
This indicates both the required and actual performance metrics for navigation.
What does the Crosstrack Error (XTK ERROR) display indicate?
Present crosstrack error from the desired LNAV course
LNAV stands for lateral navigation, which helps maintain the aircraft’s path.
What does an XTK ERROR of ‘L’ or ‘R’ signify?
Indicates left or right of course
This shows the direction the aircraft is off from its intended path.
What happens when the crosstrack error exceeds 99.99 NM?
Displays as 99.99 NM
This is the maximum error displayed, indicating a significant deviation from the intended course.
What does the Lateral RNP display show during an approach?
The lowest applicable RNP for the selected approach
This helps pilots ensure they meet the required navigation performance for safe landings.
Is manual entry allowed at 6L on the RNP Progress Page?
No, entry not allowed
This restriction is in place to prevent incorrect data entry during critical phases of flight.
How is the RNP displayed if not available from the navigation database?
Displays the default RNP for the approach flight phase from the FMC
FMC stands for Flight Management Computer, which is used for flight planning and navigation.
How is the Distance To Go displayed?
As a numerical value indicating the remaining distance to the destination
This is crucial for pilots to manage fuel and time effectively.
What does the RNP Progress Page display?
Leg segment data including arcs, courses, heading leg segments, special procedural instructions, and track leg segments
RNP stands for Required Navigation Performance, which is a specification for aircraft navigation accuracy.
What is indicated by the leg segment data for arcs?
Distance in miles, ARC, turn direction (example: 24 ARC L)
The turn direction indicates whether the turn is to the left (L) or right (R).
How are courses displayed on the RNP Progress Page?
As magnetic (xxx°) or true (xxx° T)
Magnetic courses are based on the Earth’s magnetic field, while true courses are based on geographic north.
What does ‘xxx° HDG’ signify in the leg segment data?
Heading leg segments
HDG stands for heading, indicating the direction the aircraft should fly.
What are the special procedural instructions that may appear on the RNP Progress Page?
HOLD AT, PROC TURN, or PROC HOLD
These instructions guide pilots on specific procedures to follow during flight.
What does ‘xxx° TRK’ represent in the leg segment data?
Track leg segments
TRK stands for track, indicating the actual path the aircraft is following over the ground.
What does the display show when the calculated great circle route leg directions differ from chart values?
Dashes for an undefined course
This indicates that the system cannot determine a valid course based on the data available.
What is the purpose of the Waypoint Identifier on the RNP Progress Page?
Displays the next waypoint
Waypoints are fixed locations used for navigation.
How are Required Navigation Performance (RNP) and Actual Navigation Performance displayed?
Same as 5L POS REF 2/4, with manual entry in large font
This indicates both the required and actual performance metrics for navigation.
What does the Crosstrack Error (XTK ERROR) display indicate?
Present crosstrack error from the desired LNAV course
LNAV stands for lateral navigation, which helps maintain the aircraft’s path.
What does an XTK ERROR of ‘L’ or ‘R’ signify?
Indicates left or right of course
This shows the direction the aircraft is off from its intended path.
What happens when the crosstrack error exceeds 99.99 NM?
Displays as 99.99 NM
This is the maximum error displayed, indicating a significant deviation from the intended course.
What does the Lateral RNP display show during an approach?
The lowest applicable RNP for the selected approach
This helps pilots ensure they meet the required navigation performance for safe landings.
Is manual entry allowed at 6L on the RNP Progress Page?
No, entry not allowed
This restriction is in place to prevent incorrect data entry during critical phases of flight.
How is the RNP displayed if not available from the navigation database?
Displays the default RNP for the approach flight phase from the FMC
FMC stands for Flight Management Computer, which is used for flight planning and navigation.
How is the Distance To Go displayed?
As a numerical value indicating the remaining distance to the destination
This is crucial for pilots to manage fuel and time effectively.
What does the RNP Progress Page display?
The distance remaining from airplane present position to the next waypoint, regardless of cross-track error.
RNP stands for Required Navigation Performance.
What is displayed on the Glidepath in the FMC?
The FMC computed glidepath for the approach.
Glidepath is crucial for maintaining the correct descent angle during an approach.
How are waypoint speed or altitude constraints displayed?
In large font for constraints and in small font for FMC predicted value when no restrictions are specified.
This helps pilots quickly identify restrictions.
What does the Vertical Navigation Performance display?
Both vertical RNP and ANP for the current leg.
ANP stands for Actual Navigation Performance.
What is the valid display range for vertical ANP?
0 to 999 feet.
This range indicates the accuracy of the vertical navigation.
What are the valid manual entry values for vertical navigation?
10 to 999 feet, with an optional suffix ‘/’.
Manual entries are important for adjusting navigation parameters.
What does the Vertical Track Error (VTK ERROR) indicate?
The present vertical error from the FMC computed glidepath.
This helps in assessing the aircraft’s vertical position relative to the desired glidepath.
What does the Vertical RNP (Approach) display?
The lowest applicable vertical RNP for the approach.
This is essential for determining the minimum navigation performance required for the approach.
How are manual entries for vertical RNP displayed?
In large font.
This distinction helps pilots recognize their inputs easily.
What is the format for displaying values from the navigation database?
In small font.
This helps differentiate between pilot entries and system-generated values.
What does the RNP Progress Page display?
The distance remaining from airplane present position to the next waypoint, regardless of cross-track error.
RNP stands for Required Navigation Performance.
What is displayed on the Glidepath in the FMC?
The FMC computed glidepath for the approach.
Glidepath is crucial for maintaining the correct descent angle during an approach.
How are waypoint speed or altitude constraints displayed?
In large font for constraints and in small font for FMC predicted value when no restrictions are specified.
This helps pilots quickly identify restrictions.
What does the Vertical Navigation Performance display?
Both vertical RNP and ANP for the current leg.
ANP stands for Actual Navigation Performance.
What is the valid display range for vertical ANP?
0 to 999 feet.
This range indicates the accuracy of the vertical navigation.
What are the valid manual entry values for vertical navigation?
10 to 999 feet, with an optional suffix ‘/’.
Manual entries are important for adjusting navigation parameters.
What does the Vertical Track Error (VTK ERROR) indicate?
The present vertical error from the FMC computed glidepath.
This helps in assessing the aircraft’s vertical position relative to the desired glidepath.
What does the Vertical RNP (Approach) display?
The lowest applicable vertical RNP for the approach.
This is essential for determining the minimum navigation performance required for the approach.
How are manual entries for vertical RNP displayed?
In large font.
This distinction helps pilots recognize their inputs easily.
What is the format for displaying values from the navigation database?
In small font.
This helps differentiate between pilot entries and system-generated values.
What is the starting point of the descent phase?
The top of descent point.
The descent phase continues to the end of descent point.
When does the approach phase start?
When the airplane is in the descent phase and flaps are out of up.
The approach starts no later than sequencing the final approach fix.
When can alternates be selected or updated during a flight?
From preflight through the approach phase of flight.
Diversion to an alternate can be accomplished during all phases of flight.
What is the only automatic page change in the descent/approach phases?
VNAV selected page change from cruise to descent at the top of descent.
Refer to Early Descent for additional information.
Which pages are used to manage LNAV and VNAV during descent?
RTE LEGS and PROGRESS pages for LNAV; DES page for VNAV.
This follows the same management as in the cruise phase.
What is the purpose of the DESCENT FORECAST page?
To enter forecast wind data to aid descent planning.
What does the OFFPATH DES page analyze?
Descent performance with and without the use of speedbrakes.
What does the ALTN page manage?
The selection of alternate airports and diversions.
What happens if an unplanned level-off is required?
Setting the altitude window to the required altitude causes the airplane to level at that altitude.
VNAV PTH changes to VNAV ALT.
What does the descent page monitor?
The descent path and allows for revision of descent speeds.
Descent speeds can be economy (ECON) or fixed speed (SEL).
What is the default VNAV descent mode?
ECON mode.
A fixed speed descent is flown when speed intervention is used.
What occurs when the descent page is blank?
The title reads DES until an altitude constraint below the cruise altitude is entered.
What does the ECON mode control during descent?
Descent speed at the economy speed until reaching a lower speed restriction.
What does the fixed speed mode control during descent?
Descent speed at the fixed speed until a lower speed restriction is reached.
What does E/D AT stand for?
End Of Descent At
Refers to the point in the descent phase with the lowest altitude constraint.
What is displayed on the Descent Page regarding E/D?
The end of descent altitude and waypoint
Displays in magenta when altitude becomes the FMC altitude target.
What happens if no E/D point exists?
The page is blank
What does ECON SPD represent?
Economy speed based on cost index
Displays CAS and Mach values.
What does SEL SPD indicate?
Selected Speed
Displays when flight crew enters speed and shows constraint speed on transition into a selected speed segment.
What are valid entries for SEL SPD?
- CAS
- Mach
What does RTA SPD represent?
Displays when an RTA is active
When is the FMC commanded speed displayed in magenta?
When it is the FMC speed target
What is the typical transition speed (SPD TRANS) relative to the destination airport limiting speed?
Usually 10 knots less than the limiting speed
What default speed displays when no airport limit speed exists?
240 knots
What is the default transition altitude if no altitude exists in the navigation database?
10,000 feet
What does it mean when speed displays in magenta?
It is the FMC speed target
What happens when speed is deleted under SPD TRANS altitude?
The airplane flies economy or selected speed if not limited by a waypoint constraint or speed restriction.
What does SPD RESTR stand for?
Speed Restriction
Refers to speed restrictions at altitudes higher than E/D altitude not associated with specific waypoints.
How are speed restrictions entered in the FMC?
Manually entered as CAS and altitude (example: 240/8000)
CAS stands for Calibrated Airspeed.
What indicates a FMC command speed?
Speed and altitude displayed in magenta
Magenta indicates target values set by the FMC.
What does OFFPATH DES represent?
Off Path Descent
It allows the display of the OFFPATH DES page in the FMC.
What information does AT XXXXX provide?
Next waypoint constraint from the RTE LEGS page
XXXXX can include waypoint identifier, HOLD AT, AT VECTORS, or AT (INTC).
What happens when there is no constraint in the OFFPATH DES page?
It is displayed as blank
Indicates no speed/altitude constraint exists.
What does VNAV command?
Lesser of constraint speed or present performance speed
VNAV stands for Vertical Navigation.
What does WPT/ALT display?
Reference vertical bearing waypoint identifier and altitude
Displays pilot entered data if available.
What does the descent page display when no pilot entry is made?
Defaults to the next descent waypoint constraint
The constraint is displayed in 1R.
What is displayed for window altitude constraints when the airplane is above the upper altitude?
Upper altitude is displayed
If below, the lower altitude is shown.
What do dashes indicate in the descent portion of the flight plan?
No constraint exists
Used to signify the absence of constraints.
What does SPD RESTR stand for?
Speed Restriction
Refers to speed restrictions at altitudes higher than E/D altitude not associated with specific waypoints.
How are speed restrictions entered in the FMC?
Manually entered as CAS and altitude (example: 240/8000)
CAS stands for Calibrated Airspeed.
What indicates a FMC command speed?
Speed and altitude displayed in magenta
Magenta indicates target values set by the FMC.
What does OFFPATH DES represent?
Off Path Descent
It allows the display of the OFFPATH DES page in the FMC.
What information does AT XXXXX provide?
Next waypoint constraint from the RTE LEGS page
XXXXX can include waypoint identifier, HOLD AT, AT VECTORS, or AT (INTC).
What happens when there is no constraint in the OFFPATH DES page?
It is displayed as blank
Indicates no speed/altitude constraint exists.
What does VNAV command?
Lesser of constraint speed or present performance speed
VNAV stands for Vertical Navigation.
What does WPT/ALT display?
Reference vertical bearing waypoint identifier and altitude
Displays pilot entered data if available.
What does the descent page display when no pilot entry is made?
Defaults to the next descent waypoint constraint
The constraint is displayed in 1R.
What is displayed for window altitude constraints when the airplane is above the upper altitude?
Upper altitude is displayed
If below, the lower altitude is shown.
What do dashes indicate in the descent portion of the flight plan?
No constraint exists
Used to signify the absence of constraints.
What does the FPA display in the descent page?
The current flight path angle of the airplane
Display is blank for FPA greater than positive 0.05°
What does V/B represent in the descent page?
The calculated vertical bearing required to achieve the waypoint altitude displayed at line select key 3R
What information does V/S provide in the descent page?
The vertical speed required to achieve the waypoint altitude displayed at line select key 3R
When is the display blank in the descent page?
If no waypoint/altitude combination is displayed at line select key 3R or if the airplane is below the altitude displayed at line select key 3R
What does selecting ‘Forecast’ display?
The DESCENT FORECAST page
What happens when ‘Descent Direct (DES DIR)’ is selected?
Deletes all waypoint altitude constraints between the airplane altitude and the MCP altitude
What does ‘Descent Now (DES NOW)’ do?
Activates the FMC descent phase and starts a 1250 feet per minute descent schedule until intercepting the planned descent path
When does ‘Descent Now (DES NOW)’ display?
When the descent phase is not active and the airplane is airborne
What is activated when selecting RTA?
RTA speed
Displays ECON prompt when RTA waypoint has been entered and ECON is the active descent speed
What does the acronym RTA stand for?
Required Time Of Arrival
Fill in the blank: The _______ is displayed when an RTA waypoint has been entered and ECON is the active descent speed.
ECON prompt
What does the FPA display in the descent page?
The current flight path angle of the airplane
Display is blank for FPA greater than positive 0.05°
What does V/B represent in the descent page?
The calculated vertical bearing required to achieve the waypoint altitude displayed at line select key 3R
What information does V/S provide in the descent page?
The vertical speed required to achieve the waypoint altitude displayed at line select key 3R
When is the display blank in the descent page?
If no waypoint/altitude combination is displayed at line select key 3R or if the airplane is below the altitude displayed at line select key 3R
What does selecting ‘Forecast’ display?
The DESCENT FORECAST page
What happens when ‘Descent Direct (DES DIR)’ is selected?
Deletes all waypoint altitude constraints between the airplane altitude and the MCP altitude
What does ‘Descent Now (DES NOW)’ do?
Activates the FMC descent phase and starts a 1250 feet per minute descent schedule until intercepting the planned descent path
When does ‘Descent Now (DES NOW)’ display?
When the descent phase is not active and the airplane is airborne
What is activated when selecting RTA?
RTA speed
Displays ECON prompt when RTA waypoint has been entered and ECON is the active descent speed
What does the acronym RTA stand for?
Required Time Of Arrival
Fill in the blank: The _______ is displayed when an RTA waypoint has been entered and ECON is the active descent speed.
ECON prompt
What is the purpose of the DES TO waypoint?
The waypoint for a direct-to descent, usually the E/D waypoint from the active route.
What happens when within 150 feet of the DES TO altitude for a waypoint other than the E/D waypoint?
The display automatically changes the DES TO waypoint to the E/D waypoint from the DES page.
What does DTG stand for?
Distance To Go.
What does the DTG display indicate?
The distance from the airplane’s present position to the entered waypoint, regardless of cross-track error.
What is shown under Speed/Altitude (SPD/ALT)?
Displays the speed/altitude constraint for the entered waypoint.
What does ‘TO CLEAN’ indicate?
Distance to the clean descent circle; negative when a clean descent is no longer possible.
What assumption does a clean circle make regarding drag devices?
Assumes no drag devices are used for descent.
What does ‘TO DRAG’ indicate?
Distance to the drag descent circle; negative when a drag descent is no longer possible.
What assumption does a drag circle make regarding speedbrakes?
Assumes speedbrakes are UP for descent.
When is a direct descent to the DES TO waypoint at a SPD/ALT constraint possible?
When the airplane is outside the clean or drag circle.
What does the DISPLAY prompt do when set to ON?
Displays the clean and drag circles on the ND.
What condition is required for the drag circle to display?
The airplane position must be inside the clean circle.
What does selecting ON in the Offpath Descent Page do?
Displays the clean and drag circles on the ND
The drag circle does not display until the airplane position is inside the clean circle.
What happens when the Offpath Descent Page is set to OFF?
Removes the clean and drag circles from the ND.
What font indicates the selected state in the Offpath Descent Page?
Large green font.
How does the Offpath Descent Page change automatically?
Changes to OFF within 150 feet of the waypoint constraint altitude.
Are there specific engine out pages for descent?
No, use the two engine descent planning features and pages.
What happens to roll and pitch modes during approach?
They usually change to the approach guidance supplied by navigation radios.
What does the FMC continue to calculate during approach?
Present position.
What are the pages used to manage the airplane until other approach guidance becomes active?
- RTE LEGS
- PROGRESS
What page is used to select arrival and approach procedures?
ARRIVALS page.
What does the APPROACH REF page specify?
Approach flap settings and set the approach VREF.
What is the purpose of the HOLD page?
To manage holding patterns.
When can the arrivals page be accessed for the destination airport?
More than 400 NM from the departure airport or more than halfway along the active route.
What does the INDEX key access?
DEP/ARR INDEX.
What does the arrivals page allow selection of?
- Runway
- Approach
- Approach transition
- Standard terminal arrival route (STAR)
- Profile descent
- Arrival transition
What naming convention has ICAO developed for multiple RNAV/ILS approaches?
Adds an additional character to the approach name: Z, Y, X.
How is the primary approach identified in ICAO’s naming convention?
As the ‘Z’ approach.
What is the maximum number of characters for approach names encoded in the navigation database?
Up to eight characters.
What does VFR APPR stand for?
Visual Flight Rules Approach
VFR APPR is a procedure that allows pilots to approach and land visually under VFR conditions.
What is the function of the FMC during a VFR Approach?
Selects a transition waypoint, FAXXX at 8 NM and 2000 feet above the runway
This creates a descent constraint 50 feet above the runway threshold.
What does LNAV and VNAV guidance provide during a VFR Approach?
Guidance to the runway
VNAV programs arrival at the Final Approach Fix (FAF) at 170 knots.
What is the default Flight Path Angle (FPA) for a VFR Approach?
3.0°
Valid entries for FPA range from 2.4° to 3.7°.
What happens when RWY EXT is selected after VER APPR?
Displays RWY EXT 8.0 NM; RWY EXT cannot be modified
This indicates a fixed distance from the runway.
What are the valid entries for Runway Extension (RWY EXT)?
1.0 to 25.0 miles from the runway threshold
Entry is allowed if VFR APPR is not selected, removing the VFR APPR prompt.
Fill in the blank: The VFR Approach displays a descent constraint of _______ feet above the runway threshold.
50
This is crucial for maintaining a safe altitude during the approach.
What does the waypoint RXYYY represent in the context of VFR Approaches?
A waypoint where YYY is the runway
For example, RX32R indicates a specific runway.
True or False: The Flight Path Angle (FPA) only displays after VFR APPR is selected.
True
The FPA is an important parameter for managing descent.
What is the purpose of the VFR Approach in the navigation database?
To provide navigation guidance for the selected runway
It aids pilots in visual approaches under specified conditions.
What does the term ‘route discontinuity’ refer to in VFR Approaches?
A break in the flight route before and after the waypoint
This can affect the flight path and navigation.
What does VFR APPR stand for?
Visual Flight Rules Approach
VFR APPR is a procedure that allows pilots to approach and land visually under VFR conditions.
What is the function of the FMC during a VFR Approach?
Selects a transition waypoint, FAXXX at 8 NM and 2000 feet above the runway
This creates a descent constraint 50 feet above the runway threshold.
What does LNAV and VNAV guidance provide during a VFR Approach?
Guidance to the runway
VNAV programs arrival at the Final Approach Fix (FAF) at 170 knots.
What is the default Flight Path Angle (FPA) for a VFR Approach?
3.0°
Valid entries for FPA range from 2.4° to 3.7°.
What happens when RWY EXT is selected after VER APPR?
Displays RWY EXT 8.0 NM; RWY EXT cannot be modified
This indicates a fixed distance from the runway.
What are the valid entries for Runway Extension (RWY EXT)?
1.0 to 25.0 miles from the runway threshold
Entry is allowed if VFR APPR is not selected, removing the VFR APPR prompt.
Fill in the blank: The VFR Approach displays a descent constraint of _______ feet above the runway threshold.
50
This is crucial for maintaining a safe altitude during the approach.
What does the waypoint RXYYY represent in the context of VFR Approaches?
A waypoint where YYY is the runway
For example, RX32R indicates a specific runway.
True or False: The Flight Path Angle (FPA) only displays after VFR APPR is selected.
True
The FPA is an important parameter for managing descent.
What is the purpose of the VFR Approach in the navigation database?
To provide navigation guidance for the selected runway
It aids pilots in visual approaches under specified conditions.
What does the term ‘route discontinuity’ refer to in VFR Approaches?
A break in the flight route before and after the waypoint
This can affect the flight path and navigation.
What is the purpose of the Gross Weight (GROSS WT) display in the FMC?
Displays FMC calculated airplane gross weight, allows manual entry if unavailable or invalid
Permanent changes to gross weight result in recalculation of all performance data and may only be made on the PERF INIT page.
How does manual entry of gross weight affect the FMC?
Manually entered gross weight becomes FMC calculated gross weight upon reselecting a different page
This allows previewing recommended approach speeds at other than the calculated FMC gross weight.
What are the selectable options for Landing Reference (LANDING REF)?
Selectable between QNH and QFE
QNH is usually the operating mode.
What happens to the cabin pressurization schedule when QFE is selected?
It sets the cabin pressurization schedule and destination landing altitude indication to zero altitude
Changing the barometric setting from STD to QFE changes the PFD altitude tape background color to green.
What does changing the barometric setting from QFE to STD do when QFE is selected?
Toggles landing reference from QFE to QNH and removes the green background color
This occurs when the climb phase is active.
How is the runway reference displayed in relation to the route progress?
Changes based on route progress; destination runway is referenced when more than halfway to destination or more than 400 NM from origin
The origin airport runway is referenced when less than halfway or less than 400 NM from origin.
What information is displayed regarding runway length?
Displays length of the referenced runway in feet and meters
Length changes following a change of destination or execution of a DIVERT.
What does the Glideslope (G/S) toggle do?
Toggles glideslope ON and OFF
Defaults to ON (green) for ILS or IGS approaches and OFF (green) for LOC, SDF, LDA, or B/CRS approaches.
True or False: The Glideslope defaults to OFF when an ILS approach is in the active route.
False
It defaults to ON (green) when an ILS or IGS approach is in the active route.
Fill in the blank: The displayed runway reference changes based on _______.
route progress
What is the purpose of the Gross Weight (GROSS WT) display in the FMC?
Displays FMC calculated airplane gross weight, allows manual entry if unavailable or invalid
Permanent changes to gross weight result in recalculation of all performance data and may only be made on the PERF INIT page.
How does manual entry of gross weight affect the FMC?
Manually entered gross weight becomes FMC calculated gross weight upon reselecting a different page
This allows previewing recommended approach speeds at other than the calculated FMC gross weight.
What are the selectable options for Landing Reference (LANDING REF)?
Selectable between QNH and QFE
QNH is usually the operating mode.
What happens to the cabin pressurization schedule when QFE is selected?
It sets the cabin pressurization schedule and destination landing altitude indication to zero altitude
Changing the barometric setting from STD to QFE changes the PFD altitude tape background color to green.
What does changing the barometric setting from QFE to STD do when QFE is selected?
Toggles landing reference from QFE to QNH and removes the green background color
This occurs when the climb phase is active.
How is the runway reference displayed in relation to the route progress?
Changes based on route progress; destination runway is referenced when more than halfway to destination or more than 400 NM from origin
The origin airport runway is referenced when less than halfway or less than 400 NM from origin.
What information is displayed regarding runway length?
Displays length of the referenced runway in feet and meters
Length changes following a change of destination or execution of a DIVERT.
What does the Glideslope (G/S) toggle do?
Toggles glideslope ON and OFF
Defaults to ON (green) for ILS or IGS approaches and OFF (green) for LOC, SDF, LDA, or B/CRS approaches.
True or False: The Glideslope defaults to OFF when an ILS approach is in the active route.
False
It defaults to ON (green) when an ILS or IGS approach is in the active route.
Fill in the blank: The displayed runway reference changes based on _______.
route progress
What is the purpose of the INIT/REF INDEX page?
Displays various initialization and reference settings
This page is used to access important performance data for flight management.
What three VREF speeds are based on?
Landing flap setting
VREF speeds are calculated for flaps at 20°, 25°, and 30°.
What must be entered to display VREF speed on the PFD?
A valid gross weight
The display remains blank until a gross weight is entered on the PERF INIT page.
What does the WIND CORR function display?
Wind correction to be applied to approach speed
The default value for wind correction is 5 KTs.
What is the valid entry range for wind correction speed?
0 to 20 KTs
Entries outside this range are not accepted.
What does the THRUST LIM page display?
Thrust limit settings
This page is used to manage engine thrust limitations.
What information does the ALTN page 1/2 provide?
Data for finding suitable alternate airports
It displays four airports in an ETA sequence for diversion purposes.
How many alternate airport uplinks can be received?
Three
This includes uplinks for either the entire ALTN page or just the ALTN INHIB line.
Fill in the blank: The flap position and VREF speed is entered for _______.
[landing]
This data is essential for accurate approach and landing procedures.
What happens to VREF display if the data is deleted?
VREF is removed from the PFD
This indicates the importance of maintaining accurate data for displays.
What does the term ‘ALTN LIST page 2/2’ refer to?
A list of uplinked alternate airports
This page may contain additional alternate airport options for the crew.
What is the purpose of the INIT/REF INDEX page?
Displays various initialization and reference settings
This page is used to access important performance data for flight management.
What three VREF speeds are based on?
Landing flap setting
VREF speeds are calculated for flaps at 20°, 25°, and 30°.
What must be entered to display VREF speed on the PFD?
A valid gross weight
The display remains blank until a gross weight is entered on the PERF INIT page.
What does the WIND CORR function display?
Wind correction to be applied to approach speed
The default value for wind correction is 5 KTs.
What is the valid entry range for wind correction speed?
0 to 20 KTs
Entries outside this range are not accepted.
What does the THRUST LIM page display?
Thrust limit settings
This page is used to manage engine thrust limitations.
What information does the ALTN page 1/2 provide?
Data for finding suitable alternate airports
It displays four airports in an ETA sequence for diversion purposes.
How many alternate airport uplinks can be received?
Three
This includes uplinks for either the entire ALTN page or just the ALTN INHIB line.
Fill in the blank: The flap position and VREF speed is entered for _______.
[landing]
This data is essential for accurate approach and landing procedures.
What happens to VREF display if the data is deleted?
VREF is removed from the PFD
This indicates the importance of maintaining accurate data for displays.
What does the term ‘ALTN LIST page 2/2’ refer to?
A list of uplinked alternate airports
This page may contain additional alternate airport options for the crew.
What is the purpose of the alternate airport page?
To display alternate airport data and allow selection to change the flight plan destination.
What are the sources from which alternate airports can be selected?
- An uplink directly to this page
- Automatic selection from the ALTN LIST page
- Automatic selection from the navigation database
- Manual entry
How are automatically selected alternate airports displayed?
In small font.
What color indicates alternate airports on the navigation display when within range?
Cyan.
How is an alternate airport identified on the navigation display?
With the letter A inside the airport symbol.
In which modes are all four alternates shown on the ALTN page displayed?
In plan mode or in map mode with APRT selected.
What happens to alternate airports that are out of map range when the 1280 mile map range is selected?
They are displayed as directional arrows with the ICAO identifier and distance in NM.
Fill in the blank: Alternate airports automatically selected from the alternate list or the navigation database display in _______.
[small font]
What is the purpose of the alternate airport page?
To display alternate airport data and allow selection to change the flight plan destination.
What are the sources from which alternate airports can be selected?
- An uplink directly to this page
- Automatic selection from the ALTN LIST page
- Automatic selection from the navigation database
- Manual entry
How are automatically selected alternate airports displayed?
In small font.
What color indicates alternate airports on the navigation display when within range?
Cyan.
How is an alternate airport identified on the navigation display?
With the letter A inside the airport symbol.
In which modes are all four alternates shown on the ALTN page displayed?
In plan mode or in map mode with APRT selected.
What happens to alternate airports that are out of map range when the 1280 mile map range is selected?
They are displayed as directional arrows with the ICAO identifier and distance in NM.
Fill in the blank: Alternate airports automatically selected from the alternate list or the navigation database display in _______.
[small font]
What does the Alternate Airports page display when airborne?
The identifier of the four alternate airports in ETA order
What does the Alternate Airports page display when on the ground?
The identifier of the four alternate airports in distance order
What is a valid manual entry for alternate airports?
An airport from the navigation database
What happens when a manual entry is made into a field displaying a small font value?
It overwrites the small font value but does not delete it from the Alternates Candidates list
What is the function of the DELETE key on the ALTN page?
To remove manually entered alternate airports
What does the Alternate Request (ALTN REQUEST) function do?
Transmits a datalink request for a preferred list of alternates (up to four)
What is displayed when alternate airport data arrives?
The CDU help window message ALTN UPLINK
What does ETA stand for in the context of alternate airports?
Estimated Time of Arrival
When is the ETA displayed as blank?
When the airplane is on the ground
What is predicted arrival fuel calculated based on?
Routing, altitude, and speed displayed on the XXXX ALTN page
What message is displayed if predicted arrival fuel is less than zero?
UNABLE FUEL
Fill in the blank: A manual entry into a field displaying a large font value _______.
overwrites the large font value
What indicates a selected alternate airport in the FMC?
<a> or <SEL> to the right of the airport identifier</SEL></a>
How does the FMC select the alternate airport?
With the earliest ETA
What does a manually selected alternate airport display?
<SEL> to the right of the airport identifier
</SEL>
What happens when you enter a new airport into the list of four alternates?
It does not select the new airport
How can you remove a manually selected alternate airport?
Use the DELETE function key
What does the SELECT function do in the context of alternate airports?
Displays the XXXX ALTN page for the alternate airport
What is an Alternate Inhibit (ALTN INHIBIT)?
An airport that is not one of the four alternate airports
How many airports can be entered into the alternate inhibit line?
One or two airports
What type of entries are valid for alternate inhibits?
Airports from the navigation database
What is displayed when an airport is uplinked separately for alternate inhibits?
ALTN INHIBIT UPLINK message
What does selecting DIVERT NOW do?
Displays the route from the present position to the selected alternate
What changes when the diversion is executed?
- Changes the route destination airport
- Includes the route modification into the active flight plan
Fill in the blank: The selected alternate identifier displays in the line title of the _______ prompt.
DIVERT NOW
True or False: A manual selection of an alternate airport is made by selecting the line select key left of the airport identifier.
True
What indicates a selected alternate airport in the FMC?
<a> or <SEL> to the right of the airport identifier</SEL></a>
How does the FMC select the alternate airport?
With the earliest ETA
What does a manually selected alternate airport display?
<SEL> to the right of the airport identifier
</SEL>
What happens when you enter a new airport into the list of four alternates?
It does not select the new airport
How can you remove a manually selected alternate airport?
Use the DELETE function key
What does the SELECT function do in the context of alternate airports?
Displays the XXXX ALTN page for the alternate airport
What is an Alternate Inhibit (ALTN INHIBIT)?
An airport that is not one of the four alternate airports
How many airports can be entered into the alternate inhibit line?
One or two airports
What type of entries are valid for alternate inhibits?
Airports from the navigation database
What is displayed when an airport is uplinked separately for alternate inhibits?
ALTN INHIBIT UPLINK message
What does selecting DIVERT NOW do?
Displays the route from the present position to the selected alternate
What changes when the diversion is executed?
- Changes the route destination airport
- Includes the route modification into the active flight plan
Fill in the blank: The selected alternate identifier displays in the line title of the _______ prompt.
DIVERT NOW
True or False: A manual selection of an alternate airport is made by selecting the line select key left of the airport identifier.
True
What is the function of selecting DIVERT NOW?
Displays the route from the present position to the selected alternate
The route is based on the information displayed on the ALTN page for the diversion airport.
What happens when a diversion is executed?
Changes the route destination airport, includes route modification in the active flight plan, deletes original route parts not part of the diversion, deletes all descent constraints.
The CDU help window message ‘DESCENT PATH DELETED’ is shown when DIVERT NOW is selected.
What does selecting the ‘Select’ option do during a diversion?
Makes an LNAV route modification, displays MOD ALTN page for the selected alternate, shows SELECTED with DIVERT XXXX in the line title, blank on ground, blank in the air when diversion is not permitted.
LNAV stands for Lateral Navigation.
What information does the second alternate page provide?
Displays a list of previously uplinked alternate airports.
Alternates on the ALTN 1/2 page are either selected from this list or from the navigation database.
Fill in the blank: Selecting DIVERT NOW deletes all parts of the original route that are not part of the _______.
[diversion]
True or False: After executing a diversion, the ALTN page is updated immediately.
False
The ALTN page is not updated until all CDU displays are selected off of the ALTN page.
What is indicated when the message ‘DESCENT PATH DELETED’ appears?
A descent path exists and has been deleted due to the selection of DIVERT NOW.
What does FMC stand for in aviation?
Flight Management Computer
What are the three types of holding pattern entries determined by the airplane track?
- Direct
- Teardrop
- Parallel
In LNAV, what bank angle does the AFDS use to track the holding pattern?
Up to a 30 degree bank angle
What may cause the airplane to fly outside the protected airspace during a holding pattern?
Strong winds or airspeed in excess of FAA or ICAO entry speeds
What determines the entry method used for holding patterns?
Airplane track, not heading or direction
How does the airplane fly the initial outbound leg in a holding pattern?
A computed distance from the holding fix
What is the offset angle used for teardrop entries?
40 degree offset angle
What does the hold page display when the flight plan does not contain a holding pattern?
RTE X LEGS page with the HOLD AT line
What are the two versions of the hold page?
- Airway or procedure holding pattern
- Flight crew-entered holding pattern
What color are active holding patterns displayed on the ND?
Magenta
The pattern size for holding is limited to what?
FAA or ICAO protected airspace
True or False: The holding entry path displays on the ND.
True
Fill in the blank: To make efficient use of the holding airspace, lateral guidance may direct the initial turn to the holding pattern prior to crossing the holding fix, known as _______.
fly-by
What happens to the flight path for a direct entry to the holding fix?
It may extend slightly beyond the displayed outbound holding turn
What is required for the airplane to remain within the prescribed holding airspace?
The airplane must be at holding airspeed at the holding fix
What is the function of the HOLD function key?
Displays the RTE X LEGS page with the HOLD AT line
How does the FMC compute holding patterns?
With constant radius turns based on current wind and FMC commanded airspeed
What does the HOLD AT function display?
Boxes to enter the holding fix: a RTE LEGS, database, or pilot-defined waypoint; a navaid or airport identifier; or a FAF already in the flight plan.
What happens when a holding fix is entered?
Displays the RTE X HOLD page.
What does HOLD AT Present Position (PPOS) do?
Creates a holding pattern at present position and establishes the holding fix at the position when EXEC is selected.
What is displayed when a holding fix is established?
Displays the holding fix.
What is the normal display for Quadrant/Radial (QUAD/RADIAL)?
Normally displays dashes.
What is a valid entry for Quadrant/Radial (QUAD/RADIAL)?
X/XXX, XX/XXX, or /XXX. Example: NW/330.
What does the Inbound Course/Direction (INBD CRS/DIR) display?
Displays inbound course and turn direction.
What is a valid entry for Inbound Course/Direction (INBD CRS/DIR)?
XXX (inbound course), XXX/X (inbound course/turn direction), /X or X (turn direction).
What happens to the display when the holding fix is the active waypoint?
Displays in magenta.
What does the Leg Time (LEG TIME) display at or below 14,000 feet?
Displays 1.0 MIN.
What does the Leg Time (LEG TIME) display above 14,000 feet?
Displays 1.5 MIN.
What does the HOLD AT function display?
Boxes to enter the holding fix: a RTE LEGS, database, or pilot-defined waypoint; a navaid or airport identifier; or a FAF already in the flight plan.
What happens when a holding fix is entered?
Displays the RTE X HOLD page.
What does HOLD AT Present Position (PPOS) do?
Creates a holding pattern at present position and establishes the holding fix at the position when EXEC is selected.
What is displayed when a holding fix is established?
Displays the holding fix.
What is the normal display for Quadrant/Radial (QUAD/RADIAL)?
Normally displays dashes.
What is a valid entry for Quadrant/Radial (QUAD/RADIAL)?
X/XXX, XX/XXX, or /XXX. Example: NW/330.
What does the Inbound Course/Direction (INBD CRS/DIR) display?
Displays inbound course and turn direction.
What is a valid entry for Inbound Course/Direction (INBD CRS/DIR)?
XXX (inbound course), XXX/X (inbound course/turn direction), /X or X (turn direction).
What happens to the display when the holding fix is the active waypoint?
Displays in magenta.
What does the Leg Time (LEG TIME) display at or below 14,000 feet?
Displays 1.0 MIN.
What does the Leg Time (LEG TIME) display above 14,000 feet?
Displays 1.5 MIN.
What is the display time for LEG TIME at or below 14,000 feet?
1.0 MIN
Displays 1.5 MIN above 14,000 feet.
What does the LEG DIST normally display?
Dashes
Allows entry of leg distance for hold.
What are valid entries for LEG DIST?
X, XX, X.X, or XX.X
Where X is any integer.
What happens when the ERASE function is used?
Erases all FMC modifications
This resets any changes made in the Flight Management Computer.
What is displayed for SPD/TGT ALT when there is a fix speed/altitude constraint?
Dashes
Manual entries are displayed in large font.
What occurs when a target altitude lower than CRZ ALT is entered during cruise?
Modifies the DESCENT page and displays a T/D
The DESCENT page remains active unless a new cruise altitude is entered.
What must be entered in IR when descending to a HOLD with VNAV active?
The clearance altitude
This prevents the airplane from leveling when sequencing the holding fix.
What is the display for LEG TIME when an entry is made on the LEG DIST line?
Displays dashes
Indicates that a valid entry is required.
Fill in the blank: A valid entry for LEG TIME is _______.
X, X.X, or .X
True or False: The FMC adjusts the leg time to 1.5 MIN when climbing or descending above 14,000 feet.
True
What is the purpose of the DIY ETA function?
Not specified in the provided text
Further details would be needed to answer this question.
What is the display time for LEG TIME at or below 14,000 feet?
1.0 MIN
Displays 1.5 MIN above 14,000 feet.
What does the LEG DIST normally display?
Dashes
Allows entry of leg distance for hold.
What are valid entries for LEG DIST?
X, XX, X.X, or XX.X
Where X is any integer.
What happens when the ERASE function is used?
Erases all FMC modifications
This resets any changes made in the Flight Management Computer.
What is displayed for SPD/TGT ALT when there is a fix speed/altitude constraint?
Dashes
Manual entries are displayed in large font.
What occurs when a target altitude lower than CRZ ALT is entered during cruise?
Modifies the DESCENT page and displays a T/D
The DESCENT page remains active unless a new cruise altitude is entered.
What must be entered in IR when descending to a HOLD with VNAV active?
The clearance altitude
This prevents the airplane from leveling when sequencing the holding fix.
What is the display for LEG TIME when an entry is made on the LEG DIST line?
Displays dashes
Indicates that a valid entry is required.
Fill in the blank: A valid entry for LEG TIME is _______.
X, X.X, or .X
True or False: The FMC adjusts the leg time to 1.5 MIN when climbing or descending above 14,000 feet.
True
What is the purpose of the DIY ETA function?
Not specified in the provided text
Further details would be needed to answer this question.
What does FIX ETA display when there is no EFC TIME entry?
Displays time the airplane will next pass the holding fix
EFC TIME refers to the Expect Further Clearance Time
What does FIX ETA display when there is an EFC TIME entry?
Displays time the airplane will pass the holding fix after the EFC time
The FMC uses this time for calculating downtrack ETAs and fuel values
What is the valid entry format for Expect Further Clearance Time (EFC TIME)?
XXXX (time)
Normally displays dashes when no entry is made
What does Hold Available (HOLD AVAIL) indicate?
Displays holding time available before requiring reserve fuel to reach the destination
What is displayed under BEST SPEED?
Displays the best holding speed for the airplane gross weight, altitude, and flap setting
May exceed ICAO limit speed
How can the HOLD page for existing holds be accessed?
Select the HOLD key to display the hold page for the first holding pattern
What happens when the hold is the next LNAV event?
Active commands display in magenta
How can new holding patterns be added?
Using the NEXT HOLD prompt
What are the two ways to execute an exit from holding?
- Deleting or bypassing the HOLD AT waypoint on the ACT RTE LEGS page
- Selecting and executing EXIT HOLD> on the ACT RTE HOLD page
What happens after executing the exit hold?
Only the remaining portion of the holding pattern back to the holding fix displays
Can the exit from the holding pattern occur prior to crossing the holding fix?
Yes, if the course to the next waypoint is not closely aligned with the holding inbound course
What does the FMC do automatically in some holding patterns under certain conditions?
Commands an exit from some holding patterns in procedures
What is the function of the HOLD Page in the context of flight management?
Monitors and changes holding parameters
What is the purpose of the FMC in relation to FIX ETA during holding?
Calculates downtrack ETAs and fuel values based on departing the holding fix at the new FIX ETA
What does FMC stand for in aviation?
Flight Management Computer
The Flight Management Computer is a fundamental component of modern aircraft navigation systems.
What happens to the airplane during an instrument approach holding pattern designed as a course reversal?
The airplane exits holding upon arrival at the holding fix inbound.
The procedure is indicated by the header at 1L displaying PROC HOLD.
Under what condition does the airplane exit holding in some SIDs?
When arriving at an altitude.
The header at IL displays HOLD AT during this process.
What is indicated by the header at 1L during a holding procedure?
PROC HOLD
This indicates that the aircraft is following a procedure for holding.
What information is displayed in the HOLD page for existing holds?
- Hold Exists in Route
- ACT RTE 1 HOLD
- FIX
- PAE
- QUAD/RADIAL
- INBD
- LEG
- CRS/ DIR
- TURN
- TIME
- DIST
- ALT
- ETA
- EFC
- SPEED
This information is crucial for pilots to manage holding patterns effectively.
Fill in the blank: The airplane exits holding when arriving at an _______.
altitude
This is specific to certain Standard Instrument Departures (SIDs).
What does the term ‘EFC’ stand for in the context of holding patterns?
Expected Further Clearance
This term is used to indicate the anticipated time for the aircraft to receive further instructions.
True or False: The FMC can autonomously command exits from holding patterns.
True
The FMC is designed to manage various flight procedures, including exits from holding patterns.
What does the ‘NEXT HOLD’ section display?
Information about the next holding pattern
This includes details necessary for transitioning to the next phase of flight.
What is the function of the NEXT HOLD selection in the B787?
Displays a new hold page for a new holding pattern entry
What does the EXIT HOLD selection do in the B787?
Arms a holding pattern exit; EXIT ARMED displays in shaded white
What happens when the EXIT HOLD is executed?
Airplane returns to the holding fix via the inbound course for holding pattern exit
What is the purpose of the Tuning and Control Panel (TCP) in alternate navigation?
Provides backup navigation capability in case of unrecoverable loss of displays or FMCs
Under normal power conditions, how is alternate navigation accessed?
By pushing the NAV key on any of the three TCPs
Which TCP is available for alternate navigation use on standby power?
Only the left (Captain’s) TCP
What type of information is displayed during alternate navigation?
Back-up navigation information on the TCPs and ISFD
What capabilities are not available when alternate navigation is in use?
LNAV and VNAV
Can autopilot and autothrottles be available during alternate navigation?
Yes, they may be available
What is the limitation of the TCPs in terms of navigation database during alternate navigation?
They do not have a performance or navigation database
How many waypoints can be manually entered on the ALTN NAV page?
A single waypoint
What does the ALTN NAV page provide?
A stand-alone single waypoint navigation capability
What must be done with the waypoint on the ALTN NAV page?
Must be manually updated as required
What are the two TCP pages that the alternate navigation system operates from?
- ALTN NAV
- ALTN NAV RADIO
What is the function of the NEXT HOLD selection in the B787?
Displays a new hold page for a new holding pattern entry
What does the EXIT HOLD selection do in the B787?
Arms a holding pattern exit; EXIT ARMED displays in shaded white
What happens when the EXIT HOLD is executed?
Airplane returns to the holding fix via the inbound course for holding pattern exit
What is the purpose of the Tuning and Control Panel (TCP) in alternate navigation?
Provides backup navigation capability in case of unrecoverable loss of displays or FMCs
Under normal power conditions, how is alternate navigation accessed?
By pushing the NAV key on any of the three TCPs
Which TCP is available for alternate navigation use on standby power?
Only the left (Captain’s) TCP
What type of information is displayed during alternate navigation?
Back-up navigation information on the TCPs and ISFD
What capabilities are not available when alternate navigation is in use?
LNAV and VNAV
Can autopilot and autothrottles be available during alternate navigation?
Yes, they may be available
What is the limitation of the TCPs in terms of navigation database during alternate navigation?
They do not have a performance or navigation database
How many waypoints can be manually entered on the ALTN NAV page?
A single waypoint
What does the ALTN NAV page provide?
A stand-alone single waypoint navigation capability
What must be done with the waypoint on the ALTN NAV page?
Must be manually updated as required
What are the two TCP pages that the alternate navigation system operates from?
- ALTN NAV
- ALTN NAV RADIO
What does the Present Position display?
Current left integrated navigation receiver latitude and longitude to the nearest tenth of a minute.
How do you enter a TO waypoint latitude?
Select N or S on the latitude hemisphere selection key, enter latitude in degrees (D) and minutes (M) using DDMM.M format.
What is the default setting for TO latitude hemisphere?
Current latitude hemisphere.
What does the Hemispherical Selection Key (Latitude) do?
Toggles between northern and southern hemispheres.
What does the Ground Track (GTK) display?
Current left integrated navigation receiver true ground track to the nearest whole degree.
What does the Groundspeed (GS) display?
Current left integrated navigation receiver true groundspeed to the nearest whole knot.
How do you enter a TO waypoint longitude?
Select W or E on the longitude hemisphere selection key, enter longitude in degrees (D) and minutes (M) using DDDMM.M format.
What is the default setting for TO longitude hemisphere?
Current longitude hemisphere.
What is the purpose of the Track To (TRK TO) function?
Provides navigation tracking information.
Fill in the blank: The TO LAT field requires latitude in the _______ format.
DDMM.M
Fill in the blank: The TO LONG field requires longitude in the _______ format.
DDDMM.M
True or False: The selection made on the Hemispherical Selection Key is displayed in large red font.
False
What does the Present Position display?
Current left integrated navigation receiver latitude and longitude to the nearest tenth of a minute.
How do you enter a TO waypoint latitude?
Select N or S on the latitude hemisphere selection key, enter latitude in degrees (D) and minutes (M) using DDMM.M format.
What is the default setting for TO latitude hemisphere?
Current latitude hemisphere.
What does the Hemispherical Selection Key (Latitude) do?
Toggles between northern and southern hemispheres.
What does the Ground Track (GTK) display?
Current left integrated navigation receiver true ground track to the nearest whole degree.
What does the Groundspeed (GS) display?
Current left integrated navigation receiver true groundspeed to the nearest whole knot.
How do you enter a TO waypoint longitude?
Select W or E on the longitude hemisphere selection key, enter longitude in degrees (D) and minutes (M) using DDDMM.M format.
What is the default setting for TO longitude hemisphere?
Current longitude hemisphere.
What is the purpose of the Track To (TRK TO) function?
Provides navigation tracking information.
Fill in the blank: The TO LAT field requires latitude in the _______ format.
DDMM.M
Fill in the blank: The TO LONG field requires longitude in the _______ format.
DDDMM.M
True or False: The selection made on the Hemispherical Selection Key is displayed in large red font.
False
What does the Track To (TRK TO) function display?
True track from current airplane position to entered waypoint in whole degrees, displayed in magenta font
What is the purpose of the Hemispherical Selection Key (Longitude)?
Toggles between western and eastern hemispheres, displayed in large green font
What does Time To Go (TTG) indicate?
Time to go from current airplane position to entered waypoint based on groundspeed, displayed in HH:MM format
What is the accuracy of the Time To Go (TTG) display?
Better than or equal to 1 minute
What does Distance To Go (DTG) show?
Distance to go from current airplane position to entered waypoint in nautical miles
What is the accuracy of the Distance To Go (DTG) display?
Better than or equal to 10 nautical miles
What is the function of the Alternate Navigation Radio Page?
Provides a backup means of tuning the ILS frequency and course or GLS channel into the left integrated navigation receiver (INR)
What is displayed on the captain’s PFD when using alternate navigation?
Left side ILS or GLS deviations
What does the EICAS advisory message TCP ALTN NAV indicate?
Alternate navigation is selected ON and allows different frequencies/channels to be tuned for left and right ILS or GLS
What must pilots ensure when using alternate navigation?
Correct ILS frequencies or GLS channels are tuned for the approach being flown
What information does the PFD approach data block show?
Tuned ILS frequency or GLS channel or the received ident for the on-side system
Fill in the blank: The default setting for the Hemispherical Selection Key is the _______.
Current longitude hemisphere
What does the Track To (TRK TO) function display?
True track from current airplane position to entered waypoint in whole degrees, displayed in magenta font
What is the purpose of the Hemispherical Selection Key (Longitude)?
Toggles between western and eastern hemispheres, displayed in large green font
What does Time To Go (TTG) indicate?
Time to go from current airplane position to entered waypoint based on groundspeed, displayed in HH:MM format
What is the accuracy of the Time To Go (TTG) display?
Better than or equal to 1 minute
What does Distance To Go (DTG) show?
Distance to go from current airplane position to entered waypoint in nautical miles
What is the accuracy of the Distance To Go (DTG) display?
Better than or equal to 10 nautical miles
What is the function of the Alternate Navigation Radio Page?
Provides a backup means of tuning the ILS frequency and course or GLS channel into the left integrated navigation receiver (INR)
What is displayed on the captain’s PFD when using alternate navigation?
Left side ILS or GLS deviations
What does the EICAS advisory message TCP ALTN NAV indicate?
Alternate navigation is selected ON and allows different frequencies/channels to be tuned for left and right ILS or GLS
What must pilots ensure when using alternate navigation?
Correct ILS frequencies or GLS channels are tuned for the approach being flown
What information does the PFD approach data block show?
Tuned ILS frequency or GLS channel or the received ident for the on-side system
Fill in the blank: The default setting for the Hemispherical Selection Key is the _______.
Current longitude hemisphere
What does the ‘Push’ function do in Alternate Navigation?
Enters an ILS frequency or GLS channel from the scratchpad when in backup mode
Entry format must be NNN.NN for an ILS frequency or NNNNN for a GLS channel. Defaults to most recently tuned ILS frequency or GLS channel if available.
What color indicates an inactive ILS frequency or GLS channel?
Cyan
It changes to white when active.
What is the purpose of the ‘Course’ function in Alternate Navigation?
Enters an ILS course from the scratchpad when in backup mode
Defaults to the most recently tuned ILS course if available.
What does the ‘Control (CTRL)’ function do?
Selects backup navigation tuning ON (enabled) or OFF (disabled)
ON displays ‘ON’ in large green font and changes ILS-GLS and COURSE colors from cyan to white.
What does the EICAS advisory message ‘TCP ALTN NAV’ indicate?
Backup navigation tuning is ON
ILS frequency and course or GLS channel may be tuned into the left INR.
Fill in the blank: The ‘OFF’ state of Control (CTRL) displays ______ in large green font.
OFF
What happens to the ILS-GLS and COURSE colors when Control (CTRL) is OFF?
Changes from white to cyan
ILS and GLS may not be tuned from the ALTN NAV RADIO page.
What information does the ISFD display when backup navigation tuning is ON?
Left INR ILS or GLS deviations
True or False: The Alternate Navigation Radio Page allows tuning of ILS and GLS when Control (CTRL) is OFF.
False
ILS and GLS may not be tuned from the ALTN NAV RADIO page when OFF.
What does the ‘Push’ function do in Alternate Navigation?
Enters an ILS frequency or GLS channel from the scratchpad when in backup mode
Entry format must be NNN.NN for an ILS frequency or NNNNN for a GLS channel. Defaults to most recently tuned ILS frequency or GLS channel if available.
What color indicates an inactive ILS frequency or GLS channel?
Cyan
It changes to white when active.
What is the purpose of the ‘Course’ function in Alternate Navigation?
Enters an ILS course from the scratchpad when in backup mode
Defaults to the most recently tuned ILS course if available.
What does the ‘Control (CTRL)’ function do?
Selects backup navigation tuning ON (enabled) or OFF (disabled)
ON displays ‘ON’ in large green font and changes ILS-GLS and COURSE colors from cyan to white.
What does the EICAS advisory message ‘TCP ALTN NAV’ indicate?
Backup navigation tuning is ON
ILS frequency and course or GLS channel may be tuned into the left INR.
Fill in the blank: The ‘OFF’ state of Control (CTRL) displays ______ in large green font.
OFF
What happens to the ILS-GLS and COURSE colors when Control (CTRL) is OFF?
Changes from white to cyan
ILS and GLS may not be tuned from the ALTN NAV RADIO page.
What information does the ISFD display when backup navigation tuning is ON?
Left INR ILS or GLS deviations
True or False: The Alternate Navigation Radio Page allows tuning of ILS and GLS when Control (CTRL) is OFF.
False
ILS and GLS may not be tuned from the ALTN NAV RADIO page when OFF.
What does the ‘OFF’ indication in the Alternate Navigation System signify?
‘OFF’ displayed in large green font
Indicates that the alternate navigation system is inactive.
How do ILS-GLS and COURSE indications change when the Alternate Navigation System is activated?
Change color from white to cyan
This visual change helps pilots identify navigation status.
Can ILS and GLS be tuned from the ALTN NAV RADIO page?
No, ILS and GLS may not be tuned from the ALTN NAV RADIO page
Tuning is controlled by the FMC.
What happens to the EICAS advisory message when Alternate Navigation is activated?
EICAS advisory message TCP ALTN NAV removed from view
Indicates successful activation of alternate navigation.
Who controls the tuning of the left ILS and left GLS?
Controlled by the FMC
FMC stands for Flight Management Computer.
What does the EICAS message ‘ADS-B OUT’ indicate?
The ADS-B Out function is inoperative
Advisory message indicating an issue with the Automatic Dependent Surveillance–Broadcast system.
What does the EICAS message ‘AHRU ALIGN MODE L’ signify?
The left AHRU is in the Align mode
AHRU stands for Attitude and Heading Reference Unit.
What does the EICAS message ‘FMC HOLD AIRSPACE’ suggest?
The FMC calculated holding pattern is larger than the holding pattern airspace protection
Indicates a potential issue with holding pattern execution.
Fill in the blank: The AHRU is only providing _______ guidance.
pitch and roll guidance
Suggests a limitation in navigational capability.
What are the conditions under which the EICAS message ‘FMC INTERCEPT HDG’ appears?
Both LNAV is armed and the airplane is not on an intercept heading to the active leg
LNAV stands for lateral navigation.
