CH11 FLT MANAGEMENT, NAVIGATION Flashcards
What does the Line Select Key do?
Moves data from scratchpad to selected line, moves data from selected line to scratchpad, selects page, procedure, or performance mode, deletes data from selected line when DELETE displays in scratchpad
What are the conventions for using the Line Select Key?
Scratchpad must be blank for line select transfer, data cannot be transferred to a blank line, a blank scratchpad cannot be transferred to a line, not all data can be modified, message displays if inappropriate entries are attempted
What is displayed in the scratchpad?
Crew entered data or crew line-selected data up to 24 characters may be entered
How can data be transferred to and from the scratchpad?
By pushing the cursor select switch on the cursor control device, cursor control selector, or by pushing the ENTER key on the multifunction keypad
What is the function of the CDU Help Window?
Displays error/help messages to the crew
What does the Date Display show?
Current UTC date from the GPS
Fill in the blank: The scratchpad can hold up to ______ characters at one time.
24 characters
True or False: Data can be transferred to a blank line in the scratchpad.
False
What happens if inappropriate entries are attempted in the Line Select Key?
A message displays
What does the CDU function key ‘INIT REF’ do?
Displays page for data initialization or for reference data
This key is used to set up initial data for flight management.
What is the purpose of the ‘RTE’ function key?
Displays page to input or change origin, destination, route and flight number
This key allows pilots to modify the flight plan.
What does the ‘DEP ARR’ key allow the user to do?
Displays page to input or change departure and arrival procedures
Essential for adjusting the flight’s takeoff and landing processes.
What is the function of the ‘ALTN’ key?
Displays page to modify destination and route for alternate diversion
This is crucial for flight safety in case of route changes.
What information can be accessed using the ‘VNAV’ function key?
Displays page to view or change vertical navigation path data
Important for managing altitude and descent profiles.
What does the ‘FIX’ function key do?
Displays page to create reference points on ND map
Helps in navigation by establishing waypoints.
What does the ‘LEGS’ function key display?
Displays page to evaluate or modify lateral and vertical route data
Allows for adjustments to the planned route.
What is the purpose of the ‘HOLD’ function key?
Displays page to create holding patterns and display holding pattern data, or to exit holding pattern
Used in situations where a flight must delay landing.
What information is provided by the ‘FMC COMM’ function key?
Displays FMC datalink status page
Shows the communication status of the flight management system.
What can be viewed on the ‘PROG’ page?
Displays dynamic flight and navigation data, including waypoint and destination ETAs, fuel remaining, and arrival estimates
Critical for real-time monitoring of flight progress.
What can the user do with the ‘NAV RAD’ function key?
Displays page to view or control navigation radio tuning
Necessary for setting radio frequencies for navigation.
What is the function of the ‘OFFSET’ key?
Displays lateral offset page
Allows for adjustments in lateral navigation paths.
What does the ‘REQUIRED TIME OF ARRIVAL’ key display?
Displays RTA LIMITS page
Used to manage expected arrival times.
What does the ‘PREV PAGE’ function do?
Displays previous page of multiple page displays
Useful for navigating through lengthy data.
What does the ‘NEXT PAGE’ function do?
Displays next page of multiple page displays
Allows users to continue through the information presented.
What does a green Execute Light indicate?
Active data is modified but not executed
Signals that changes are pending confirmation.
What does the color cyan indicate on the CDU page?
Inactive Route
Indicates that a route is not currently active.
What does black text on a white background signify on the CDU?
Flight Plan Modification Not Executed
Indicates that a modification to the flight plan has not been carried out.
What color represents an active waypoint, airspeed, or altitude on the CDU?
Magenta
Used to highlight critical flight parameters.
On the CDU, what does a route discontinuity indicate?
A break in the flight route
This requires pilot attention to resolve.
Fill in the blank: The B787 FCOM includes systems description and _______.
Flight Management, Navigation Controls and Indicators
How many pages are indicated in the CDU for the RTE 1?
3
The CDU displays multiple pages for route information.
What is the significance of the CDU page color in the B787?
It indicates different statuses of flight parameters and routes
Color coding helps pilots quickly assess flight information.
True or False: The CDU displays only active routes in magenta.
False
Inactive routes are shown in cyan.
What does ‘MOD’ indicate on the CDU?
Modification
Refers to changes made or pending to the flight plan.
What information is typically displayed in the CDU for waypoints?
Distance, heading, and altitude
Essential for navigation and flight planning.
Fill in the blank: The B787 QRH stands for _______.
Quick Reference Handbook
What does ‘LEGS’ refer to on the CDU?
Segments of the flight route
Each leg represents a specific section of the flight path.
What does the color black represent in the B787 Flight Management System CDU Page?
Background color of page and modifications
MOD precedes page titles of modified pages.
What does the color cyan indicate in the B787 Flight Management System CDU Page?
Inactive RTE page title and inactive key outline
What does the color green signify in the B787 Flight Management System CDU Page?
Navigation radio data and active state of two-position and three-position selectors
What does the color magenta represent in the B787 Flight Management System CDU Page?
Data used by FMC for lateral and vertical flight commands, active waypoint, active airspeed, active altitude, cursor, and highlight box
What does the shaded gray color indicate in the B787 Flight Management System CDU Page?
Input field
What does the color white represent in the B787 Flight Management System CDU Page?
Background for modified text and most data
What device is used to interact with the CDU?
Cursor Control Device (CCD) or Cursor Control Selector (CCS)
The CCD allows hovering to display the highlight box, while the CCS moves the highlight box up or down.
How does the highlight box behave when using the CCS?
Moves down clockwise and up counterclockwise
The highlight box does not return to the top or bottom of the display when it reaches the limits.
What are the components of each CDU page?
Active and inactive areas
The highlight box only displays over an active area.
What actions can be performed when the highlight box is displayed?
Data entry or line key selection
This allows pilots to interact with the CDU effectively.
How can the highlight box be manually manipulated?
Using the four corners on the CCD touch pad
Touching these corners highlights the corresponding line select key position.
What are the methods to perform an enter or line key selection?
Pushing the ENTER key, Cursor Select Switch on multifunction keypad, or on the CCD
These actions allow pilots to confirm selections.
What feature aids data entry during preflight?
Autotabbing feature
This feature can be enabled or disabled by the airline and guides the pilot through data entry.
When does autotabbing operate?
When entering a page from a line select key
It does not operate when a function key is used to enter a page.
On which FMC pages is autotabbing enabled?
- ROUTE 1/X
- PERF INIT
- TAKEOFF REF 1/2
These pages allow for a more streamlined data entry process.
What happens if a valid entry is made in a field not in the autotabbing sequence?
The highlight does not move; must be moved manually
The pilot retains control over the highlight box position in this case.
What must the pilot do after performing a delete action?
Manually move the highlight box to the next desired field
This ensures that the pilot can continue data entry smoothly.
What areas does autotabbing operate in?
Display area adjacent to the line selection keys
It does not include the CDU function keys.
When is autotabbing discontinued?
After the FMS preflight is complete
This indicates the end of the guided data entry process.
What does IRS stand for in the context of the B787?
Inertial Reference System
The IRS is crucial for navigation and flight management.
What happens when the ON BAT light is illuminated?
Airplane battery powers IRS
The ON BAT light illuminates only when IRS has been aligned on airplane or ground power.
What is indicated by the warning horn in the nose wheel well?
IRS is depleting the battery
This alert is for the ground crew on the ground.
What is the function of the IRS selectors?
Control power to the associated IRS
ON applies power; OFF removes power.
True or False: IRS selectors can be moved to the OFF position without being pulled out first.
False
IRS selectors must be pulled out before moving to the OFF position.
Where are the Tuning and Control Panels (TCPs) located?
Aft aisle stand
There are three TCPs for accessing transponder and navigation functions.
Fill in the blank: The transponder uses the Alerting and _______ Control Panel (ATP).
Transponder
ATP is used in conjunction with the TCP for additional functions.
What does the B787 FCOM stand for?
Flight Crew Operating Manual
It contains comprehensive information about the aircraft systems and operations.
What type of systems are described in the B787 FCOM?
Systems Description
Includes details about the Inertial Reference System (IRS) among others.
What does STBY mean in the context of the Transponder/TCAS Mode Selector?
Transponder not active
In this mode, the transponder does not transmit any signals.
What happens when the ALT RPG (altitude reporting) is set to OFF?
Transponder enabled in modes A and S, altitude reporting disabled, ADS-B out enabled
This setting allows the transponder to operate without reporting altitude.
What are the modes enabled when XPDR (transponder) is selected?
Modes A, C, and S
In flight, altitude reporting is enabled and ADS-B out is active.
What does the TA (traffic advisory) ONLY mode indicate?
Traffic advisory only, no resolution advisory
This mode alerts the crew of nearby traffic but does not provide resolution guidance.
What is the function of the IDENT switch?
Transmits an identification signal
This is used to help air traffic control identify the aircraft on radar.
What can the flight crew do from the Tuning and Control Panel (TCP) SYS POWER screen?
Remove power from the transponders
This action is taken in response to a loss of cooling in the forward E/E bay.
What does the EICAS advisory message EQUIP COOLING FWD indicate?
Loss of cooling in the forward E/E bay
This indicates a potential issue that may require the crew to take action regarding equipment cooling.
Fill in the blank: The Transponder Alerting and Transponder Control Panel (ATP) includes the __________ mode selector.
[Transponder/TCAS]
This panel is crucial for managing transponder settings and alerts.
What is the primary purpose of the Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS)?
To provide traffic advisories and resolution advisories
TCAS helps prevent mid-air collisions by alerting pilots to nearby aircraft.
What does the Weather Radar Tuning and Control Panel (TCP) allow you to adjust?
Gain settings
Gain settings can be increased or decreased using the INCR and DECR controls.
How is the current gain setting displayed on the Weather Radar Tuning and Control Panel?
Between line select keys IL and 2L
The gain setting defaults to a calibrated gain level.
What happens if the gain is adjusted below the default calibrated gain level in WX and WX+T modes?
Weather radar returns may be reduced or not displayed
This indicates the importance of maintaining calibrated levels for accurate data.
What does the WX mode display on the Weather Radar Tuning and Control Panel?
Weather radar returns
This mode is essential for monitoring weather conditions.
What is the function of the WX+T mode?
Displays weather returns and turbulence within precipitation
Turbulence within 40 NM is shown at all display ranges.
What is required for turbulence detection by the radar?
Presence of detectable precipitation
Clear air turbulence cannot be detected by radar.
What does the MAP mode display?
Ground returns at the selected gain level
This mode is useful for situational awareness regarding terrain.
How is the selected mode displayed on the Weather Radar Tuning and Control Panel?
In large green font
This enhances visibility for the pilot.
What does the tilt control allow the user to select?
Manual (MAN) or automatic (AUTO) antenna tilt
This selection helps optimize radar performance.
What does the Tuning and Control Panel do in the Weather Radar System?
It toggles the weather radar system between the left and right system
The selected system is highlighted in large font green text, with the left system as the default selection.
What is the function of the Weather Radar Test button?
Tests weather radar system operation without transmitting
A test pattern and PWS symbol display along with any fault messages when the test is conducted.
What happens during a weather radar test when on the ground?
Activates a 12 second test with specific alerts
The test includes amber WINDSHEAR annunciation, aural MONITOR RADAR DISPLAY, and several subsequent alerts.
What does the amber WINDSHEAR annunciation indicate during the test?
It indicates the beginning of the weather radar test
It is followed by aural alerts and the illumination of the Master Warning Light.
What occurs after the amber WINDSHEAR annunciation during the test?
Master Warning Light illuminates and EICAS alert message WINDSHEAR SYS displays
This is part of the sequence of alerts during the weather radar test.
What triggers the red WINDSHEAR annunciation during the test?
It is triggered at the end of the test sequence
Accompanied by aural alerts stating WINDSHEAR AHEAD.
What must occur for the test pattern and PWS symbol to remain displayed?
WXR must not be deselected or a PWS alert must not occur
The display remains until specific actions are taken.
What happens when WXR TEST is selected ON?
All other WXR modes are automatically set to OFF
This includes WX, WX+T, and MAP modes.
What occurs when WXR TEST is switched back to OFF?
The previously active WXR mode is automatically set to ON
This allows for seamless transition back to normal operation.
What are the components included in navigation systems?
- Global Positioning System (GPS)
- Air Data Reference System (ADRS)
- Inertial Reference System (IRS)
- VOR
- DME
- ILS
- ATC transponder
- Weather radar
- Flight Management System (FMS)
The FMS is described in the Flight Management System Description section of the B787 documentation.
What happens if the IRS becomes inoperative during flight?
The FMC automatically uses GPS data to navigate.
No EICAS message is displayed when this occurs.
How do the left and right GPS receivers function?
They are independent and supply very accurate position data to the IRS.
The IRS then supplies a hybrid GPS inertial position to the FMC.
What does the ND display when the FMC uses GPS position updates?
The ND annunciates GPS.
This indicates that the navigation is relying on GPS data.
What is displayed on the ND when POS (position) is selected?
The ND map displays raw GPS position as left and right GPS symbols.
The GPS symbols display as a single symbol when the GPS receivers calculate the same position.
What should GPS position updates be used for during approaches?
GPS position updates should be used during all approaches referenced to the WGS-84 reference datum.
This ensures accurate navigation during critical phases of flight.
When should GPS updates be inhibited?
GPS updates should be inhibited for all other approach operations unless other appropriate procedures are used.
This is to prevent reliance on potentially inaccurate data.
True or False: The GPS tuning is manual.
False.
All GPS tuning is automatic.
What advisory message alerts the crew when both GPS systems have failed?
EICAS advisory message GPS.
This alerts the crew to a critical navigation failure.
Fill in the blank: The GPS data is used to provide very accurate _______ to the IRS.
position data.
This data is essential for accurate navigation.
What is the function of the GPS NAV prompt on the POS REF page 3/4?
To inhibit GPS navigation data.
This is used when GPS data might not be reliable.
What does the ADRS provide for the airplane?
Airplane altitude and airspeed for displays, flight management system, flight controls, engine controls, and other systems.
From where does the ADRS receive air data?
Left, center, and right pitot and static systems.
What happens when voted ADRS air data is invalid?
Backup airspeed (AA SPD) and/or backup altitude (GPS ALT) are automatically provided by the IRS and GPS systems.
What are the major components of the Inertial Reference System (IRS)?
Inertial reference units (IRUs) and attitude and heading reference units (AHRUs).
What does the IRU combine to provide hybrid GPS inertial position outputs?
Inertial reference functions with GPS position information.
What is required for initial power-up of the IRS?
Battery bus power and the IRS switches to be ON.
What does the ON BAT light indicate?
The IRS is on battery power.
How long does the alignment of the IRUs take at mid latitudes?
Approximately 7 to 10 minutes.
What happens if the GPS position is not available during IRU alignment?
Dashes are replaced with boxes and present position must be entered to complete the alignment.
What is the function of the air data modules in the ADRS?
Convert sensed analog pressures to digital values for air data functions.
True or False: The integrated standby flight display (ISFD) data is independent of IRU and AHRU values.
True.
Fill in the blank: The ADRS sends trusted voted air data to the _______.
PFDs.
What does the EICAS memo message IRU ALIGN MODE L+R indicate?
The IRUs are in align mode.
What is displayed on the PFDs when both voted and backup air data is unavailable?
ISFD altitude (ISFD ALT) and ISFD airspeed (ISFD SPD).
What alerts maintenance personnel that the IRS is on battery power?
The horn in the landing gear wheel well sounds.
What is the role of angle of attack sensors in the ADRS?
Provide additional data for air data functions.
List the systems that the IRS calculates data for.
- Displays
- Flight management system
- Flight controls
- Engine controls
- Other systems
What is displayed in the SET INERTIAL POS line if GPS position is not available?
Boxes replacing dashes.
How long can alignment take at high latitudes?
Up to 17 minutes.
What advisory message is displayed when the latitude/longitude position is not close to the origin airport?
FMC MESSAGE and INERTIAL/ORIGIN DISAGREE
This message alerts the crew to a discrepancy in the entered inertial position.
What happens if the crew-entered latitude/longitude position fails internal IRU comparison tests?
EICAS advisory message FMC MESSAGE and ENTER INERTIAL POSITION
This indicates that the entered position is not acceptable and requires correction.
What occurs if a new airplane present position entry fails the internal check twice?
EICAS advisory message FMC MESSAGE and ALIGNMENT REINITIATED
The system will automatically start a new alignment cycle.
What mode does the IRS change to after alignment is complete?
Navigate mode
This allows the airplane to be moved and continue its flight operations.
What happens to the IRS when the airplane stops for an extended period?
Changes to automatic realign mode
The IRS refines the alignment until the airplane moves again.
In automatic realign mode, what happens to IRS velocity and acceleration errors?
Reset to zero
This helps maintain accurate inertial positioning during the realignment process.
What capability does the IRU have while in flight?
Complete alignment recovery from in-flight loss of alignment
This relies on GPS data and restores full navigation capability within about 10 minutes.
What is recommended if the total time in navigation mode is expected to exceed 18 hours?
A position update
This helps ensure continued accuracy in navigation.
What advisory message is displayed if both IRUs fail?
NAV IRU
Indicates a failure in the inertial reference units.
What solution does the FMC use when both IRUs fail?
Hybrid GPS inertial position solution using AHRUs inertial sensors
This combines GPS data with inertial sensor information for continued navigation.
What is the role of the Attitude and Heading Reference Unit (AHRU)?
Supply a stable source of attitude, heading, and rate information
AHRUs contribute to hybrid GPS inertial positioning but do not provide independent inertial position.
What caution message is displayed if the IRS fails?
NAV INERTIAL SYS
Indicates failure of both AHRUs and IRUs.
What does the FMC rely on if the IRS is inoperative?
GPS output from integrated navigation radios (INRs)
This allows the FMC to continue providing necessary position and track data.
What happens to LNAV and VNAV guidance if the IRS fails?
Not available
This limits certain autopilot functions when IRS is inoperative.
What prompt does the CDU POS INIT page display immediately after any IRU or AHRU failure?
SET HDG prompt
This indicates the need for the crew to manage heading synchronization.
What action is required from the aircrew when the IRS fails?
Use the SET HDG prompt periodically to sync display heading
This ensures that the display heading remains accurate relative to standby compass magnetic heading.
What happens to AFDS Modes after IRS failure?
The following AFDS Modes are inoperative:
* FPA
* G/S
* HDG HOLD/SEL
* LNAV
* LOC
* TO/GA
* TRK HOLD/SEL
* VNAV
Functions like HDG HOLD/SEL are noted as operative when standby magnetic compass heading is entered on the POS INIT page.
Which navigation functions become inoperative after IRS failure?
The following navigation functions are inoperative:
* FMC Performance Predictions
* FMC VNAV pages
* ND Wind Direction and Speed (wind arrow)
The ND map mode display references TRK after IRS failure.
What PFD function is inoperative following IRS failure?
PFD Heading is inoperative
This function can still operate if standby magnetic compass heading is entered on the POS INIT page.
What additional functions are inoperative after failure of both the IRS and GPS?
The following functions are inoperative:
* CDU active leg course and distance
* CDU direct-to a waypoint
* FMC Alternate Airport DIVERT NOW
* FMC navigation radio autotuning
* ND Map (center and expanded)
The autobrake is also inoperative after IRS failure.
True or False: The autobrake remains operative after IRS failure.
False
The autobrake is specifically mentioned as inoperative following IRS failure.
Fill in the blank: After IRS failure, the ND map mode display references _______.
TRK
This indicates the direction in which the aircraft is tracking.
How many DME systems are installed in the B787?
Two DMEs
DMEs are usually tuned by the FMC, but may also be tuned manually.
When is DME tuned manually?
When the VOR portion of a VOR/DME pair is entered on the NAV RADIO page
The FMC tunes DME as necessary for radio position updates.
What does the FMC use for position updates when more accurate sources are not available?
DME/DME radio position updates
DME/DME position updates are usually more accurate than VOR/DME updates.
What happens when navaids are inhibited on the REF NAV DATA page?
The FMC cannot tune specific DMEs
Manual DME tuning does not inhibit FMC DME tuning.
How are DME distances displayed on the B787?
On the ND map when VOR L or VOR R are selected
DME distance also displays on the PFD when the ILS receivers are tuned to a collocated DME and localizer facility.
What information does the POS REF page 2/4 display?
Identifiers of the DME stations used for FMC position updates
How many ILS receivers are installed in the B787?
Two ILS receivers
They are usually tuned by the FMC but can be tuned manually.
What conditions must be met for FMC ILS autotuning to occur?
- An ILS, LOC, back course, LDA, or SDF approach has been selected
- The airplane is within 50 NM from the top of descent, 150 NM of the landing runway threshold, or the FMC is in descent mode
What is inhibited during the first 10 minutes after takeoff?
ILS autotuning
This is to prevent clutter on the PFD.
What happens if a new approach is selected during the 10 minute takeoff inhibit period?
The ILS autotunes to the new approach frequency
This occurs even if it is during the inhibit period.
Can both ILS receivers be manually tuned at any time?
Yes, unless ILS approach tuning inhibit is active
What conditions activate ILS approach tuning inhibit?
- Autopilot is engaged or flight director is on and either the localizer or glideslope is captured
- HUD takeoff mode is active for at least 5 seconds and on the ground
What is ILS tuning enabled by?
ILS tuning is enabled when:
* TO/GA switch is pushed
* Autopilot is disengaged and both flight director switches are switched off
* MCP approach mode is deselected above 1500 feet radio altitude
* Airplane becomes airborne after a HUD TO/GA takeoff
ILS stands for Instrument Landing System, which aids in landing aircraft in low visibility conditions.
What happens to the ILS frequency when a new approach is selected on the CDU?
The ILS frequency is automatically returned when ILS tuning is enabled and a new approach is selected on the CDU.
CDU stands for Control Display Unit, used for flight management and navigation.
How can the left ILS be tuned in the event of FMC or display failures?
The left ILS can be tuned from ALTN NAV RADIO page 2/2 on the TCP.
ALTN NAV RADIO refers to an alternative navigation radio page for tuning in case of failures.
Where is the tuned ILS frequency displayed during approach mode?
The tuned ILS frequency displays on the PFD and on the ND in the approach mode.
PFD stands for Primary Flight Display and ND stands for Navigation Display.
What indicates a failure of an ILS receiver?
If an ILS receiver fails, data from the remaining ILS is displayed on both the captain’s and first officer’s displays, and the EICAS caution message SINGLE SOURCE APPROACH is displayed.
EICAS stands for Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System.
What is the purpose of the Morse code identifier in navigation?
The Morse code identifier of a tuned VOR, ILS, or DME can be converted to alpha characters and displays on the PFD and ND to monitor navigation radio reception.
VOR stands for VHF Omnidirectional Range, ILS for Instrument Landing System, and DME for Distance Measuring Equipment.
What should pilots do if the decoded identifier is incorrect?
Pilots should verify the identity of the tuned navigation station from the audio Morse code when the tuned frequency remains displayed or an incorrect identifier displays.
Incorrect identifiers may result from variations in ground station identifier quality.
How are VOR receivers typically tuned?
Two VOR receivers are usually tuned by the FMC but can be tuned manually by the crew.
FMC stands for Flight Management Computer.
How does the FMC use VOR/DME radio position updates?
The FMC uses VOR/DME radio position updates when more accurate sources are not available.
VOR/DME pairs can be inhibited on the REF NAV DATA page.
Fill in the blank: The crew manually tunes VORs on the _______ page.
NAV RADIO
The NAV RADIO page is part of the aircraft’s navigation systems.
True or False: The identifier name is compared with the FMC database for navigation accuracy.
False
The identifier name is not compared with the FMC database.
What does the NAV RADIO page display?
FMC tuned or manually tuned VOR data
The NAV RADIO page is critical for navigation and position updates.
What information does the POS REF page 2/4 show?
Identifier of the VOR and DME pair used for position updates
This information is essential for accurate positioning.
What is displayed on the ND when VORs are tuned?
Identifier or frequency of the VORs tuned
The ND (Navigation Display) provides crucial navigational data.
What do the left and right VOR bearing pointers indicate?
The related VOR check box on the ND drop-down menu is selected
This feature assists pilots in visual navigation.
What modes can the Alerting and Transponder Control Panel (ATP) control?
- ALT RPTG OFF
- STBY
- TA ONLY
- TA/RA
- XPDR
Each mode serves different functions for transponder operations.
What happens when the transponder mode selector is in TA ONLY or TA/RA?
Traffic displays on the screen
This is crucial for avoiding collisions in flight.
In what modes does the transponder respond to Mode S interrogations?
All modes except STBY
Mode S is essential for air traffic control communication.
What does the transponder provide?
- Selective interrogation
- Downlink information such as flight number, airspeed, magnetic heading, altitude, GPS position
This information is vital for situational awareness and air traffic control.
What is the role of Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B)?
Enhances air traffic monitoring and situational awareness
ADS-B is increasingly used for tracking aircraft in real-time.
What does the transponder mode selector control regarding ADS-B?
ADS-B functionality
Proper transponder settings are crucial for effective ADS-B operations.
True or False: TCAS modes should be used on the ground for ground tracking.
False
Using TCAS on the ground can lead to incorrect tracking information.
Fill in the blank: The transponder activates beacon and altitude reporting when the mode selector is in _______.
[XPDR, TA ONLY, or TA/RA]
These settings ensure the aircraft is properly reporting its position and altitude.
How is the transponder control page accessed on the TCP?
By selecting the XPDR mode select key
What are the functions controlled by the Tuning and Control Panel (TCP)?
- Altitude Mode (Absolute or Relative)
- ATC Ident function
- Mode A numeric code
- TCAS envelope (Above, Normal, or Below)
- Transponder select (Left or Right)
Which functions do the Captain and First Officer TCPs share control of?
- IDENT function
- left or right side selection
- XPDR code
What happens when changes are made on one TCP?
Changes are reflected on the center and cross-side TCPs
Which settings control only the on-side TCAS display?
TCAS envelope and altitude settings
What can the center TCP control?
Both left and right side transponders
What occurs if the on-side transponder fails?
The TCP automatically switches to the cross-side transponder
What is displayed if both transponders fail?
EICAS advisory message TRANSPONDER
What can be done if altitude reporting fails?
The transponder can be switched to the alternate altitude source
What does the EICAS advisory message indicate if the ATP is inoperative?
TRANSPONDER PANEL
How can the transponder and TCAS modes be set if the ATP fails?
Using the TCP
How do you access the ALERT/XPDR CTL page?
From the MENU page by turning ALERT/XPDR CTL to ON and selecting the ALERT/XPDR CTL page
What must be done to set transponder and TCAS modes when the ALERT/XPDR CTL page is selected ON?
They can be set via the ALERT/XPDR CTL page
What components make up the weather radar system?
A transmitter/receiver unit and antenna
The control is managed through the TCP.
How is the weather radar system activated?
At least one weather radar system must be selected ON from the TCP SYS POWER screen
This is necessary for the WXR switch or check box to function.
What does the WXR switch on the EFIS control panel do?
Controls power to the transmitter/receiver and allows weather radar returns to display on the ND and/or mini-map
It performs the same function as the WXR check box on the ND drop-down menu.
What happens to the radar display range at ND ranges greater than 320 NM?
WXR can still be displayed but only shows weather returns out to 320 NM
When does the weather radar perform self-tests?
On power up, during each sweep, and when descending through 2,300 feet AGL
Can the weather radar sense clear air turbulence?
No, it can only sense turbulence when there is sufficient precipitation
What additional feature does the weather radar provide?
Predictive windshear alerting
Refer to Predictive Windshear (PWS) Display and Annunciations for more information.
What is the purpose of the flight management system (FMS)?
Aids the flight crew with navigation, in-flight performance optimization, automatic fuel monitoring, and flight deck displays
What are the two automatic flight functions managed by the FMS?
Lateral flight path (LNAV) and vertical flight path (VNAV)
What data does the flight crew enter into the CDUs?
Applicable route and flight data
How does the FMS calculate commands for flight path control?
Uses the navigation database, airplane position, and supporting systems data
What does the FMS do with navigation radios?
Tunes the navigation radios and sets courses
What types of flight procedures can the FMS support?
Routes, SIDs, STARs, holding patterns, and procedure turns
What is the basis of the flight management system?
The flight management computer function (FMC)
How many independent FMCs are there?
Three independent FMCs
What happens at power up regarding the FMCs?
One FMC is designated for flight management tasks while the other FMCs monitor
Fill in the blank: The second FMC is ready to replace the first FMC if ______ occurs.
system faults
When the second FMC becomes active, what role does the third FMC take?
Becomes its backup
What does the FMC use to calculate airplane present position and commands?
Flight crew entered flight plan data, airplane systems data, and data from the FMC navigation database
The FMC calculates pitch, roll, and thrust commands necessary to fly an optimum flight profile.
Which systems does the FMC send commands to?
- Autothrottle
- Autopilot
- Flight Director
These systems work together to ensure safe and efficient flight operations.
What is the purpose of the ND drop-down menu?
To select the items displayed on the ND
ND stands for Navigation Display.
What is required for the FMC to be certified for area navigation?
Navigation radio and/or GPS updating
This certification allows for more accurate and efficient navigation.
What are Control Display Units (CDUs) used for?
To control the FMC using emulated CDU displays
The CDUs may be displayed on any of the MFDs as selected by the aircrew.
What is the first phase of the Flight Management System (FMS) operation?
Preflight
The FMS changes through various phases during flight, including descent, takeoff, climb, cruise, approach, and flight complete.
What data is entered into the CDU during the preflight phase?
- Flight plan
- Load sheet data
Datalink can also be used to enter some data.
What does the flight plan define?
The route of flight from the origin to the destination
It also initializes LAV and provides performance data to initialize VNAV.
Fill in the blank: The required preflight data consists of initial _______.
ancition
This data is essential when GPS is not provided.
True or False: The FMC and CDU are used only for enroute navigation.
False
They are also used for terminal area navigation, RNAV approaches, and to supplement primary navigation during all types of instrument approaches.
What data does the flight crew enter during preflight into the CDU?
Flight plan and load sheet data
This data can also be entered by datalink.
What does the flight plan define?
The route of flight from the origin to the destination and initializes LNAV
What are the required preflight data items?
- Initial position (when not provided by GPS)
- Performance data
- Route of flight
- Takeoff data
What are some optional preflight data items?
- Alternate airport
- Navigation database selection
- Route 2
- Standard terminal arrival route (STAR)
- Thrust limits
- Wind
- Standard instrument departure (SID)
How does preflight start?
With the IDENT page
What happens if the IDENT page is not displayed?
It can be selected with the IDENT prompt on the INIT/REF INDEX page
What is the purpose of the lower right line select key during preflight?
To select the next preflight page after data entry and checking
What indicates that the route has been activated?
The execute (EXEC) light illuminates after selecting ACTIVATE on the ROUTE page
What does the DEP/ARR page allow the crew to select?
A Standard Instrument Departure (SID)
What should be done if selection of the SID causes a route discontinuity?
Resolution of the discontinuity and execution of the modification should be accomplished on the ROUTE or LEGS page
What should the crew verify after entering the route and PERF INIT page information?
The OAT on the THRUST LIM page
What does the crew do after verifying the OAT?
Select the TAKEOFF REF 1/2 page
What minimum required information does the EFB receive from the FMC?
- GWT
- ORIGIN
- OAT
- QNH
- Takeoff runway
What action does the crew take after filling in the required information in the EFB?
Select CALC
What alert is displayed after the EFB generates the appropriate takeoff data?
A ‘•FMC’ COMM alert
What options does the crew have after reviewing data on the THRUST LIMIT, TAKEOFF REF 1/2, and TAKEOFF REF 2/2 pages?
Select LOAD or REJECT
What does the PRE-FLT line title on the TAKEOFF REF page indicate when all required preflight entries are complete?
FMC PREFLIGHT COMPLETE
What prompt displays at the next page select line location after completing preflight entries?
The THRUST LIM prompt
What marks the beginning of the takeoff phase?
Selection of TO/GA
TO/GA stands for Takeoff/Go Around, indicating the thrust setting for takeoff.
What is the end point of the takeoff phase?
Thrust reduction for climb
When can LNAV and VNAV be armed in relation to takeoff?
Before takeoff to activate at the applicable altitude
What defines the start of the climb phase?
Thrust reduction for climb
What is the top of climb (T/C) point?
Where the airplane reaches the cruise altitude entered on the PERF INIT page
What marks the beginning of the cruise phase?
The T/C point
What can occur during the cruise phase?
Step climbs and en route descents
What initiates the descent phase?
The T/D point or VNAV descent page becoming active
What is the end of the descent phase?
Start of the approach phase
When does the approach phase start?
When the first waypoint of the procedure sequences or when the runway is the active waypoint and the distance to go is less than 25 NM, or when the flaps are moved out of the UP position
What happens during the flight complete phase?
Thirty seconds after engine shutdown, it clears the active flight plan and load data
What should be monitored when operating in LNAV and VNAV modes?
Unwanted pitch, roll, or thrust commands
What actions should be taken if unwanted operation is observed in LNAV and VNAV modes?
Select Heading Select (HDG SEL) and Flight Level Change (FLCH) modes
What situations require careful monitoring for errors?
- Activation of a new database
- Power interruption
- IRS failure
What does the FMC not do when more than 21 NM off the active route?
Does not sequence the active waypoint
How can return to the active route be accomplished?
- DIRECT TO procedures
- INTERCEPT COURSE TO/FROM procedures
What happens when a waypoint is in the route more than once?
Certain route modifications use the first waypoint in the route
How do VECTORS waypoints display on the ND?
As a magenta line without an end point leading away from the airplane symbol
What must be true about start and end waypoints when entering airways in a route page?
They must be in the database
What should be done if engines remain operating between flights?
Enter a new cruise altitude before the next flight to recalculate the proper vertical profile
What must be entered if a climb to cruise altitude is necessary after completing a descent?
A new cruise altitude entry must be made
What are DIRECT TO courses segments of?
Great circle route
What is the difference in the course to fly to a waypoint before and after executing a DIRECT TO waypoint?
Before execution, it’s the arrival course; after execution, it’s the current course to fly
Define ‘Active’ in FMC terminology.
Flight plan data used to calculate LNAV or VNAV guidance commands
What does ‘Activate’ mean in the context of navigation?
Changing a route from inactive to active for navigation
What does an altitude constraint represent?
A crossing restriction at a waypoint
What does the DELETE key do in FMC?
Removes FMC data and reverts to default values
What is Distance to Go (DTG)?
A calculation of the great-circle distance to the referenced point in nautical miles
How is DTG calculated for the active waypoint?
From the airplane present position to the active waypoint
How is DTG calculated for waypoints following the active waypoint?
From the airplane present position or the point abeam the active flight plan along the active flight plan path
What is ‘Econ’ in aviation terms?
A speed schedule calculated to minimize operating cost
What does a low cost index cause in terms of cruise speed?
A lower cruise speed
What cost index should not normally be entered unless recommended by Boeing?
A cost index less than 60
What is the definition of ‘Econ’ in the context of flight management?
A speed schedule calculated to minimize operating cost based on the cost index
A low cost index leads to lower cruise speed, and a cost index of zero yields maximum range cruise.
What happens when a cost index less than 60 is entered?
It should not normally be entered unless recommended due to potential additional fuel burn caused by autothrottle activity in cruise
This is particularly relevant when fuel costs are high compared to operating costs.
What is the purpose of entering a cost index of 9999?
To obtain a minimum time speed schedule calling for maximum flight envelope speeds
This schedule ignores the cost of fuel.
Define ‘Enter’ in the context of the CDU.
Putting data in the CDU scratchpad and line selecting the data to the applicable location.
What does ‘Erase’ mean in flight management?
Removing entered data that has resulted in a modification by selecting the ERASE prompt.
What is an ‘EICAS Message’?
A non-normal message displayed on the EICAS.
What action does selecting the illuminated EXEC key perform?
Makes modified data active.
What does ‘Inactive’ refer to in flight management systems?
Data not being used to calculate LNAV or VNAV commands.
What is the purpose of a ‘Help Window’ in the CDU?
Shows FMC messages and information.
Define ‘Initialize’ in the flight management context.
Entering data required to make the system operational.
What does the term ‘Modify’ signify?
Changing active data.
What is a ‘Prompt’ in the CDU?
CDU symbols that aid the flight crew in accomplishing a task.
What does ‘Purge’ do in the context of the ALTN LIST?
Removes all airports uplinked to the ALTN LIST.
What does ‘Select’ mean in the CDU?
Selecting a key to obtain necessary data or action.
Define ‘Sequence’ in flight management.
A waypoint, speed, altitude, location and/or constraint that has been passed, reached, or completed.
What is a ‘Speed restriction’?
An airspeed limit associated with a specified altitude entered by the flight crew.
What does ‘Speed transition’ refer to?
An airspeed limit associated with a specified altitude entered by the FMC.
What is a ‘Waypoint’?
A point on the route or in the navigation database.
What is a conditional waypoint?
A waypoint not associated with a land reference, based on a time or altitude requirement
Example: ‘when reaching 4,000 feet.’
What is the purpose of the MAINTENANCE INDEX page?
Used only on the ground.
What data sources can the FMC use to compute position and velocity?
Hybrid GPS inertial, raw GPS, DME/DME, VOR/DME, Inertial Reference Unit (IRU L, R) data sources
When does the FMC use hybrid GPS data for navigation solutions?
When it provides the most accurate data with the lowest Actual Navigation Performance (ANP)
What happens if hybrid GPS data is not available or inhibited?
The FMC reverts to using the remaining selected position sources
What is the primary method for updating the FMC position?
Using hybrid GPS data
How can the FMC position be manually updated?
To any of the calculated navigation source positions displayed on POS REF page 2/4
What occurs when the TO/GA switch is pushed on the ground with GPS NAV OFF?
Updates the FMC position to the takeoff runway threshold or to the shift position
What must be entered for an intersection takeoff?
The intersection displacement distance from the runway threshold on the TAKEOFF REF page 1/2
When is the TO/GA update inhibited?
When GPS NAV is ON and valid reception is available
What does the FMC automatically tune and display?
VOR, DME, and ILS radios on the ND and NAV RADIO page
What is the relationship between radio updating and the active route?
Selection is related to the active route and any procedure (SID, STAR, etc.) in the active route
What happens when manually selecting VOR frequencies during radio updating?
Precludes the FMC from autotuning other VOR/DME frequencies for position updating
What continues to be tuned for position updating even when VOR frequencies are manually selected?
DME/DME pairs
Where is the current FMC position source and associated ANP displayed?
On POS REF page 2/4 and the Navigation Display (ND)
What indicates a failed, invalid, or inactive FMC position update source on the ND?
Specific annunciations related to the position update source
Fill in the blank: The FMC position normally uses ______ data.
hybrid GPS
What chapters provide additional information on the Global Positioning System, Inertial System, and Radio Navigation Systems?
Chapter 11, Section 20
What reference does the autopilot switch to when entering polar regions?
True north reference
The autopilot automatically switches to a true north reference for all cruise roll modes.
How is the automatic switching to true north reference indicated on the ND and PFD?
A white box around the word TRU
The indication appears on both the Navigation Display (ND) and Primary Flight Display (PFD).
What does the CDU RTE LEGS page display when operating in true north reference?
‘T’ next to the leg course data
This indicates the aircraft is using true north reference.
What happens when leaving the polar regions with the HEADING REF switch in the NORM position?
The autopilot switches back to a magnetic reference
This change is indicated by a green box around the word MAG.
What does the ND and PFD display indicate when the heading reference is TRU in the descent phase?
An amber box around the word TRU
This indicates that the aircraft is still using true north reference during descent.
What displays near the top of both NDs when the airplane is north of 70°N or south of 70°S?
Current GRID heading
The GRID heading is not used by any airplane system.
What should be selected on the HEADING REF switch when operating the autopilot in the polar region in other than LNAV?
TRUE
This ensures proper heading reference in non-LNAV operations.
What change occurs to the airplane position symbol when operating north of 82°N or south of 82°S using the ND PLAN mode?
It changes to a circle with a ‘X’ in the middle
This visual indicator helps pilots understand their position in extreme latitudes.
What advisory message is displayed if the IRS fails in a polar region?
NAV INERTIAL SYS
This indicates a failure in the Inertial Reference System, affecting autopilot and AFDS roll modes.
What must be done every 10 minutes when operating in degraded mode after IRS failure?
Periodic updating of the heading reference on the POS INIT page
This is necessary due to significant heading display drift.
Fill in the blank: The autopilot will automatically switch to a _______ reference for all cruise roll modes in polar regions.
true north
This automatic switch is crucial for navigation accuracy in polar areas.
What does ANP stand for in the context of navigation performance?
Actual Navigation Performance
ANP is an estimate of the true airplane position within a defined circle.
What is the estimated accuracy of the airplane’s position represented by ANP?
Estimated to be within the ANP circle at least 95% of the time.
How can a manual FMC position update be accomplished?
Using the ARM function on POS REF page 2/4 LSK 1R.
What happens when the NOW prompt is selected on the IRU L line?
Updates the FMC ANP to the selected navigation source ANP.
What is the purpose of Required Navigation Performance (RNP)?
Navigation accuracy required for operation within a defined airspace.
How is RNP expressed?
In nautical miles.
What does the FMC do if ANP exceeds RNP?
Alerts the flight crew.
What does Vertical ANP represent?
The FMC estimate of the quality of its altitude determination.
What is the Vertical ANP displayed on?
RNP PROGRESS page 4/4.
What must the pilot set for the Vertical ANP display to be valid?
The baro setting reported by ATIS or given in the approach clearance.
What does Vertical RNP provide?
Situational awareness with respect to a barometric vertical path.
What happens if vertical ANP exceeds vertical RNP?
The FMC alerts the flight crew.
What does LNAV stand for?
Lateral Navigation.
What commands does LNAV provide?
Steering commands to the next waypoint or the selected route intercept point.
When does LNAV engage after takeoff?
At or above 50 feet, when within 2.5 nautical miles of the active route leg.
What does the FMC normally provide guidance for in LNAV?
Great circle courses between waypoints.
What occurs when an arrival or approach is entered into the active route?
The FMC commands a heading, track, fixed radius turn, or a DME arc.
Fill in the blank: The FMC supplies a default RNP value for _______.
takeoff, enroute, oceanic/remote, terminal, and approach phases of flight.
True or False: Inertial updates can be inhibited.
False.
What does LNAV provide in terms of navigation?
Steering commands to the next waypoint or the selected route intercept point
At what altitude does LNAV engage after takeoff?
At or above 50 feet
What is the lateral distance from the active route leg for LNAV to engage?
2.5 nautical miles
What type of courses does FMC LNAV guidance normally provide?
Great circle courses between waypoints
What does the FMC do when an arrival or approach is entered?
Commands a heading, track, fixed radius turn, or DME to comply with the procedure
What message is displayed if the bank angle is limited during a turn?
LNAV BANK ANGLE LIM
What can reduce the effect of reduced bank angles during turns?
Selecting a higher thrust limit on the THRUST LIM CDU page
What message appears if the computed holding turn radius exceeds the protected airspace radius?
FMC HOLD AIRSPACE
How are waypoints (navigation fix) identified on the CDU?
By their identifiers displayed on the CDU and navigation display
What happens if a manually entered waypoint identifier is not in the database?
The CDU message NOT IN DATABASE displays
How can a waypoint still be entered if it is not in the database?
As a latitude/longitude, place bearing/distance, or place-bearing/place-bearing waypoint
What identifies VHF waypoints located at VHF navaids?
One, two, three, or four character facility identifier
Provide an example of a VHF waypoint.
Los Angeles VORTAC - LAX
What identifies NDB waypoints?
Use of the station identifier
Provide an example of an NDB waypoint.
FORT NELSON, CAN - YE
How are fix waypoints identified?
By names containing five or fewer characters
Provide an example of a fix waypoint.
ACRA
True or False: The FMC limits the bank angle to enable turns with loss of altitude.
False
Fill in the blank: When operating at high gross weights, the airplane may be _______ limited.
maneuver margin
Fill in the blank: The FMC evaluates enroute LNAV turns starting _______ prior to the turn.
5 minutes
What is the definition of conditional waypoints?
Waypoints that indicate when an event occurs and are not at a geographically-fixed position
Conditional waypoints may display in the route when selecting a DEPARTURES or ARRIVALS page procedure.
What are the types of conditions for conditional waypoints?
- Climb/descent through an altitude
- Flying a heading to a radial or DME distance
- Intercepting a course
- Heading vectors to a course or fix
These conditions dictate the circumstances under which the conditional waypoints are activated.
How are altitude and course intercept conditional waypoints displayed on the CDU?
Inside (parenthesis) marks, e.g., (1000)
This format helps distinguish conditional waypoints from regular waypoints.
True or False: Conditional waypoints can be manually entered on a route or legs page.
False
Usually, conditional waypoints cannot be manually entered.
Fill in the blank: Conditional waypoints usually display in the route when selecting a _______ or ARRIVALS page procedure.
[DEPARTURES]
This highlights the specific context in which conditional waypoints are utilized.
What does the example RTE 1 LEGS display indicate regarding waypoints and headings?
- 180° HDG to 1000’
- 140° HDG to 180°R
- VECTORS to CDE
- 090°R to ABC180
- 020° HDG to INTC
This example illustrates how waypoints and headings are presented in the context of flight management.
How are manually entered latitude/longitude waypoints displayed?
In a seven character format
Latitude and longitude waypoints are entered with no space or slash between the entries, and leading zeros must be included.
What is the format for entering N47° W008° as a waypoint?
N47W008
This displays as N47W008.
How should latitude and longitude be entered if they are not full degrees?
All digits and decimal points (to 1/10 minute) must be entered
For example, N47° 15.4’ W008° 3.4’ is entered as N4715.4W00803,4.
What information does the POS REPORT page display?
Last (POS), current (EST), and next (NEXT) waypoint identifiers in degrees and minutes of latitude/longitude
For example, 4715N00803 W.
How are waypoints entered as place bearing/distance identified?
By the first three characters of the entry followed by a two digit sequence number
Example: SEA330/10 becomes SEA01.
What range of sequence numbers is reserved for RTE1?
01 through 49
Sequence numbers for RTE2 are 51 through 99.
How are airway crossing waypoints entered?
As a five character waypoint name or by entering consecutive airways on the ROUTE page
Entering J70 on the VIA line prompts for the next airway.
What does entering consecutive airways on the ROUTE page display?
An X followed by the second airway name
For example, entering J70 followed by J52 calculates the intersection and replaces the boxes with the waypoint identifier, XJ52.
How are latitude or longitude reporting point waypoints entered?
As the full latitude or longitude followed by a dash and the increment chosen for the following waypoints
Example: W060-10 adds waypoints starting at W060 in ten degree increments.
Where must the entry for latitude or longitude reporting points be made?
On a LEGS page on any line before the first reporting point
Usually made on the active waypoint line.
Fill in the blank: Manually entered waypoints must have leading _______.
zeros
What are along-track waypoints?
Waypoints created on the active route that do not cause route discontinuities.
Along-track waypoints are entered using the waypoint name followed by a slash and sign indicating position relative to the waypoint.
How are along-track waypoints entered?
Using the waypoint name, a slash and minus sign for points before, or no sign for points after, followed by the mileage offset.
For example, VAMPS/25 means 25 miles after VAMPS.
What is the maximum distance for a mileage offset in along-track waypoints?
The distance offset must be less than the distance between the originating waypoint and the next or preceding waypoint.
Positive values are for points after the waypoint and negative values for points before.
What cannot be used to create along-track waypoints?
Latitude and longitude waypoints.
Only waypoint names with mileage offsets can define along-track waypoints.
What does an inactive route display as on the ND?
A dashed cyan line.
This visual representation helps pilots quickly assess the status of the route.
What does a pending active route display as on the ND?
A dashed white line.
What does an activated but not yet executed route display as on the ND?
An alternating cyan/white dashed line.
What color represents the active route on the ND?
Magenta.
What do modifications to an active route display as on the ND?
Dashed white lines.
What does a missed approach route display as on the ND?
A solid cyan line.
What is a potential consequence of inadequate GPS or radio updating?
The ND map may display a shift error, compromising terrain or traffic separation.
How can map shift errors be detected?
By comparing the position of the airplane on the ND map with data from ILS, VOR, and DME systems.
True or False: Modified waypoints display in magenta on the ND.
False.
Fill in the blank: The ND displays the FMC position at the _______ of the airplane symbol.
apex.
What does VNAV provide during flight?
Vertical profile guidance through the climb, cruise, and descent phases of flight.
How are multiple VNAV CDU pages accessed?
Using the NEXT PAGE or PREV PAGE keys.
What must be used to verify each crossing altitude in a VNAV procedure?
The altimeter.
What does VNAV control regarding waypoint crossing constraints?
The path and speed to comply with waypoint crossing constraints.
How are waypoint crossing constraints entered on the LEGS page?
By selecting the applicable key on the right side of the CDU.
What must barometric altitude constraints be in relation to the cruise altitude?
Below the cruise altitude to be valid.
How are values entered as part of a procedure displayed?
In large font.
How do FMC predicted values display compared to constraints?
In small font and do not act as constraints.
What color is a waypoint constraint when it is active?
Magenta.
What does it mean if a modified waypoint constraint is shaded white?
It has not yet been executed.
How are at or above altitude constraints denoted?
With a suffix letter A (example: 220A).
How are at or below altitude constraints denoted?
With a suffix letter B (example: 240B).
How can altitude constraints with two altitudes be entered?
In either order: lower altitude with A and upper altitude with B (example: 220A240B or 240B220A).
What do speed only constraints allow the flight crew to comply with?
An ATC speed only clearance using VNAV.
In which flight phases can speed only constraints be entered?
All phases of flight.
What do speed constraints in the climb phase cause VNAV to command?
A speed at or below the constraint speed for all waypoints prior to, and including, the constraint waypoint.
What do speed constraints in the cruise or descent phase cause VNAV to command?
A speed at or below the constraint speed at the constraint waypoint, and for all following waypoints in the descent phase.
What activates VNAV during takeoff?
VNAV activates at 400 feet above runway elevation
VNAV stands for Vertical Navigation.
What is the target airspeed range during takeoff when VNAV is armed?
Between V2 + 15 and V2 + 25 knots
What does VNAV command at acceleration height?
An airspeed increase to 5 knots below the flap placard speed for the existing flap setting
What happens when flaps are retracted or at an AFDS capture altitude?
VNAV commands the greater of flaps up manoeuvre speed or the speed transition associated with the origin airport, limited by configuration
When does the FMC change the thrust reference mode during takeoff?
At the thrust reduction point
What does the VNAV climb profile use?
VNAV SPD or VNAV PTH at the default climb speed or pilot selected climb speed
What happens if the climb speed profile cannot achieve an altitude constraint?
The UNABLE NEXT ALT CDU help window message displays
What are the types of speed restrictions VNAV can maintain during climb?
- Procedure based speed restriction
- Waypoint speed restriction
- Default VNAV climb speed
- Manually entered climb speed
What message displays if the FMC predicts the airplane will not reach an altitude constraint?
UNABLE NEXT ALTITUDE
What is the purpose of speed intervention during climb?
To provide a steeper climb by manually setting a lower airspeed
What is the Top Of Climb (T/C)?
The point where the climb phase meets the cruise altitude
What does the FMC do as the airplane approaches the Top Of Climb?
Changes from the climb phase to the cruise phase
How is the T/C point displayed on the map?
As a green open circle with the label T/C
What activates VNAV during takeoff?
VNAV activates at 400 feet above runway elevation
VNAV stands for Vertical Navigation.
What is the target airspeed range during takeoff when VNAV is armed?
Between V2 + 15 and V2 + 25 knots
What does VNAV command at acceleration height?
An airspeed increase to 5 knots below the flap placard speed for the existing flap setting
What happens when flaps are retracted or at an AFDS capture altitude?
VNAV commands the greater of flaps up manoeuvre speed or the speed transition associated with the origin airport, limited by configuration
When does the FMC change the thrust reference mode during takeoff?
At the thrust reduction point
What does the VNAV climb profile use?
VNAV SPD or VNAV PTH at the default climb speed or pilot selected climb speed
What happens if the climb speed profile cannot achieve an altitude constraint?
The UNABLE NEXT ALT CDU help window message displays
What are the types of speed restrictions VNAV can maintain during climb?
- Procedure based speed restriction
- Waypoint speed restriction
- Default VNAV climb speed
- Manually entered climb speed
What message displays if the FMC predicts the airplane will not reach an altitude constraint?
UNABLE NEXT ALTITUDE
What is the purpose of speed intervention during climb?
To provide a steeper climb by manually setting a lower airspeed
What is the Top Of Climb (T/C)?
The point where the climb phase meets the cruise altitude
What does the FMC do as the airplane approaches the Top Of Climb?
Changes from the climb phase to the cruise phase
How is the T/C point displayed on the map?
As a green open circle with the label T/C
What is MCP Altitude Intervention?
A function that manages altitude when the airplane levels off at an MCP altitude not in the FMC.
VNAV ALT annunciates when this occurs.
What happens when the MCP altitude is set below the FMC cruise altitude?
Pitch maintains altitude and thrust maintains FMC target speed.
For example, if the FMC cruise altitude is FL250 and the MCP is set to FL190.
What speed does the airplane maintain after a temporary level off?
ECON CLB SPEED.
This speed is maintained until the next altitude intervention.
What occurs when the clearance altitude is set in the MCP window and the altitude selector is pushed?
The climb continues and VNAV SPD activates.
Pitch maintains FMC speed and thrust increases to the armed reference thrust limit.
What happens after the airplane climbs to FMC CRZ ALT?
It levels off at FL250 in cruise.
This occurs after reaching the clearance altitude.
During cruise, what does the FMC command?
Economy cruise speed or the pilot entered speed until the top of descent (T/D) point.
This is the standard operating procedure.
What are the other cruise speed options available?
- Engine out (ENG OUT)
- Flight crew entered speed
- Flight crew entered constant Mach between two or more waypoints
- Long range (LRC)
- Required time of arrival (RTA)
These options provide flexibility in managing speed during cruise.
Fill in the blank: VNAV ALT annunciates whenever the airplane levels off at an MCP altitude not in the _______.
FMC.
This indicates a discrepancy between planned and actual flight levels.
What happens when an altitude above the current cruise altitude is set in the MCP altitude window?
The cruise altitude is set to the MCP altitude and the airplane climbs to the new cruise altitude
The CRZ page displays ACT ECON CRZ CLB.
What do fuel and ETA calculations assume during a step climb?
The airplane climbs at each calculated step climb point as airplane weight decreases
FMC calculated step climb increments are based on the step size shown on the CRZ page.
What occurs when a step size of zero is entered in the FMC?
The FMC assumes a constant altitude cruise
This affects the calculations for step climbs.
What overrides the FMC step climb calculations?
Flight crew entry of a STEP TO altitude on the CRZ page or ‘S’ on a waypoint on the LEGS page
Entry of a step altitude on the LEGS page also overrides a STEP TO entry made on the CRZ page.
Where do calculated step altitudes display?
On the LEGS page
The distance and ETA to the next step point also display on the CRZ and PROGRESS pages.
What factors does the FMC use to calculate step climb locations and altitudes?
Lateral flight plan, current cruise speed mode and altitude, entered forecast winds and temperatures, step size, cruise cg, and gross weight
The primary factor is the entry of accurate forecast cruise winds and temperatures.
True or False: IRS winds are used in the calculation of step climb data.
False
Unless enroute winds are entered, all step climb locations and altitudes are calculated assuming zero wind.
For ECON cruise, what do step climbs optimize?
Minimum trip cost according to the entered Cost Index
For other selected speeds, calculated step climbs minimize trip fuel.
Where do calculated step locations display?
On the ND with ‘S/C’ and the next step displays on the ECON CRZ page
Flight plan calculations of time and fuel at destination are based on executing step climbs as calculated.
What does inflight entry of a STEP TO altitude in 1R cause the FMC to do?
Use the entered enroute winds and temperatures to calculate the optimum location for a climb to the step altitude
The ETA and DTG for the step display in 2R.
What does 2R display if an immediate step climb to the entered altitude is optimal?
NOW
If remaining at the current altitude is more optimal, 2R displays NONE.
What can cause a step climb point on the LSK IR on the CRZ page to be deleted?
Manual entry on the LSK IR or a planned step climb point entered on the LEGS page is sequenced and NOW is shown in 2R
Planned step climb points may also be entered on the LEGS page at selected waypoints.
What happens with planned step climb points entered?
Flight plan calculations assume a constant cruise altitude until reaching the planned step waypoint
Optimized step climb calculations resume after passing the last planned step climb waypoint.
What does VNAV stand for?
Vertical Navigation
What happens when the last planned step is a step descent?
Step climbs are no longer calculated
What does the OPT altitude calculation not use?
Forecast or IRS winds and temperatures
What factors does the RECMD altitude calculation consider?
Step size, current CRZ ALT, entered forecast enroute winds and temperatures
What limits all altitude calculations?
Maximum (MAX) altitude
What displays if a climb is not initiated within 5 minutes after passing a step climb point?
EICAS advisory message VNAV STEP CLIMB
What triggers a cruise descent when setting an altitude in the MCP altitude window?
Setting an altitude below the current cruise altitude and pushing the altitude selector
What happens if the altitude set in the altitude window is below the speed transition altitude?
Those altitudes and speeds are deleted
What must be maintained by flight crew action during a cruise descent?
Transition or speed restrictions
What does VNAV begin when the distance from the top of descent is more than 50 NM?
A cruise descent to the new cruise altitude
What is the effect of VNAV on the descent path during a cruise descent?
VNAV may not capture the descent path
What is required to specify a waypoint as an RTA waypoint?
Any flight plan waypoint up to and including the missed approach waypoint
What does VNAV control to arrive at the RTA waypoint?
Speed to arrive within ±6 minutes
Fill in the blank: If a climb is not initiated within 5 minutes after passing a step climb point and the altitude difference is greater than ______ feet, an advisory message displays.
3,500
True or False: The cruise altitude is set to the MCP altitude only if the altitude is above the current cruise altitude.
False
What does the CRZ page display when a new cruise altitude is set?
ACT ECON CRZ DES
What does RTA stand for in flight management?
Required Time of Arrival
RTA is a function that helps manage arrival times at specified waypoints.
What can be specified as an RTA waypoint?
Any flight plan waypoint up to and including the missed approach waypoint
This includes waypoints that are critical for navigation and approach.
What does VNAV control in relation to RTA waypoints?
Speed to arrive at the RTA waypoint within ±6 seconds of a specified time
VNAV adjusts the aircraft’s speed to ensure timely arrival.
What are the limitations for RTA speed targets?
Airplane speed limitations, speed and altitude constraints, speed transitions, manually entered maximum and minimum speeds
These factors ensure that speed adjustments remain within safe operational limits.
What indicates that RTA speed mode is active?
The PROGRESS 1/4 page 4L field displays ‘RTA SPD’ as the line title
This is a visual confirmation that the RTA function is engaged.
What happens if the RTA is not achievable?
The EICAS advisory message FMC UNABLE RTA is displayed
This alerts the flight crew of any issues with meeting the RTA.
What is the minimum data required to enter an RTA?
RTA waypoint, time, and type
Types include AT, AT OR BEFORE, and AT OR AFTER.
What additional entry data can affect RTAs?
RTA threshold, minimum and maximum RTA speeds, and takeoff time
These parameters help fine-tune the RTA settings.
How do elevators control speed during an RTA climb?
At the reference thrust limit
This ensures that the aircraft maintains the desired speed during ascent.
What command speed is set when sequencing an RTA waypoint greater than 200 NM from the End of Descent?
ECON or the planned speed
This allows the aircraft to optimize speed over longer distances.
What command speed is set when sequencing an RTA waypoint less than 200 NM from the End of Descent?
SEL SPD
This allows for more precise speed control as the aircraft approaches the waypoint.
What is the function of speed intervention in VNAV?
Allows the flight crew to change airplane speed with the IAS/MACH selector
This provides flexibility in managing speed during various flight phases.
What remains unchanged when the MCP speed window is opened in a VNAV descent?
The pitch mode remains in VNAV PTH
This maintains the desired flight path while allowing speed adjustments.
What happens when using speed intervention during descent?
Closing the IAS/MACH window resets the FMC target speed to the IAS/MACH window speed if that speed is lower than the FMC target speed
If the reset speed is lower than the original FMC target speed, the airplane cannot maintain the VNAV PTH descent without speedbrakes.
What occurs when a new speed is entered at LSK 2L (ECON SPD) on the VNAV DES page?
The FMC enters a MOD state and recalculates a new vertical descent path optimized for the new speed
This new vertical descent path is optimized for a VNAV PTH descent.
What happens if the airplane speed deviates beyond the VNAV speed band?
The pitch mode changes to VNAV SPD, maintained by pitch, causing the airplane to depart the vertical path.
During a VNAV approach while using speed intervention, what is the pitch mode?
VNAV PTH
The vertical path is maintained regardless of IAS/MACH selector changes.
What occurs when a ‘direct to’ is executed to a waypoint in the approach?
VNAV transitions to the approach phase when passing the ‘direct to’ waypoint.
What is the E/D point in the descent path calculated by the FMC?
The E/D is located 50 feet above the runway threshold for all approaches except VOR approaches
For VOR approaches, the E/D is the missed approach point.
What is the top of descent (T/D)?
The point where the cruise phase changes to the descent phase, displayed on the ND as a green circle with the label T/D.
What factors are considered in the descent path calculation to the first constraint?
- Idle thrust
- Speedbrakes retracted
- FMC cruise wind
- Applicable target speed
- Wind entries on the DESCENT FORECAST page
- Predicted use of anti-ice
What is the maximum speed VNAV commands during descent?
VNAV does not command an economy target speed greater than VMO/MMO minus 16 knots or a pilot-entered speed greater than VMO/MMO minus 11 knots.
How is the descent path constructed after the first altitude constraint waypoint?
As straight line point-to-point segments.
What does the FMC command if the VNAV path segment is too shallow to be flown satisfactorily at IDLE thrust?
The FMC commands speed on thrust levers (SPD).
What does the speed tape display during descent in VNAV?
A VNAV PTH speed band
VNAV PTH refers to the Vertical Navigation Path mode.
What happens if the airplane is more than 15 knots below the target speed and autothrottles are not active?
The CDU help window message THRUST REQUIRED displays
The airspeed may decrease to minimum manoeuvring speed.
What occurs when VNAV can no longer maintain the airplane within 150 feet of the path without further deceleration?
Speed reversion occurs, changing pitch mode from VNAV PTH to VNAV SPD
VNAV resets the target speed to 5 knots above the greater of best holding speed or minimum manoeuvring speed.
What is the maximum allowed speed variation when the airplane is above VMO/MMO minus 16 knots?
The airplane may accelerate up to VMO/MMO minus 11 knots
The CDU help window message DRAG REQUIRED displays.
What happens if VNAV can no longer maintain the airplane within 150 feet of the path without further acceleration?
Speed reversion occurs, changing pitch mode from VNAV PTH to VNAV SPD
VNAV resets the target speed to VMO/MMO minus 16 knots.
What message displays if the airplane is more than 15 knots below the target speed and autothrottles are active?
This condition should not occur
Thrust levers are in SPD and target speed is maintained during the descent.
What is the target speed reset to when below the first speed constraint and more than 15 knots below the target speed?
10 knots less than the transition speed for the destination airport
This is not less than minimum manoeuvring speed.
Fill in the blank: The maximum speed excursion allowed is _____ above the transition speed after the airplane is below transition altitude.
5 knots
This applies if the airplane is below transition altitude for the destination airport.
What command initiates an early descent?
Select the DES NOW prompt on the DES page or push the MCP altitude selector
VNAV commands a reduced descent rate until the descent path is intercepted.
What is the initial autothrottle mode annunciation during an early descent?
THR
This is followed by HOLD, allowing the pilot to adjust the rate of descent.
What is the pitch mode during an early descent?
VNAV SPD
This indicates the airplane is following the speed set by VNAV.
What is the purpose of the DES NOW prompt on the VNAV DES page?
It starts an early descent and captures the descent path.
This feature is used when the aircraft is more than 50 NM from the Top of Descent Point.
What should be done when the distance from the Top of Descent Point is more than 50 NM?
Use the MCP altitude selector to start a cruise descent.
VNAV may not capture the descent path due to the target airspeed being economy cruise.
What happens within 50 NM of the Top of Descent Point?
VNAV starts an early descent and captures the descent path.
This is initiated by using the MCP altitude selector.
What is the function of TO/GA selection after the flaps are extended?
Starts a missed approach, sets go-around thrust, and deletes altitude constraints through the end of descent.
These actions are crucial for managing the aircraft’s performance during approach.
What does VNAV PTH refer to?
Vertical Navigation Path.
VNAV PTH is used during descent and approach phases to maintain the desired vertical profile.
What is indicated by the term ‘Level Deceleration’ in the context of VNAV?
A specific phase in the descent profile where the aircraft reduces speed.
This phase is crucial for aligning with approach procedures.
Fill in the blank: VNAV may not capture the descent path since the target airspeed is _______.
economy cruise.
True or False: VNAV can initiate a descent at any point during the flight.
False.
VNAV has specific conditions based on distance from the Top of Descent Point.
What is the purpose of the DES NOW prompt on the VNAV DES page?
It starts an early descent and captures the descent path.
This feature is used when the aircraft is more than 50 NM from the Top of Descent Point.
What should be done when the distance from the Top of Descent Point is more than 50 NM?
Use the MCP altitude selector to start a cruise descent.
VNAV may not capture the descent path due to the target airspeed being economy cruise.
What happens within 50 NM of the Top of Descent Point?
VNAV starts an early descent and captures the descent path.
This is initiated by using the MCP altitude selector.
What is the function of TO/GA selection after the flaps are extended?
Starts a missed approach, sets go-around thrust, and deletes altitude constraints through the end of descent.
These actions are crucial for managing the aircraft’s performance during approach.
What does VNAV PTH refer to?
Vertical Navigation Path.
VNAV PTH is used during descent and approach phases to maintain the desired vertical profile.
What is indicated by the term ‘Level Deceleration’ in the context of VNAV?
A specific phase in the descent profile where the aircraft reduces speed.
This phase is crucial for aligning with approach procedures.
Fill in the blank: VNAV may not capture the descent path since the target airspeed is _______.
economy cruise.
True or False: VNAV can initiate a descent at any point during the flight.
False.
VNAV has specific conditions based on distance from the Top of Descent Point.
What mode does the FMC command during cruise before the top of descent?
VNAV PTH and ECON cruise speed
VNAV PTH refers to the vertical navigation path mode used by the Flight Management Computer (FMC).
What happens at the top of descent in the FMC’s operation?
The FMC transitions to descent and commands airspeed to ECON descent speed
The transition indicates a shift from cruise to descent, maintaining altitude until the specified descent phase.
What does the T/D green circle indicate?
The point where deceleration to ECON DES speed begins
T/D stands for Top of Descent, marking the start of the descent phase.
What is the descent rate approximated by the FMC before the speed restriction altitude?
500 feet per minute
This rate is maintained while descending to meet speed restrictions.
What thrust reference mode is normally used during descent?
CRZ
CRZ refers to cruise thrust mode, indicating normal thrust management during descent.
What happens to the thrust reference mode when flaps are extended from UP to 1?
It changes to G/A in anticipation of the approach
G/A stands for Go-Around thrust mode, which is used for approach preparations.
What occurs if VNAV is selected as the pitch mode after flaps are extended?
The thrust reference mode automatically changes to CRZ
This change happens until certain conditions are met, such as further flap extensions or TO/GA selection.
What mode does VNAV activate during a missed approach?
VNAV SPD
VNAV SPD refers to vertical navigation speed mode, utilized specifically during missed approaches.
What happens at missed approach altitude in terms of VNAV mode?
VNAV SPD changes to VNAV PTH
This transition signifies a return to the vertical navigation path mode after reaching the missed approach altitude.
What mode does the FMC transition to when the descent phase is active and flaps are out of up?
On approach mode
The FMC can also enter this mode if the airplane has sequenced the first waypoint of the active approach or is on a direct-to intercept course to the active waypoint with less than 12 NM remaining.
Under what conditions does the FMC transition out of ‘on approach’ mode?
- The pilot selects TO/GA
- The airplane lands
- The airplane flies beyond the last waypoint in the approach
The VNAV page title changes from ‘ACT xxxxx DES’ to ‘ACT END OF DES’ when transitioning out.
What altitude setting allows VNAV to continue commanding a descent when the FMC is ‘on approach’?
At least 300 feet above the current airplane altitude
The MCP altitude can be set above the airplane altitude for the missed approach.
What happens to VNAV PTH when the airplane accelerates to within 5 knots of the current flap placard and rises more than 150 feet above the path?
VNAV PTH changes to VNAV SPD
VNAV remains in VNAV PTH and follows the descent path under normal conditions.
When is a glidepath angle displayed on the RTE LEGS page?
When specified for one or more legs on the approach
VNAV provides VNAV PTH guidance at the displayed angle.
What does VNAV command when sequencing a waypoint prior to a descent leg specified by a glidepath angle?
Level flight until the airplane intercepts the descent path
This ensures the airplane follows the intended glidepath.
How can another approach be selected in the FMC?
On the ARRIVALS page
An along-course intercept to the next logical approach waypoint can be selected on the LEGS page.
What happens during approach maneuvering with the IAS/MACH window closed?
VNAV sets command speed to flap maneuvering speed as the airplane passes the flap profile point indicated on the ND
This command speed change occurs even if flap selection is not made.
Fill in the blank: The FMC transitions to ‘on approach’ mode when the missed approach point is the active waypoint and the distance to go is less than _______.
25 NM
What mode does the FMC transition to when the descent phase is active and flaps are out of up?
On approach mode
The FMC can also enter this mode if the airplane has sequenced the first waypoint of the active approach or is on a direct-to intercept course to the active waypoint with less than 12 NM remaining.
Under what conditions does the FMC transition out of ‘on approach’ mode?
- The pilot selects TO/GA
- The airplane lands
- The airplane flies beyond the last waypoint in the approach
The VNAV page title changes from ‘ACT xxxxx DES’ to ‘ACT END OF DES’ when transitioning out.
What altitude setting allows VNAV to continue commanding a descent when the FMC is ‘on approach’?
At least 300 feet above the current airplane altitude
The MCP altitude can be set above the airplane altitude for the missed approach.
What happens to VNAV PTH when the airplane accelerates to within 5 knots of the current flap placard and rises more than 150 feet above the path?
VNAV PTH changes to VNAV SPD
VNAV remains in VNAV PTH and follows the descent path under normal conditions.
When is a glidepath angle displayed on the RTE LEGS page?
When specified for one or more legs on the approach
VNAV provides VNAV PTH guidance at the displayed angle.
What does VNAV command when sequencing a waypoint prior to a descent leg specified by a glidepath angle?
Level flight until the airplane intercepts the descent path
This ensures the airplane follows the intended glidepath.
How can another approach be selected in the FMC?
On the ARRIVALS page
An along-course intercept to the next logical approach waypoint can be selected on the LEGS page.
What happens during approach maneuvering with the IAS/MACH window closed?
VNAV sets command speed to flap maneuvering speed as the airplane passes the flap profile point indicated on the ND
This command speed change occurs even if flap selection is not made.
Fill in the blank: The FMC transitions to ‘on approach’ mode when the missed approach point is the active waypoint and the distance to go is less than _______.
25 NM
What occurs during approach manoeuvring with the IAS/MACH window closed?
VNAV sets command speed to flap manoeuvring speed as the airplane passes the flap profile point indicated on the ND
The command speed change occurs even if flap selection is not made.
What should be done if flaps are not extended before passing the flap profile point?
Open the IAS/MACH window and set the desired speed to avoid an underspeed condition
This action is necessary to maintain safe flight parameters.
What does Integrated Approach Navigation (IAN) allow?
The use of consistent procedures for all types of instrument approaches
Any approach with a glidepath angle published in the navigation database can be flown using IAN.
Which types of approaches does IAN support?
- B/CRS
- GPS
- IGS (G/S selected OFF)
- ILS (G/S selected OFF)
- LDA
- LOC (G/S selected OFF)
- NDB
- RNAV
- SDF (G/S selected OFF)
- VER
- VOR
These approaches utilize similar procedures, indications, and alerts as ILS approaches.
What does the FMC provide when an approach is entered into the active route?
- A source for deviation scales
- Distance to the missed approach waypoint
- Final approach course (FAC) deviations from the defined LNAV path
- Glidepath (G/P) deviations from the defined VNAV path
These features enhance situational awareness during the approach phase.
What is used to scale the displayed FAC and G/P deviations?
RNP and vertical RNP
RNP values can be accessed from POS REF 2/4 and RNP PROGRESS 4/4.
Fill in the blank: QFE operation is ______.
not authorized
When is the FPA accessible for a VER approach using IAN procedures?
Once a VER approach is selected from the ARRIVALS page
This allows pilots to manage the approach effectively.
What is a missed approach?
A missed approach is accomplished by selection of either TO/GA switch.
When can VNAV be activated during a missed approach?
VNAV can only be activated when the airplane climbs above 400 feet radio altitude.
When does LNAV automatically activate if an LNAV path is available?
LNAV automatically activates:
* Above 50 feet radio altitude when autopilot is not engaged
* Above 200 feet radio altitude when autopilot is engaged.
What happens if no LNAV path is available during a missed approach?
LNAV shows on the FMA, the roll bar blanks, and the flight director guidance cue on the HUD blanks.
What occurs to descent altitude constraints during a missed approach?
All descent altitude constraints below the current airplane altitude are deleted; the waypoints are retained in the active flight plan.
What determines the new cruise altitude during a missed approach?
The new cruise altitude becomes the greater of the MCP altitude or the highest altitude in the missed approach procedure.
What happens to the FMC during a missed approach?
The FMC transitions from active descent to active climb.
What is AFDS guidance during a missed approach?
AFDS guidance to fly the published missed approach procedure to the new cruise altitude is active when NAV (and LNAV) are selected.
What is the speed target during cruise phase after a missed approach?
The speed target is the most restrictive of speed transition, best hold speed, or ECON cruise (above speed transition altitude).
Fill in the blank: VNAV can only be activated when the airplane climbs above _______.
400 feet radio altitude.
True or False: LNAV will engage automatically upon TO/GA press if the airplane is active on a Direct-To leg.
False.
What does VNAV stand for in flight management systems?
Vertical Navigation
VNAV is a feature that automates the vertical profile of the flight.
What is the significance of the CFL250 in flight management?
It indicates a climb flight level of 25,000 feet
CFL250 is a target altitude for the aircraft during climb.
What does the term ENG OUT indicate?
Engine failure
ENG OUT is a status that appears when an engine failure is detected.
At what altitude does the airplane capture the EO acceleration height?
400 FT
EO acceleration height is the altitude at which the aircraft begins to accelerate after an engine-out scenario.
What happens automatically when the airplane reaches flaps up maneuver speed?
Change from takeoff thrust limit to continuous (CON) thrust limit
This transition is critical for maintaining performance during the climb.
What speed range does the FMC maintain during takeoff thrust?
V2 to V2 + 15
V2 is the takeoff safety speed, and the range allows for safe initial climb.
Fill in the blank: The VNAV page title may be _______ when target speed is limited by flap placard speed.
LIM SPD CLB
This indicates a limited speed climb due to flap position.
True or False: The SEL SPD option is used to confirm an engine failure.
False
The ENG OUT option is used to confirm an engine failure.
What is the purpose of the EO SID?
To automatically load the engine-out standard instrument departure procedures
EO SID helps pilots follow the correct departure profile after an engine failure.
What does the term ‘automatic change’ refer to in the context of thrust limits?
The transition from takeoff thrust limit to continuous thrust limit
This change ensures efficient climb performance after reaching a certain speed.
What does VNAV stand for in flight management systems?
Vertical Navigation
VNAV is a feature that automates the vertical profile of the flight.
What is the significance of the CFL250 in flight management?
It indicates a climb flight level of 25,000 feet
CFL250 is a target altitude for the aircraft during climb.
What does the term ENG OUT indicate?
Engine failure
ENG OUT is a status that appears when an engine failure is detected.
At what altitude does the airplane capture the EO acceleration height?
400 FT
EO acceleration height is the altitude at which the aircraft begins to accelerate after an engine-out scenario.
What happens automatically when the airplane reaches flaps up maneuver speed?
Change from takeoff thrust limit to continuous (CON) thrust limit
This transition is critical for maintaining performance during the climb.
What speed range does the FMC maintain during takeoff thrust?
V2 to V2 + 15
V2 is the takeoff safety speed, and the range allows for safe initial climb.
Fill in the blank: The VNAV page title may be _______ when target speed is limited by flap placard speed.
LIM SPD CLB
This indicates a limited speed climb due to flap position.
True or False: The SEL SPD option is used to confirm an engine failure.
False
The ENG OUT option is used to confirm an engine failure.
What is the purpose of the EO SID?
To automatically load the engine-out standard instrument departure procedures
EO SID helps pilots follow the correct departure profile after an engine failure.
What does the term ‘automatic change’ refer to in the context of thrust limits?
The transition from takeoff thrust limit to continuous thrust limit
This change ensures efficient climb performance after reaching a certain speed.
What is the VNAV SPD command during takeoff before an engine failure?
A climb at V2+15 to V2+25 knots
This occurs when the airplane is above the VNAV activation altitude.
What happens when an engine failure is sensed after VNAV activation?
VNAV commands a speed of V2 to V2 + 15
Autothrottle remains in THR REF and thrust limit remains takeoff (TO).
What condition triggers the loading of an EO SID in the FMC?
Flaps out of up and an engine out standard instrument departure (EO SID) is in the FMC database
The modification may be either executed or erased.
What does VNAV command at acceleration height?
An acceleration to flaps up manoeuvre speed
This is limited by the airplane configuration (flap placard).
What happens when the airplane has accelerated to the commanded flaps up manoeuvre speed?
Thrust is automatically reduced from TO to continuous (CON) thrust
If engine failure occurs above the thrust reduction point, current climb thrust is maintained.
How is engine out performance data activated during VNAV climb?
Select the ENG OUT prompt on the VNAV CLB page
This terminates the VNAV engine out takeoff phase.
What is the pitch mode during VNAV climb with engine out performance data active?
VNAV SPD
The command speed is EO SPD, and the reference thrust limit is CON.
What occurs when the airplane is above the engine out maximum altitude?
Selection of ENG OUT> on the VNAV CLB page creates a modification
It displays applicable engine out driftdown (D/M) performance data, enabling descent to engine out maximum altitude.
What is the function of the VNAV CLB page when the airplane is above the engine out maximum altitude?
It creates a modification and displays applicable engine out driftdown (D/D) performance data enabling a descent to the engine out maximum altitude
This function is crucial for maintaining safe operations when an engine failure occurs.
What happens when the ENG OUT> is selected on the VNAV CRZ page?
It creates a modification and displays applicable engine out driftdown (D/D) performance data
This allows the aircraft to adjust its thrust and speed settings in response to engine failure.
What is the default command speed indicated after executing the ENG OUT modification?
EO SPD
This speed setting is critical for optimizing the aircraft’s performance during an engine out scenario.
What is displayed as the cruise altitude in the flight management system when above the engine out maximum altitude?
EO MAX altitude
This altitude remains constant and does not change with time or command speed adjustments.
What does the selection of ENG OUT> on the VNAV CLB page activate?
The engine out driftdown function
This function is vital for managing descent safely after an engine failure.
Fill in the blank: The maximum engine out altitude is indicated as _______.
FL 233
This altitude is crucial for ensuring the aircraft operates within safe performance parameters.
True or False: The EO MAX altitude shown in the flight management system changes over time.
False
The EO MAX altitude remains constant regardless of changes in command speed.
What is the reference thrust limit when executing the ENG OUT modification?
CON
This setting ensures that the aircraft can maintain necessary performance during an engine out condition.
What action does the FMC command during an engine failure?
Driftdown (D/D) descent
This descent strategy is essential for safely managing altitude loss after an engine failure.
When executing the ENG OUT modification, what happens to the thrust levers?
They advance to CON
This adjustment is necessary for optimizing engine performance during an emergency situation.
What does ‘ACT EO CRZ DES’ indicate?
Active engine out cruise descent
This indicates that the aircraft is in a controlled descent following an engine failure.
What does selecting ENG OUT create?
A modification and displays applicable engine out driftdown (D/D) performance data
This process is vital for managing aircraft performance in case of engine failure.
What initiates a driftdown descent?
Setting the MCP altitude at or below EO MAX altitude and executing the modification
This is a critical procedure for ensuring safe altitude management during engine failure.
What commands does VNAV issue when EO SPD is achieved?
VNAV controls the driftdown descent rate to a minimum of 300 feet per minute (fpm)
This ensures a controlled descent rate during an emergency situation.
What information is displayed at 2R during a driftdown?
Time and distance for the D/D to EO MAX altitude
This information aids pilots in managing descent effectively.
What happens when executing the ENG OUT modification without descending?
The pitch mode changes to VNAV ALT
This indicates that the aircraft is maintaining altitude rather than descending.
How is a normal enroute cruise descent initiated?
Setting the MCP altitude to a lower altitude and pushing the altitude selector
This is part of standard operating procedures for cruise descents.
What is the descent rate during a normal VNAV cruise descent?
Approximately 1,250 fpm
This rate ensures efficient fuel use and passenger comfort.
What happens when executing the ENG OUT modification while above EO MAX altitude?
Commands a driftdown descent to the EO MAX altitude at E/O SPD
This is crucial for transitioning to a safe altitude during engine failure.
What title does the VNAV cruise page display when VNAV captures the EO MAX altitude?
EO CRZ
Indicates that the aircraft is in a specific engine-out cruise mode.
What occurs when the FMC is in engine out mode and more than 50 nm from T/D?
Setting a lower MCP altitude and pushing the altitude selector executes an engine-out cruise descent
This is an important aspect of managing flight operations during emergencies.
Fill in the blank: The rate of descent during driftdown decreases to a minimum of _______.
300 fpm
This rate is established to ensure safety during descent.
True or False: The reference thrust limit during a normal enroute cruise descent is CLB/CRZ.
True
This thrust limit is critical for maintaining performance during descent.
What is the role of VNAV during a driftdown descent?
VNAV captures the MCP altitude and commands EO CRZ
This allows the aircraft to maintain optimal performance in a single-engine scenario.
What does selecting ENG OUT create?
A modification and displays applicable engine out driftdown (D/D) performance data
This process is vital for managing aircraft performance in case of engine failure.
What initiates a driftdown descent?
Setting the MCP altitude at or below EO MAX altitude and executing the modification
This is a critical procedure for ensuring safe altitude management during engine failure.
What commands does VNAV issue when EO SPD is achieved?
VNAV controls the driftdown descent rate to a minimum of 300 feet per minute (fpm)
This ensures a controlled descent rate during an emergency situation.
What information is displayed at 2R during a driftdown?
Time and distance for the D/D to EO MAX altitude
This information aids pilots in managing descent effectively.
What happens when executing the ENG OUT modification without descending?
The pitch mode changes to VNAV ALT
This indicates that the aircraft is maintaining altitude rather than descending.
How is a normal enroute cruise descent initiated?
Setting the MCP altitude to a lower altitude and pushing the altitude selector
This is part of standard operating procedures for cruise descents.
What is the descent rate during a normal VNAV cruise descent?
Approximately 1,250 fpm
This rate ensures efficient fuel use and passenger comfort.
What happens when executing the ENG OUT modification while above EO MAX altitude?
Commands a driftdown descent to the EO MAX altitude at E/O SPD
This is crucial for transitioning to a safe altitude during engine failure.
What title does the VNAV cruise page display when VNAV captures the EO MAX altitude?
EO CRZ
Indicates that the aircraft is in a specific engine-out cruise mode.
What occurs when the FMC is in engine out mode and more than 50 nm from T/D?
Setting a lower MCP altitude and pushing the altitude selector executes an engine-out cruise descent
This is an important aspect of managing flight operations during emergencies.
Fill in the blank: The rate of descent during driftdown decreases to a minimum of _______.
300 fpm
This rate is established to ensure safety during descent.
True or False: The reference thrust limit during a normal enroute cruise descent is CLB/CRZ.
True
This thrust limit is critical for maintaining performance during descent.
What is the role of VNAV during a driftdown descent?
VNAV captures the MCP altitude and commands EO CRZ
This allows the aircraft to maintain optimal performance in a single-engine scenario.
What mode is the FMC in during an engine-out cruise descent?
Engine out mode
What is the descent rate during an engine-out cruise descent?
Approximately 1,250 fpm
What triggers the descent mode to become active during an engine-out cruise descent?
When the EO cruise descent intersects the planned descent profile
How can altitudes be entered into the FMC?
As three digit (XXX), four digit (XXXX), five digit (XXXXX), or flight level (FLXXX) numbers
What do three digit entries represent in the FMC?
Altitude or flight levels in increments of 100 feet
True or False: Leading zeros are optional for three digit entries in the FMC.
False
How is 800 feet entered in the FMC as a three digit entry?
008 or FL008
What is the maximum altitude for four digit entries in the FMC?
9,994 feet
How is 1,500 feet entered in the FMC as a four digit entry?
1500
What do five digit entries represent in the FMC?
Feet, rounded to the nearest ten feet for altitudes exceeding 9,994 feet
How is 50 feet entered in the FMC as a five digit entry?
00050
Fill in the blank: Altitudes can be entered in the FMC as _______.
three digit (XXX), four digit (XXXX), five digit (XXXXX), or flight level (FLXXX) numbers
What happens when the airplane is more than 50 nm from T/D and a lower MCP altitude is set?
Executes an engine-out cruise descent
How are four digit entries displayed in the FMC?
Rounded to the nearest ten feet
What is the correct entry for 9,994 feet in the FMC as a four digit entry?
9994; displays as 9990
What must be done to enter altitudes in the FMC correctly?
Follow specific entry rules based on the transition altitude
What is the format for entering a five-digit altitude of 50 feet in the Flight Management System?
00050
Displays as 50 feet.
How is an altitude of 8,500 feet displayed after entering it as 08500?
FL085
This is the representation after input.
What is the maximum negative altitude entry allowed in the Flight Management System?
-1000 feet
How are calibrated airspeeds entered into the FMC?
As three digits (XXX) in knots
How are Mach numbers entered into the FMC?
As one, two, or three digits following a decimal point
What does the slash (/) indicate when entering data pairs in the CDU?
Separates two values
What happens if a required slash is omitted when entering data in the FMC?
Results in an INVALID ENTRY message
What types of databases does the Flight Management Computer utilize?
- navigation
- option settings
- performance
In the FMC, how is a five-digit altitude of 11,500 feet entered?
11500
True or False: Airspeeds can only be entered as calibrated airspeed.
False
Airspeeds can also be entered as Mach number.
What does the performance database in the FMC supply to the flight crew?
Performance data to calculate pitch and thrust commands
Includes airplane drag and engine characteristics, maximum and optimum altitudes, and maximum and minimum speeds.
Which data is included in the navigation database of the FMC?
- Airports
- Location of VHF navigation aids
- SIDs, STARs, approaches, and company routes
- Runways
- Transition altitudes
This data can be displayed on the CDU or ND.
How long is each set of navigation data valid in the FMC?
28 days
Each set corresponds to the usual navigation chart revision cycle.
What happens when the FMC senses a conflict in an AMI value after a new AMI data load?
The CDU displays the message CHECK AIRLINE POLICY
AMI stands for Airline Management Information.
What does thrust management in the FMC operate in response to?
Flight crew mode control panel inputs or FMC commands
FMC autothrottle commands are made while VNAV is active.
What are the key functions of thrust management in the FMC?
- Calculates reference thrust limits and thrust settings
- Commands thrust levers
- Senses and transmits autothrottle failures
- Commands thrust equalization through the engine electronic controls
Thrust limits are expressed as N1 limits.
Fill in the blank: The thrust limits in thrust management are expressed as _______.
N1 limits.
What does thrust equalization reference in the FMC?
N1
Thrust equalization is a function of the engine electronic controls.
What is the purpose of thrust management in the B787?
Calculates a reference thrust for various thrust settings such as TO, CLB, CRZ, etc.
The thrust settings include TO, TO 1, TO 2, D-TO, D-TO 1, D-TO 2, CLB, CLB 1, CLB 2, CON, CRZ, and G/A.
What thrust settings are used for takeoff in the B787?
TO, TO 1, TO 2, D-TO, D-TO 1, D-TO 2
D-TO stands for assumed temperature takeoff, while TO 1 and TO 2 are derate takeoff options.
How does VNAV affect reference thrust limits?
Changes for the phase of flight
The reference thrust limit displays above EICAS N1 indications.
What is the range of thrust reduction height that can be specified by the flight crew?
From 400 feet to 9,999 feet
The flight crew can also make entries for specific flap settings.
What is the benefit of reduced thrust takeoffs?
Lower EGT and extend engine life
EGT stands for Exhaust Gas Temperature.
What are TO 1 and TO 2 in the context of thrust settings?
Fixed derates that reduce takeoff thrust by specified percentages
The derate percentages can be set in one percent increments between maximum takeoff thrust and the maximum certified derate.
What is the role of the Airplane Flight Manual (AFM) regarding thrust derates?
Provides performance data for these derates
This data guides operators in setting appropriate thrust levels.
True or False: The thrust setting parameter for TO 1 and TO 2 can be exceeded in normal operations.
False
Thrust levers should not be advanced further except in an emergency.
Fill in the blank: The flight crew can specify the thrust reduction height on the _______ page.
CDU TAKEOFF REF
CDU stands for Control Display Unit.
What could happen if thrust is increased following an engine failure during takeoff?
Loss of directional control
This emphasizes the importance of adhering to thrust limitations during critical phases of flight.
What should be used to calculate takeoff speeds for selected derate or variable takeoff rating conditions?
The takeoff speeds calculated by the EFB
EFB stands for Electronic Flight Bag.
What is a limitation for takeoff thrust settings in the B787?
Thrust levers should not be advanced further except in an emergency.
Advancing thrust further after an engine failure may lead to a loss of directional control.
How can takeoff thrust be reduced in the B787?
By entering an assumed temperature higher than the actual temperature.
The maximum thrust reduction authorized is 25 percent below any certified rating.
When should assumed temperature reduced thrust not be used?
If conditions exist that affect braking, such as slush, snow, or ice on the runway, or if potential windshear conditions exist.
Assumed temperature thrust settings can be manually overridden if more thrust is needed.
What are the fixed climb thrust derate options in the B787?
CLB 1 and CLB 2.
CLB 1 has a 5% derate, and CLB 2 has a 15% derate.
At what altitude does derated climb thrust increase to achieve CLB thrust?
25,000 feet.
Thrust increases linearly with altitude to achieve CLB thrust at 33,000 feet.
How does the takeoff derate percentage affect the automatic selection of climb derate?
If the takeoff derate percentage is:
* less than 5% then CLB is selected,
* greater than or equal to 5% and less than 15% then CLB 1 is selected,
* greater than or equal to 15% then CLB 2 is selected.
What is the impact of using derated climb thrust on engine maintenance?
It reduces engine maintenance costs, but increases total trip fuel.
This trade-off is important for operational efficiency.
What sources does the FMC receive fuel data from?
Fuel quantity system or manual entries.
Fuel values are displayed as CALC, MANUAL, or SENSED on the PERF INIT page.
What happens to the calculated fuel value before engine start?
It is set to agree with the fuel quantity indicating system value.
This ensures accurate performance computations.
What does the FMC use for performance computations?
The calculated value.
This value typically reflects the most accurate fuel data available.
What does the FMC use for performance computations before engine start?
The calculated value set to agree with the fuel quantity indicating system value
The calculated value is crucial for accurate performance predictions.
What happens to the calculated fuel value when the engine starts?
It becomes independent of the fuel quantity system and decreases at the fuel flow rate
This ensures real-time accuracy during engine operation.
What occurs if a manual fuel quantity is entered on the PERF INIT page before engine start?
The manual entry is deleted and replaced with the TOTALIZER value when the engines start
This prevents discrepancies between manual and actual fuel quantities.
How does the APU affect the calculated fuel value?
The APU fuel burn schedule is used to decrease the calculated fuel value when the APU is running
This scheduling is important for accurate fuel management.
What happens to the calculated value during fuel jettison?
It is set equal to the fuel quantity system value
After jettisoning, it remains independent of the fuel quantity indicating system.
What is displayed on the PERF INIT page when a fuel quantity is input by the flight crew?
The line title changes to MANUAL
This indicates that the manual value is now being used instead of the calculated value.
What does the FMC use if fuel flow data is invalid?
The fuel quantity indicating system quantity for performance computations
This ensures some level of performance calculation even with invalid data.
How is fuel used by each engine calculated?
With its related fuel flow signal
This allows for accurate monitoring of fuel consumption per engine.
What happens if the fuel flow signal is invalid while on the ground?
The display blanks if invalid for greater than two minutes after airborne
This is a safety feature to prevent misleading fuel data.
What EICAS advisory message is displayed if actual fuel flow exceeds predicted fuel flow significantly?
FUEL FLOW ENG L/R
This alerts the crew to a potential engine fuel leak.
What triggers the FUEL DISAGREE message on EICAS?
A large difference between the fuel quantity indicating system quantity and calculated value
This indicates possible discrepancies in fuel readings.
When does the EICAS advisory message INSUFFICIENT FUEL display?
If the estimate is less than the fuel reserve value or 4000 lbs if no reserve value is entered
This is critical for flight safety and planning.
What do FMC calculated fuel predictions assume?
A clean configuration and do not include APU burn
This is important for accurate fuel management during flight.
What happens when the actual fuel temperature reaches the minimum value displayed on the PERF INIT page?
The EICAS advisory message FUEL TEMP LOW displays
This alerts the crew to potentially dangerous fuel conditions.
What is required for the FMC to operate continuously?
Continuous electrical power
If electrical power is interrupted, the FMC restarts upon power return.
What must be re-entered on the PERF INIT page after an FMC restart?
Performance data
The route previously in use is available but must be reactivated.
How can the flight crew activate LNAV after a power interruption?
Modify the active waypoint
Selecting the applicable active waypoint and proceeding direct or intercepting a course allows LNAV activation.
What happens during a single FMC failure?
Spare FMC becomes active
The transition occurs automatically and is not apparent to the crew.
What remains active during a single FMC failure?
LNAV and VNAV
All flight plan and performance data is retained.
What is displayed when two FMCs fail in flight?
EICAS advisory message SINGLE FMC
The third FMC takes over in a single FMC configuration.
What must the flight crew do if two FMCs fail?
Reactivate and execute the flight plan, reselect LNAV and VNAV
All data is retained and NDs continue to operate.
What is the purpose of a software reset in single FMC operation?
Prevent permanent loss of the FMC
This occurs when the FMC encounters an insoluble computation.
What symptoms might indicate a software reset occurred?
Active route becomes inactive, performance data erased, LNAV and VNAV disengaged
Appropriate CDU help window message accompanies resets.
What happens during a triple FMC failure?
Loss of all FMCs and EICAS advisory message FMC displayed
Accompanied by loss of PFD mini-map displays, ND map displays, and CDU pages.
What capability do TCPs provide during a triple FMC failure?
Enter a single Latitude/Longitude waypoint
TCPs provide track, distance to go, and groundspeed for the entered waypoint.
What should still be available during a triple FMC failure?
Autothrottles
They may be used in conjunction with any valid autopilot roll and/or pitch mode.
Fill in the blank: The _______ must have continuous electrical power to operate.
FMC
True or False: The backup FMC takes over when the master FMC fails.
False
The spare FMC automatically becomes active in case of a master FMC failure.
What device is primarily used for inputting downlink message forms in Air Traffic Control datalink functions?
Multifunction keypad
The multifunction keypad allows crew members to interact with downlink messages effectively.
How are arriving ATC uplink messages indicated to the crew?
By the appearance of the communications alert message ‘dot ATC’ on the EICAS display, ATC uplink information on the ATC data block, and a Hi-Lo alerting chime
This alerting mechanism ensures that the crew is promptly notified of incoming messages.
What types of clearance information may be uplinked from ATC?
Clearances such as headings, altitudes, speeds, and route clearance data
These clearances are crucial for maintaining safe and efficient flight operations.
What options are displayed in the ATC data block message for the crew to respond to a clearance?
ACCEPT and REJECT
The crew must decide to accept or reject the clearance based on the information provided.
What buttons can be used to complete the action of accepting or rejecting a clearance?
ACCEPT or REJECT switches on the glare shield or soft keys on the COMM display
These controls provide flexibility for the crew in managing incoming clearances.
What happens when a clearance can be loaded into the FMC?
LOAD FMC buttons appear on both the COMM display and the CDU help window
This indicates that the clearance can be integrated into the flight management system.
What is the benefit of loading the FMC first before accepting a clearance?
It provides the opportunity to view the clearance on the ND map display as a flight plan modification prior to acceptance
This allows for better situational awareness before finalizing decisions.
What message is displayed in the CDU help window during the loading of a clearance into the FMC?
ROUTE X UPLINK LOADING
This message informs the crew that the clearance is being processed.
What happens if an FMC modification is pending when a new ATC modification is received?
The new ATC modification cannot be loaded into the FMC, and the LOAD FMC prompts display in Cyan
This indicates that the crew cannot select the option until all current modifications are cleared.
What color indicates that the LOAD FMC prompt can be selected once the FMC is clear of all modifications?
Shaded white
This visual cue helps the crew understand the status of the FMC loading process.
What does FMC stand for in aviation?
Flight Management Computer
The FMC is a critical component for flight management and navigation.
What is a downlink in the context of the airplane communications system?
Data transferred from the FMC to a ground receiver
Downlinking can occur manually or automatically.
What is an uplink in aviation communications?
Data transmitted from a ground station to the FMC
Uplinks can be initiated by airline operations or in response to downlink requests.
What is the purpose of the airplane communications system?
Enables two-way datalink communications between the FMC and airline operations
This system is vital for operational efficiency and flight tracking.
What does CDU stand for?
Control Display Unit
The CDU is used for inputting and displaying information in the FMC.
What is the role of the 787 Common Computing Resource?
Supports various flight management functions
It integrates multiple systems for efficient operation.
What does CMF stand for in the context of aircraft communication?
Comm Management Function
CMF manages communication between the aircraft and ground stations.
What is the function of the FDCF?
Flight Deck Comm Function
It facilitates communication within the flight deck.
What types of data receivers are mentioned?
VHF, HF, SATCOM
Each type serves different communication needs based on range and technology.
Fill in the blank: A _______ occurs when data is transferred from the FMC to a ground receiver.
downlink
True or False: Data may be uplinked at the discretion of the airline operations dispatcher.
True
What does EICAS stand for?
Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System
EICAS provides critical information to the flight crew regarding engine performance and alerts.
What are downlinks in the context of datalink communications?
Datalink messages transmitted to a ground station
Downlinks include requests for data and reports of FMC data, made manually or automatically.
What are uplinks in the context of datalink communications?
Messages transmitted to the airplane
Most uplinks require manual selections by the flight crew, while some may be input automatically.
How does a flight crew initiate a manual downlink request?
Select a REQUEST prompt
REQUEST prompts may be displayed on various pages such as PERF INIT, TAKEOFF REF, DESCENT FORECAST, and others.
What happens when the communications function cannot prepare FMC downlinks?
Words FAIL, NO COMM, or VOICE display on the CDU pages
These messages indicate issues with data communications management or radio availability.
What does the status message ‘FAIL’ indicate?
The data communications management function is inoperative or the data radios have failed
This status prevents the preparation of FMC downlinks.
What does the status message ‘NO COMM’ indicate?
The data radios are operational but not available
This status means that while radios are functioning, they are not able to communicate.
What does the status message ‘VOICE’ indicate?
All available radios are operating in the VOICE mode
This status signifies that the radios are not available for datalink operations.
What is the purpose of the REPORT prompt in datalink communications?
To downlink a report applicable to that page
Reports can be generated from various pages, including ROUTE and POS REPORT.
Fill in the blank: Uplinks mostly require _______ selections by the flight crew.
manual
True or False: Downlink reports can only be made automatically.
False
Downlink reports can be made manually or automatically.
What pages may display REQUEST prompts for downlink requests?
- PERF INIT
- TAKEOFF REF 1/2
- DESCENT FORECAST
- RTE
- ALTN
- ALTN LIST
- RTE DATA
What must a flight crew do to downlink a position report?
Select the REPORT prompt on the POS REPORT page
What can the FMC be configured to do automatically during a flight?
Transmit downlinks of FMC data at predetermined points or in response to specific data requests
This process requires no action from the flight crew.
What is the difference between uplinked data that is loaded automatically and pending uplinked data?
Automatically loaded data does not require execution; pending uplinked data waits for flight crew action
Pending uplinked data can be accepted or rejected by the crew.
What prompts are used by the flight crew to respond to pending uplinked data?
ACCEPT/REJECT or LOAD/PURGE prompts, FMC modification ERASE prompt or EXEC key
Flight crew must select the applicable prompt to include or discard the uplink.
What pages can data be uplinked to from the airline dispatcher?
- PERF INIT
- TAKEOFF REF 1/2 and 2/2
- DESCENT FORECAST
- RTE
- ALTN
- ALTN LIST
- WIND pages
These uplinks are annunciated to the crew by FMC EICAS communications alert.
How does the flight crew receive alerts for uplinked data?
Through the FMC EICAS communications alert and a hi-lo chime
The uplink is identified by a CDU help window message.
What happens to wind uplinks if there is no active route?
They are not annunciated and the <WIND prompt on the COMM page is not shown
This indicates that certain uplinks are route-dependent.
What is the purpose of the REQUEST prompt on each page?
To downlink a unique request applicable to that page
This allows for specific data requests to be sent.
True or False: Flight crew action is always required for uplinked data.
False
Some uplinked data loads automatically without crew action.
What displays on the PERF INIT, TAKEOFF 1/2 and ALTN 1/2 pages after receipt of uplink data?
ACCEPT and REJECT
These prompts indicate the status of the uplinked data.
What happens when the ACCEPT prompt is selected?
Displays uplinked data in large font, replaces previous data, changes page to pre uplink format, clears CDU help window message, transmits downlink accept message (if enabled)
This process confirms the acceptance of new data.
What does the REJECT prompt do?
Replaces uplinked data with previous data, changes page to pre uplink format, clears CDU help window message, transmits downlink reject message (if enabled)
This action negates the new data received.
How is uplink data initially displayed?
In small font for preview
This allows the crew to quickly review the data before accepting or rejecting it.
What is the function of the FMC Datalink Uplinks?
To manage the acceptance or rejection of uplinked data
This functionality is critical for maintaining accurate flight management.
What does FMC stand for in the context of the B787?
Flight Management Computer
The Flight Management Computer is a critical system in modern aircraft that automates the tasks of navigation and flight planning.
Which page displays general datalink status on the FMC?
FMC COMM page
The FMC COMM page provides access to datalink data and displays the status of communication.
What information can be accessed via the FMC COMM page?
Datalink data
The page includes page select prompts for various MC pages to access specific datalink information.
Fill in the blank: The FMC COMM page displays _______ status.
General datalink
This status indicates the current operation and readiness of the datalink system.
What are the components listed under the FMC COMM page?
- UPLINK
- RTE 1
- ALTN
- PERF
- TAKEOFF
- WIND
- DES FORECAST
- POS REPORT
- CLB FORECAST
These components represent different types of data and operational statuses relevant to flight management.
True or False: The FMC COMM page does not allow access to datalink data.
False
The FMC COMM page is specifically designed to provide access to various datalink data.
What does FMC stand for in the context of the B787?
Flight Management Computer
The Flight Management Computer is a critical system in modern aircraft that automates the tasks of navigation and flight planning.
Which page displays general datalink status on the FMC?
FMC COMM page
The FMC COMM page provides access to datalink data and displays the status of communication.
What information can be accessed via the FMC COMM page?
Datalink data
The page includes page select prompts for various MC pages to access specific datalink information.
Fill in the blank: The FMC COMM page displays _______ status.
General datalink
This status indicates the current operation and readiness of the datalink system.
What are the components listed under the FMC COMM page?
- UPLINK
- RTE 1
- ALTN
- PERF
- TAKEOFF
- WIND
- DES FORECAST
- POS REPORT
- CLB FORECAST
These components represent different types of data and operational statuses relevant to flight management.
True or False: The FMC COMM page does not allow access to datalink data.
False
The FMC COMM page is specifically designed to provide access to various datalink data.
What does ADS-B stand for?
Automatic Dependent Surveillance - Broadcast
ADS-B is a surveillance technology for tracking aircraft.
What is the primary function of ADS-B?
To provide surveillance for air traffic control similar to conventional radar
It uses satellite-based position data from each airplane.
What are the two parts of the ADS-B system?
ADS-B Out and ADS-B In
Each part serves a different function in the surveillance system.
What is the role of ADS-B Out?
To broadcast the aircraft’s position data to ATC
This part is essential for air traffic management.
What is the role of ADS-B In?
To receive information from other aircraft and ATC
This enhances situational awareness for pilots.
How does ADS-B improve situational awareness?
By incorporating flight level management into navigation displays and INFO pages
This allows pilots to access critical flight information more effectively.
True or False: ADS-B is designed to completely replace radar.
False
ADS-B is designed to supplement and eventually replace radar as the primary means of tracking.
Fill in the blank: ADS-B is used by ATC for _______.
surveillance
This is similar to the use of conventional radar.
What does ADS-B stand for?
Automatic Dependent Surveillance - Broadcast
ADS-B is a surveillance technology for tracking aircraft.
What is the primary function of ADS-B?
To provide surveillance for air traffic control similar to conventional radar
It uses satellite-based position data from each airplane.
What are the two parts of the ADS-B system?
ADS-B Out and ADS-B In
Each part serves a different function in the surveillance system.
What is the role of ADS-B Out?
To broadcast the aircraft’s position data to ATC
This part is essential for air traffic management.
What is the role of ADS-B In?
To receive information from other aircraft and ATC
This enhances situational awareness for pilots.
How does ADS-B improve situational awareness?
By incorporating flight level management into navigation displays and INFO pages
This allows pilots to access critical flight information more effectively.
True or False: ADS-B is designed to completely replace radar.
False
ADS-B is designed to supplement and eventually replace radar as the primary means of tracking.
Fill in the blank: ADS-B is used by ATC for _______.
surveillance
This is similar to the use of conventional radar.
What is ADS-B (Out)?
A broadcast system similar to a Mode S transponder that transmits improved airplane information
Includes location, heading, speed, airplane type, flight ID, and altitude
How does ATC receive ADS-B (Out) information?
Through a network of ground-based receiving stations
What type of information does an airplane broadcast under ADS-B (Out)?
Its own position without information on other airplanes or devices receiving it
Is ADS-B (Out) automatic or manual?
Automatic, as no flight crew or controller action is required for transmission
What does ‘dependent surveillance’ mean in the context of ADS-B (Out)?
Surveillance information depends on the navigation and broadcast capability of the airplane
What is ADS-B (In)?
A term referring to systems that receive and show ADS-B (Out) surrounding traffic data to the flight crew
What information is displayed on the flight deck from ADS-B (In)?
Ground track, speed, and location information of nearby airplanes
What is the term ‘ownship’ in ADS-B terminology?
The airplane the flight crew is currently flying
Where do operational and system status messages from ADS-B (In) show?
On the ND, MiniMap, and INFO displays
What does the Traffic List function in ADS-B (In) allow the flight crew to do?
Sort airplanes with Mode S or ADS-B transponders within broadcasting range
What kind of traffic can be selected from the Traffic List?
Airplanes meeting ADS-B data accuracy criteria
What happens to unqualified traffic and non-ADS-B airplanes in the Traffic List?
They are not selectable
Is the Traffic List available on the ground?
No
What does the In Trail Procedure (ITP) function use to compute separation?
ADS-B data to compute separation from airplanes on adjacent flight levels
What does the ITP function allow pilots to request?
Cruise flight level changes with greater situational awareness and reduced ATC workload
Who sets the separation criteria for the ITP function?
Each airline
Are ADS-B (In) applications required for operation in controlled airspace?
No, they are used for pilot situational awareness only
What is ADS-B (Out)?
A broadcast system similar to a Mode S transponder that transmits improved airplane information
Includes location, heading, speed, airplane type, flight ID, and altitude
How does ATC receive ADS-B (Out) information?
Through a network of ground-based receiving stations
What type of information does an airplane broadcast under ADS-B (Out)?
Its own position without information on other airplanes or devices receiving it
Is ADS-B (Out) automatic or manual?
Automatic, as no flight crew or controller action is required for transmission
What does ‘dependent surveillance’ mean in the context of ADS-B (Out)?
Surveillance information depends on the navigation and broadcast capability of the airplane
What is ADS-B (In)?
A term referring to systems that receive and show ADS-B (Out) surrounding traffic data to the flight crew
What information is displayed on the flight deck from ADS-B (In)?
Ground track, speed, and location information of nearby airplanes
What is the term ‘ownship’ in ADS-B terminology?
The airplane the flight crew is currently flying
Where do operational and system status messages from ADS-B (In) show?
On the ND, MiniMap, and INFO displays
What does the Traffic List function in ADS-B (In) allow the flight crew to do?
Sort airplanes with Mode S or ADS-B transponders within broadcasting range
What kind of traffic can be selected from the Traffic List?
Airplanes meeting ADS-B data accuracy criteria
What happens to unqualified traffic and non-ADS-B airplanes in the Traffic List?
They are not selectable
Is the Traffic List available on the ground?
No
What does the In Trail Procedure (ITP) function use to compute separation?
ADS-B data to compute separation from airplanes on adjacent flight levels
What does the ITP function allow pilots to request?
Cruise flight level changes with greater situational awareness and reduced ATC workload
Who sets the separation criteria for the ITP function?
Each airline
Are ADS-B (In) applications required for operation in controlled airspace?
No, they are used for pilot situational awareness only
What does ADS-B stand for?
Automatic Dependent Surveillance–Broadcast
What is the role of the Integrated Surveillance System (ISS)?
To process raw traffic data from ADS-B (In) and TCAS receivers.
List the five hosted applications of the ISS.
- Visual Separation on Approach (VSA)
- Surface Traffic (SURF)
- Airborne (AIRB)
- Traffic List
- In Trail Procedure (ITP)
What data do ADS-B (In) and TCAS receivers provide to the ISS?
Raw traffic data
What type of information is displayed on the Cockpit Display of Traffic Information (CDTI)?
Processed traffic information from ADS-B and TCAS.
True or False: The ISS uses only ownship data to filter and sort processed data.
False
Fill in the blank: The ISS combines raw traffic data with _______ to feed its applications.
[ownship information]
What is the purpose of traffic filtering and sorting in the ISS?
To present relevant traffic information to flight crew.
What does VSA stand for in the context of flight management?
Visual Separation on Approach
VSA assists flight crews in acquiring and maintaining visual contact and separation.
