CH10 FLT INSTRUMENT, DISPLAYS Flashcards

1
Q

What does the Primary Flight Display (PFD) indicate for airspeed?

A

Displays air data reference system (ADRS) airspeed information and other airspeed related information.

This includes current airspeed and Mach number indications.

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2
Q

Which system’s attitude information is displayed on the PFD?

A

Inertial Reference System (IRS) attitude information.

This is critical for pilots to understand the aircraft’s orientation.

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3
Q

What does the PFD display regarding Autopilot and Flight Director System Status?

A

Refer to PFD and HUD Flight Mode Annunciations (FMAs) in Chapter 4, Section 10 for additional information.

This section provides details on the current operational mode of the autopilot.

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4
Q

What altitude information is displayed on the PFD?

A

Displays ADRS altitude and other altitude-related information.

This includes current altitude and altitude trends.

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5
Q

What does the PFD show for vertical speed?

A

Displays ADRS vertical speed and other vertical speed information.

This helps pilots monitor climb and descent rates.

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6
Q

What information is displayed on the mini-map of the PFD?

A

Displays current IRS heading, track, and other heading information.

The mini-map is useful for situational awareness.

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7
Q

What additional information does the mini-map on the PFD show?

A

Displays the flight plan with associated information.

Refer to ND Symbology in Chapter 10, Section 40 for more details.

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8
Q

Fill in the blank: The PFD displays _____ altitude-related information.

A

ADRS

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9
Q

True or False: The PFD does not include any airspeed information.

A

False

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10
Q

What does the PFD provide regarding flight plan information?

A

Displays the flight plan with associated information.

This aids in navigation and situational awareness.

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11
Q

What does the PFD airspeed indication display when the MCP IAS/MACH window is blank?

A

The FMC computed airspeed/Mach

This information is crucial for pilots to understand the aircraft’s performance in various flight conditions.

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12
Q

What does the speed trend vector indicate?

A

Predicted airspeed in ten seconds based on current acceleration or deceleration

This helps pilots anticipate changes in airspeed due to current flight dynamics.

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13
Q

What is indicated by the box around the current airspeed indication when it turns amber?

A

Airspeed is below minimum manoeuvring speed

This alert is critical for maintaining safe flight operations.

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14
Q

What does the current Mach display show?

A

Current ADRS Mach

This information is essential for high-speed flight operations.

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15
Q

What does the bottom of the maximum speed bar indicate?

A

Maximum airspeed limited by the lowest of:
* VMO/MMO
* Landing gear placard speed
* Flap placard speed

Understanding these limits is vital for safe operation and compliance with aircraft performance specifications.

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16
Q

What does the bottom of the amber bar indicate?

A

Maximum manoeuvring speed

This speed provides 1.3 g manoeuvre capability to high speed buffet for alternative approved manoeuvre capability as preset by maintenance.

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17
Q

At what bank angle does 1.3 g manoeuvre capability occur in level flight?

A

40°

This is an important consideration for pilots when performing maneuvers.

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18
Q

Fill in the blank: The selected speed bug is displayed in the _______.

A

MCP IAS/MACH window

This feature allows pilots to set and monitor their desired flight speed.

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19
Q

What does the Selected Speed Bug indicate in the PFD?

A

Points to the airspeed/Mach selected in the MCP IAS/MACH window

It also points to FMC computed airspeed when the MCP IAS/MACH window is blank.

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20
Q

What is the height of the Selected Speed Bug?

A

Five knots

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21
Q

What happens to the Selected Speed Bug when the selected speed is off scale?

A

The bug is parked at the top or bottom of the tape, with only one half the bug visible

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22
Q

What are the reference speeds indicated on the PFD?

A

V1, VR, and several airspeeds listed in knots

Specific values include 160, 140, 123, 240, 220, 200, and 100.

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23
Q

What does the PFD show when the MCP IAS/MACH window is blank?

A

FMC computed airspeed

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24
Q

Fill in the blank: The bug is _______ in height.

A

five knots

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25
Q

True or False: The Selected Speed Bug is visible when the selected speed is off scale.

A

False

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26
Q

What speeds are displayed on the Primary Flight Display (PFD) for takeoff?

A

V1, VR, V2

V1 is the decision speed, VR is the rotation speed, and V2 is the takeoff safety speed.

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27
Q

What happens to V1 and VR at lift-off?

A

They are removed from the display

This indicates that the aircraft has taken off and is no longer referencing these speeds.

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28
Q

Under what conditions is V2 removed from the display after takeoff?

A

When flap retraction begins, after 10 minutes without flap lever movement, or after VREF has been selected

VREF is the reference landing speed for a turn-back.

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29
Q

What is indicated by the VNAV Speed Band?

A

Speed range for VNAV path (VNAV PTH)

The VNAV Speed Band shows the upper and lower limits for VNAV operations.

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30
Q

What is the upper limit of the VNAV Speed Band?

A

Speed at which VNAV changes from VNAV PTH to VNAV SPD

This transition indicates a change in the flight mode for speed management.

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31
Q

What is the lower limit of the VNAV Speed Band?

A

Speed at which autothrottle adds thrust above FMC computed descent thrust

This is critical for maintaining the desired descent profile.

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32
Q

What does the flap manoeuvring speed indicate?

A

Flap retraction or extension speed

This speed is important for safe operations during flap changes.

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33
Q

At what altitude is the flap manoeuvring speed not displayed?

A

Above approximately 20,000 feet altitude

This helps reduce clutter on the display at higher altitudes.

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34
Q

When is a flap manoeuvring speed not shown relative to VREF?

A

If within 4 knots of VREF

This is to prevent unnecessary information overload on the display.

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35
Q

What happens if V speeds are not selected on the CDU?

A

NO VSPD is displayed

The CDU (Control Display Unit) must have the speeds selected for them to appear on the PFD.

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36
Q

What is Vl in the context of the takeoff reference speeds?

A

Displayed at the top of the airspeed indication when selected and if the value is off the scale

Vl is the minimum control speed in the air.

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37
Q

What does the Landing Reference Speed display on the PFD?

A

Displays the VREF speed as selected on the CDU

Refer to Approach Reference Page in Chapter 11, Section 43 for additional information.

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38
Q

What is indicated when the VREF speed is off the scale?

A

Displayed at the bottom of the airspeed indication

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39
Q

What does the top of the amber bar on the PFD indicate?

A

Minimum manoeuvring speed

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40
Q

What is the minimum manoeuvring speed capable of providing below approximately 20,000 ft?

A

1.3 g manoeuvre capability to stick shaker

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41
Q

What is the minimum manoeuvring speed capable of providing above approximately 20,000 ft?

A

1.3 g manoeuvre capability to low speed buffet or an alternative approved manoeuvre capability as preset by maintenance

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42
Q

When is the minimum speed displayed on the PFD?

A

Indicates the airspeed where stick shaker activates

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43
Q

What does the Landing Flap and VREF Speed indicate?

A

Displays landing flap position and landing reference speed

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44
Q

What is the significance of 1.3 g manoeuvre capability in level flight?

A

Occurs at 40° of bank

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45
Q

Fill in the blank: The PFD displays the VREF speed as selected on the _______.

A

[CDU]

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46
Q

What does the bank pointer indicate?

A

Bank angle in reference to the bank angle scale and direction toward wings level

The bank pointer fills and turns amber if bank angle is 35° or more.

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47
Q

What is the function of the slip/skid indication?

A

Displaces beneath the bank pointer to indicate slip or skid

It fills white at full scale deflection and turns amber if bank angle is 35° or more.

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48
Q

What does the pitch limit indication represent?

A

Pitch limit (stick shaker activation point for the existing flight conditions)

Limited to a maximum of +30 degrees and displayed when the flaps are not up or at slow speeds with the flaps up.

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49
Q

What does the horizon line and pitch scale indicate?

A

The IRS horizon relative to the airplane symbol

The pitch scale is in 2.5° increments.

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50
Q

What is the bank scale used for?

A

Fixed reference for the bank pointer

Scale marks are at 0°, 10°, 20°, 30°, 45°, and 60°.

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51
Q

What does the airplane symbol indicate?

A

Airplane attitude with reference to the IRS horizon

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52
Q

What does the Flight Director Pitch and Roll Bars indicate?

A

Indicates flight director pitch and roll steering commands

Refer to Autopilot Flight Director Roll and Pitch Controls in Chapter 4, Section 10, for additional information.

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53
Q

What does the Flight Path Vector (FPV) display?

A

Displays Flight Path Angle (FPA) and drift angle

FPV is displayed if FPV is selected on the EFIS control panel or FPA is selected on the MCP.

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54
Q

How is the Flight Path Angle (FPA) displayed?

A

Displayed relative to the horizon line.

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55
Q

What does the drift angle represent in the Flight Path Vector (FPV)?

A

Perpendicular distance from the centerline of the pitch scale to the FPV symbol.

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56
Q

What does the Selected Flight Path Angle (FPA) indicate?

A

Indicates the selected flight path angle when FPA is selected on the MCP.

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57
Q

When is the Horizon Line Heading Scale displayed?

A

Displayed when:
* FPV is selected on the EFIS control panel
* FPA is selected on the MCP
* Current bank angle is less than 50°
* Absolute pitch angle is less than 20°

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58
Q

What does a magenta bug on the Horizon Line Heading Scale reflect?

A

Reflects the MCP selected heading/track value.

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59
Q

Fill in the blank: The Flight Path Vector (FPV) is selected on the _______ control panel.

A

[EFIS]

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60
Q

True or False: The Flight Path Angle (FPA) can be displayed without selecting it on the MCP.

A

False

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61
Q

What does the Primary Flight Display (PFD) show for radio altitude below 2,500 feet AGL?

A

Displays radio altitude below 2,500 feet AGL

The display box is highlighted in white for 10 seconds when passing below 2,500 feet.

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62
Q

What color does the PFD display turn when below radio altitude minimums?

A

Amber

This indicates that the aircraft is below the minimum radio altitude.

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63
Q

When are Rising Runway indications displayed on the PFD?

A

Displayed below 2,500 feet altitude when the localizer pointer is in view for both front and back courses

The rising runway symbol moves toward the airplane symbol below 200 feet radio altitude.

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64
Q

What happens to the stem of the rising runway symbol when localizer deviations occur?

A

Flashes

The stem flashes when localizer deviations cause the diamond to flash.

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65
Q

What does ANP stand for?

A

Actual Navigation Performance

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66
Q

What does RNP stand for?

A

Required Navigation Performance

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67
Q

Under what conditions are PFD Navigation Performance Indications displayed?

A

When LNAV is armed or active, VNAV is active, or TO/GA roll mode is active

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68
Q

True or False: PFD Navigation Performance Indications are displayed when only VNAV is active.

A

False

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69
Q

Fill in the blank: PFD Navigation Performance Indications are shown when _______ is armed or active.

A

[LNAV]

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70
Q

What mode must be active for PFD Navigation Performance Indications to be displayed alongside LNAV?

A

VNAV

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71
Q

Which mode indicates a roll mode for takeoff or go-around?

A

TO/GA roll mode

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72
Q

List the three conditions that trigger PFD Navigation Performance Indications.

A
  • LNAV is armed or active
  • VNAV is active
  • TO/GA roll mode is active
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73
Q

What does the PFD stand for?

A

Primary Flight Display

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74
Q

What does the Navigation Performance Scale (NPS) Deviation Pointer indicate?

A

Indicates the navigation path relative to the airplane position

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75
Q

What does an unfilled magenta triangle on the NPS Deviation Pointer indicate?

A

Parked at deflection limit

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76
Q

What does a filled magenta triangle on the NPS Deviation Pointer indicate?

A

Not parked at deflection limit

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77
Q

When is the NPS Deviation Pointer displayed on the vertical deviation scale?

A

Only in descent phase of flight

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78
Q

What happens to the NPS Deviation Pointer if it migrates into the bar area for five seconds?

A

Flashes for ten seconds

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79
Q

What do the outer white tic marks on the lateral and vertical scales represent?

A

RNP

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80
Q

What does the center white tic mark represent on the deviation scales?

A

Airplane position

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81
Q

What does the part of the bar extending from an outer tic mark toward the center tic mark represent?

A

ANP

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82
Q

What happens to the bars if the ANP value increases?

A

Bars become longer, extending toward the center white tic mark

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83
Q

True or False: The deviation bars show on the vertical scale during any phase of flight.

A

False

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84
Q

The area between the deviation bars indicates _______.

A

Margin available to remain within RNP criteria

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85
Q

What is the initial state of the NPS Deviation Pointer when parked at deflection limit?

A

Filled

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86
Q

What is the significance of the margin available between bars on the deviation scales?

A

Indicates the available margin to remain within RNP criteria

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87
Q

What happens if ANP equals or exceeds RNP?

A

The white bars meet in the middle

This indicates that the navigation performance is being met.

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88
Q

What indicates that RNP operations can no longer be maintained after ANP exceeds RNP?

A

The bars and scale turn amber

This occurs after 5 seconds of exceeding the RNP.

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89
Q

What message is displayed when RNP operations cannot be maintained?

A

NAV UNABLE RNP EICAS message

This message is displayed on the lateral scale only.

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90
Q

What occurs if the pointer migrates into the bar area for more than 5 seconds?

A

Scale and ANP bars turn amber and pointer flashes for 10 seconds

This indicates a potential navigation performance issue.

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91
Q

What does PFD stand for?

A

Primary Flight Display

It is crucial for displaying flight information to the pilots.

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92
Q

In the context of PFD, what does ILS stand for?

A

Instrument Landing System

ILS is used for guiding aircraft during approach and landing.

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93
Q

Fill in the blank: If the ANP pointer is in the bar area for more than 5 seconds, the pointer will _______ for 10 seconds.

A

flash

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94
Q

True or False: The scale turns amber immediately when ANP exceeds RNP.

A

False

The scale turns amber after 5 seconds of exceeding RNP.

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95
Q

What are the visual indications on the PFD when RNP operations can no longer be maintained?

A

Bars and scale turn amber

This serves as a warning to the pilots.

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96
Q

List the components mentioned in the PFD navigation performance indications.

A
  • ANP bars
  • Lateral scale
  • NAV UNABLE RNP message
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97
Q

What information is displayed on the Primary Flight Display (PFD) regarding the Instrument Landing System (ILS)?

A

Selected ILS/GLS identifier or frequency, approach front course, ILS/GLS DME distance, navigation source annunciation

The navigation source annunciation is independent of the approach data.

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98
Q

What does the navigation source annunciation identify?

A

Source of navigation performance for the deviation scales

The annunciation is displayed on the third line of the PFD.

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99
Q

List the possible combinations for source annunciation on the PFD.

A
  • NPS
  • ILS Localizer
  • GLS Localizer
  • ILS Glideslope
  • GLS Glideslope
  • FMC
  • GPS/FMC

Each source indicates different navigation systems being utilized.

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100
Q

Under what conditions does ILS/GLS approach reference data appear on the PFD?

A

When an appropriate approach has been selected to the active route and either:
* Manually tuned
* Auto-tuned and the airplane is
* < 150 NM from the destination airport
* < 50 NM from Top of Descent
* FMC is in descent mode

This ensures that the aircraft is in the correct phase of flight for approach.

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101
Q

True or False: If the tuned ILS/GLS frequencies disagree, the frequency will turn amber.

A

True

An amber horizontal line will also appear through the frequency.

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102
Q

What happens if the approach courses in the ILS/GLS receivers disagree?

A

The course turns amber with an amber horizontal line through it

This indicates a discrepancy that needs to be resolved.

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103
Q

What does the NPS Deviation Pointer indicate?

A

Indicates the navigation path relative to the airplane position

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104
Q

What is indicated by the localizer pointer when NPS are shown?

A

Unfilled white diamond for LOC

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105
Q

What is indicated by the localizer pointer when NPS are not shown?

A

Unfilled magenta diamond for LOC

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106
Q

When does the localizer pointer become filled magenta?

A

When within 2 1/2 dots from the center

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107
Q

When is the localizer scale in view?

A

After the frequency is tuned if NPS are not shown

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108
Q

What happens to the scale at low radio altitudes with autopilot engaged?

A

Turns amber and the pointer flashes to indicate excessive localizer deviation

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109
Q

What does the marker beacon indication show when over a marker beacon transmitter?

A

Flashing indication

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110
Q

What does ‘IM’ stand for in marker beacon indication?

A

Inner Marker

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111
Q

What does ‘MM’ stand for in marker beacon indication?

A

Middle Marker

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112
Q

What does ‘OM’ stand for in marker beacon indication?

A

Outer Marker

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113
Q

How does the glideslope pointer appear when NPS are shown?

A

Unfilled white diamond for glideslope

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114
Q

How does the glideslope pointer appear when PS are not shown?

A

Unfilled magenta diamond for glideslope

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115
Q

Fill in the blank: The pointer indicates the ______ relative to the airplane position.

A

glideslope

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116
Q

What does the glideslope pointer indicate?

A

The glideslope relative to the airplane position

The pointer can show different symbols based on whether NPS are shown.

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117
Q

What does an unfilled white diamond represent on the glideslope pointer?

A

Glideslope if NPS are shown

Indicates the airplane’s position relative to the glideslope.

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118
Q

What does an unfilled magenta diamond indicate on the glideslope pointer?

A

Glideslope if NPS are not shown

This symbol appears when the glideslope signal is received.

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119
Q

When does the glideslope pointer become filled magenta?

A

When within 2 1/2 dots from the center

Indicates proximity to the ideal glideslope path.

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120
Q

What happens to the glideslope scale at low radio altitudes with autopilot engaged?

A

The scale turns amber and the pointer flashes

Indicates excessive glideslope deviation.

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121
Q

What is displayed on the PFD when the autopilot or flight director is in LOC mode?

A

Expanded Localizer Scale

This provides a more sensitive display when close to the runway center line.

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122
Q

In the expanded localizer scale, what does a rectangle represent?

A

1/2 dot deviation

This helps pilots gauge their lateral position relative to the runway.

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123
Q

What remains in view until glideslope capture if either LNAV or VNAV is active?

A

NPS indications

This is crucial for tracking the glideslope during descent.

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124
Q

True or False: The glideslope pointer is not in view unless the glideslope signal is received.

A

True

Indicates that the pointer only appears when a valid signal is detected.

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125
Q

Fill in the blank: The scale is in view after the frequency is tuned if _______ are not shown.

A

PS

PS refers to Primary System indications.

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126
Q

What does the approach reference data display include?

A
  • Type of approach
  • Runway
  • Approach front course
  • Missed approach waypoint name
  • Distance to that waypoint
  • Source annunciation
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127
Q

What are the conditions for approach reference data to appear on the display?

A
  • < 150 NM from the destination airport
  • < 50 NM from Top of Descent
  • FMC is in descent mode
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128
Q

True or False: The source annunciation on the PFD is dependent on the approach data.

A

False

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129
Q

What does the NPS Deviation Pointer indicate?

A

The navigation path relative to the airplane position.

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130
Q

What are the possible combinations for source annunciation in the Horizontal Scale?

A
  • INPS
  • Final Approach Course
  • ILS Localizer
  • GLS Localizer
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131
Q

What are the possible combinations for source annunciation in the Vertical Scale?

A
  • Glidepath
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132
Q

Fill in the blank: The approach reference data appears when the appropriate approach has been selected to the active route and the airplane is _______.

A

< 150 NM from the destination airport

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133
Q

What does the term ‘FMC’ stand for in this context?

A

Flight Management Computer

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134
Q

What is indicated when the source annunciation shows ‘NPS’?

A

Navigation Performance Status

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135
Q

What does the term ‘IAN’ stand for?

A

Integrated Approach Navigation

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136
Q

What does the final approach course pointer indicate?

A

The final approach course relative to the airplane position

It shows an unfilled white triangle for FAC if LNAV is active and an unfilled magenta triangle if LNAV is not active.

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137
Q

When is the final approach course pointer in view?

A

When < 25 NM from missed approach point and airplane position is within 60° of FAC

The pointer becomes filled magenta when captured.

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138
Q

What are the additional features of the scale related to the final approach course?

A

Has additional tic marks at 1/2 RNP and appears with approach reference data if navigation performance scales are not shown

Appears when capture occurs if either LNAV or VNAV is active, or LNAV is armed.

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139
Q

How do the deviation scales for final approach differ from ILS/GLS scales?

A

They are proportional to RNP and do not become more sensitive as ILS/GLS scales do

With autopilot engaged or flight director on, the scale turns amber and the pointer flashes to indicate excessive final approach course deviation.

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140
Q

What does the glidepath pointer indicate?

A

Glidepath position relative to the airplane position

It shows an unfilled white triangle if VNAV is active and an unfilled magenta triangle if VNAV is not active.

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141
Q

What does the glidepath pointer indicate?

A

Glidepath position relative to the airplane position

The pointer shows whether the airplane is above, below, or on the glidepath.

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142
Q

What does an unfilled white triangle on the glidepath pointer signify?

A

VNAV is active

VNAV stands for Vertical Navigation, indicating the system is in use.

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143
Q

What does an unfilled magenta triangle on the glidepath pointer signify?

A

VNAV is not active

This indicates that vertical navigation is currently disabled.

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144
Q

Under what conditions is the glidepath pointer in view?

A

If:
* < 6,000 feet above field elevation
* < 25 NM from missed approach point
* Airplane position is within 60° of FAC
* Airplane track is within 90° of FAC

FAC refers to Final Approach Course.

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145
Q

What indicates that the glidepath has been captured?

A

Filled magenta triangle

This visual cue confirms that the aircraft is following the glidepath.

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146
Q

What additional features does the glidepath scale have?

A

Additional tic marks at 1/2 RNP

RNP stands for Required Navigation Performance.

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147
Q

When does the glidepath scale appear?

A

When:
* Approach reference data is shown if navigation performance scales are not shown
* Capture occurs if either LNAV or VNAV is active, or LNAV is armed

LNAV stands for Lateral Navigation.

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148
Q

What happens to the glidepath scale when the autopilot is engaged or flight director is on?

A

Turns amber and the pointer flashes

This indicates excessive glidepath deviation, requiring pilot attention.

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149
Q

What is the purpose of the Primary Flight Display (PFD)?

A

To provide integrated approach navigation indications

The PFD consolidates critical flight data for easier pilot monitoring.

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150
Q

What does the Selected Altitude Bug indicate?

A

The altitude set in the MCP altitude window

It is parked at the top or bottom of the tape when off scale, with only one half visible.

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151
Q

What does the Altitude Trend Vector indicate?

A

Expected altitude six seconds ahead based on current vertical speed

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152
Q

How is the Selected Altitude displayed when MTRS is selected?

A

In meters, displayed in 10 meter increments

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153
Q

What is the visual indication of the Selected Altitude box when approaching the selected altitude?

A

Highlighted in white between 900 feet and 200 feet prior to reaching the selected altitude

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154
Q

What does the Current Altitude indicate?

A

Current ADRS altitude

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155
Q

How is the Current Altitude displayed when MTRS is selected?

A

Displays altitude in meters

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156
Q

What color highlights the Current Altitude box when deviating beyond 200 feet from selected altitude?

A

Highlighted amber

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157
Q

When is the amber highlight removed from the Current Altitude box?

A

When deviation continues beyond 900 feet

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158
Q

Fill in the blank: The Selected Altitude is displayed in _______ when selected in the MCP altitude window.

A

[feet]

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159
Q

What does the Landing Altitude Reference Bar indicate?

A

The height above touchdown

White bar indicates 500 to 1,000 feet above landing altitude; amber bar indicates 0 to 500 feet above landing altitude.

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160
Q

What does the BARO Minimums Pointer represent?

A

The minimum altitude as a triangular bug and line on the altitude scale

Turns steady amber when the airplane descends below baro minimums.

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161
Q

What does the crosshatched area on the PFD indicate?

A

The FMC landing altitude for the destination runway or airport

Indicates the landing altitude for the departure runway until 400 NM or one-half the distance to the destination.

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162
Q

What happens when the EFIS control panel MINS reference selector is set to BARO?

A

Displays BARO minimums

Displays minimums in feet MSL.

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163
Q

What happens when the EFIS control panel MINS reference selector is set to RADIO?

A

Displays RADIO minimums

Displays minimums in radio altitude feet AGL.

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164
Q

What indication occurs when the airplane descends below selected minimum altitude?

A

Turns amber and flashes for 3 seconds

This applies to both BARO and RADIO minimums.

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165
Q

What are the two types of minimums displayed on the PFD?

A
  • BARO minimums
  • RADIO minimums

BARO minimums are in feet MSL and RADIO minimums are in feet AGL.

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166
Q

What does the PFD Barometric Setting indicate?

A

Indicates the barometric setting selected on the EFIS control panel barometric selector.

STD is displayed when STD is selected.

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167
Q

What happens to the barometric display when altitude climbs above the transition altitude?

A

The display is boxed and changes to amber.

This occurs if a barometric setting is set or if STD is set and altitude descends below the transition flight level.

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168
Q

What units can be displayed for the barometric setting reference?

A
  • IN (inches of mercury)
  • HPA (Hectopascals)

These are selected on the EFIS control panel barometric reference selector.

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169
Q

What does QFE altitude reference indicate?

A

Indicates QFE altitude reference selected on the CDU APPROACH REF page.

QFE is boxed for 10 seconds when selected.

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170
Q

What visual cue indicates QFE operation on the altitude tape?

A

The altitude tape is shaded green.

This shading is removed when QNH is selected.

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171
Q

How is QNH displayed after being selected?

A

Displayed for 10 seconds, then blanks.

This occurs after the green shading is removed.

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172
Q

What does the Autopilot/Flight Director Barometric Source indicate?

A

Indicates whether the left or right EFIS control panel is the barometric setting reference.

The same indication is displayed on both PFDs.

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173
Q

When is L or R indicated for the barometric source?

A
  • F/D - one turned on and one not on determines L or R
  • F/D - both on - L is displayed
  • A/P - first one pushed on determines L or R

These indications are displayed when the flight director switch is ON or the autopilot is engaged.

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174
Q

What is the purpose of the barometric setting in the PFD?

A

To indicate the atmospheric pressure for altitude calculations

This setting is crucial for accurate altitude readings.

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175
Q

When is a barometric setting considered preselected?

A

When STD is displayed

The preset setting is selected via the EFIS control panel.

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176
Q

What does the small QFE indication indicate when STD is selected?

A

It indicates that QFE is selected

QFE represents the pressure setting for an airport.

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177
Q

What does the annunciation UL signify in the PFD?

A

It signifies that a barometric setting uplink is accepted

This is shown to the left of the barometric preselect field.

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178
Q

Fill in the blank: The preset barometric setting is displayed below _______.

A

STD

STD stands for standard pressure setting.

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179
Q

What does the PFD display when a barometric setting is preselected?

A

The preset barometric setting below STD

This allows pilots to see the current setting easily.

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180
Q

True or False: The PFD can only display one type of barometric setting at a time.

A

True

Only the selected or preselected pressure setting will be displayed.

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181
Q

What does the Vertical Speed Pointer indicate?

A

Indicates current vertical speed

It shows the rate of climb or descent in feet per minute.

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182
Q

What does the Selected Vertical Speed Bug represent?

A

Indicates the speed selected in the MCP vertical speed window with the V/S pitch mode active

MCP stands for Mode Control Panel.

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183
Q

When is vertical speed displayed?

A

Displays vertical speed when greater than 400 feet per minute

This is relevant for both climbing and descending phases of flight.

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184
Q

Where is the display located when climbing versus descending?

A

Above when climbing and below when descending

This helps pilots quickly assess vertical speed direction.

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185
Q

True or False: The selected track bug and selected heading bug are displayed at the same time on the PFD.

A

False

Only one of these indications can be displayed at a time.

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186
Q

What does the Current Heading Pointer indicate?

A

Indicates current heading

The Current Heading Pointer is a vital component of the Primary Flight Display (PFD).

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187
Q

Where is the Selected Track Bug displayed?

A

On the inside of the compass rose

The Selected Track Bug helps pilots understand the selected track in relation to their current heading.

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188
Q

What happens if the selected track exceeds the display range?

A

The bug parks on the side of the compass rose in the direction of the shorter turn to the track

This feature aids in navigation by indicating the direction to turn.

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189
Q

What does the Track Line indicate?

A

Indicates the current track

The Track Line is crucial for pilots to follow their intended flight path.

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190
Q

What is displayed when HDG is selected on the MCP?

A

SEL HDG

This indicates that the selected heading is being referenced.

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191
Q

What is displayed when TRK is selected on the MCP?

A

SEL TRK

This indicates that the selected track is being referenced.

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192
Q

Where is the Selected Heading Bug displayed?

A

On the outside of the compass rose

The Selected Heading Bug allows pilots to visualize their selected heading.

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193
Q

What occurs if the selected heading exceeds the display range?

A

The bug parks on the side of the compass rose in the direction of the shorter turn to the heading

This feature simplifies navigation by showing the required turn direction.

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194
Q

What does the Heading/Track Reference display?

A

Displays the automatic or manually selected heading/track reference

This can include MAG (magnetic north) or TRU (true north).

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195
Q

Fill in the blank: The Heading/Track Reference can be either _______ or _______.

A

MAG, TRU

These references help pilots understand their orientation in relation to the earth’s magnetic field or true north.

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196
Q

What mode is the PFD shown in for some display failures?

A

PFD Reversion Mode

The PFD remains in the same relative position referenced to the airplane symbol center.

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197
Q

In PFD Reversion Mode, how is the PFD displayed?

A

The PFD with mini-map is cropped to fit within an MFD window

This is one half of a Display Unit.

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198
Q

What happens to all PFD symbology in Reversion Mode?

A

All PFD symbology remains in the same relative position

It is referenced to the airplane symbol center.

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199
Q

What is indicated by ‘SPD’ in the PFD?

A

Speed

This is a key parameter displayed on the Primary Flight Display.

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200
Q

What does ‘LNAV’ stand for in the context of PFD?

A

Lateral Navigation

LNAV is a mode that assists with lateral flight path management.

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201
Q

What does ‘VNAV PTH’ refer to?

A

Vertical Navigation Path

VNAV helps manage vertical flight path during climbs and descents.

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202
Q

Fill in the blank: The PFD displays a ground speed reading labeled as _______.

A

GS

GS represents the ground speed of the aircraft.

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203
Q

What does ‘TAS’ stand for in the PFD?

A

True Airspeed

TAS is the speed of the aircraft relative to the air.

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204
Q

What does ‘FMC’ represent?

A

Flight Management Computer

The FMC is used for flight planning and navigation.

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205
Q

What is the function of ‘A/P’ in the PFD?

A

Autopilot

A/P is used to automate the control of the aircraft.

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206
Q

True or False: In PFD Reversion Mode, the display is unaffected by failures.

A

False

The PFD is specifically shown in reversion mode due to display failures.

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207
Q

What altitude is indicated as ‘31000’ in the PFD?

A

Flight Level 310

This indicates an altitude of 31,000 feet.

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208
Q

Fill in the blank: The PFD displays a standard altimeter setting labeled as _______.

A

STD

STD indicates the standard atmospheric pressure setting.

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209
Q

What does PFD stand for?

A

Primary Flight Display

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210
Q

What are the conditions under which the AOA SPD message is displayed?

A

When the ADRS airspeed is not available or the on-side AIR DATA/ATT selector is in ALTN position

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211
Q

True or False: The Mach indication is displayed when the AOA SPD message is shown.

A

False

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212
Q

What does AOA SPD represent?

A

A backup airspeed based on AOA and inertial data

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213
Q

What happens to the baro setting display when the ADRS altitude is not valid?

A

It is not displayed

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214
Q

List two conditions that lead to the display of the ISFD SPD message.

A
  • ADRS airspeed is not available
  • On-side AIR DATA/ATT selector is in ALTN position
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215
Q

Fill in the blank: GPS ALT derived altitude displays cannot be used to accurately maintain _______.

A

ATC assigned altitudes

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216
Q

What does the term ‘ISFD ALT’ refer to?

A

An altitude indication related to the ISFD

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217
Q

What is the implication of displaying AOA SPD in relation to amber band indications?

A

Upper and lower amber band indications are not displayed

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218
Q

What does the term ‘ADRS’ stand for in the context of flight displays?

A

Air Data Reference System

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219
Q

What is ISFD SPD?

A

A backup airspeed based on single source data from the center pitot air data module and the center static air data module

Displayed if both the ADRS airspeed and AOA SPD are unavailable.

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220
Q

When is GPS ALT displayed?

A

Displayed when:
* the ADRS altitude is not available
* the on-side AIR DATA/ATT selector has been placed in the ALTN position

GPS ALT is a backup altitude based on data from GPS L or GPS R.

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221
Q

What is ISFD ALT?

A

A backup altitude based on single source data from the center static air data module

Displayed if both the ADRS altitude and GPS ALT are unavailable.

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222
Q

What do PFD failure flags indicate?

A

Indicate source system failure or lack of computed information

PFD failure flags replace the appropriate display.

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223
Q

What does SEL SPD refer to?

A

Selected Speed

Part of the flight instruments used to indicate the selected airspeed.

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224
Q

What is the function of Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)?

A

Used to measure the distance to a VOR or other navigational aid

Enhances navigation capabilities.

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225
Q

What does the term ‘Flight Path Vector’ refer to?

A

Represents the aircraft’s intended flight path

Essential for understanding trajectory and navigation.

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226
Q

Fill in the blank: PFD failure flags replace the appropriate display to indicate _______.

A

[source system failure]

Indicates a lack of computed information.

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227
Q

What does SPD LIM stand for?

A

Speed Limit

Indicates the maximum allowable speed for safe operations.

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228
Q

What is the significance of the Flight Director?

A

Guides the pilot to follow a specific flight path

Essential for maintaining proper aircraft attitude and navigation.

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229
Q

True or False: ISFD SPD is displayed when ADRS airspeed is available.

A

False

ISFD SPD is only displayed if both ADRS airspeed and AOA SPD are unavailable.

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230
Q

What does Glideslope / Glidepath indicate?

A

The vertical descent angle for landing

Critical for approach and landing phases.

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231
Q

What does the Vertical Situation Display (VSD) present?

A

A profile view of the airplane and its environment

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232
Q

Where is the VSD located on the Navigation Display (ND)?

A

On the bottom third of the ND

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233
Q

What type of information is shown within the cyan dashed lines on the ND?

A

Terrain, waypoint, and other information

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234
Q

In which mode can the VSD be displayed?

A

MAP mode

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235
Q

Fill in the blank: The VSD corridor is represented by _______ on the ND.

A

cyan dashed lines

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236
Q

What does the Navigation Display (ND) feature in the Vertical Situation Display (VSD)?

A

Indicates the area mapped by the VSD

Displayed in cyan

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237
Q

What is the default mode of the VSD?

A

Track mode

Dashed lines offset by 1 RNP from instantaneous track of airplane

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238
Q

What conditions automatically select Route mode on the VSD when the airplane is on the ground?

A
  • An active flight plan has been entered
  • A departure runway has been selected
  • LNAV is armed

The airplane must be on the ground

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239
Q

What conditions must be met for Route mode to be selected while the airplane is in the air?

A
  • Airplane is in a path-based mode (LNAV, LOC, or FAC)
  • Lateral path deviation is less than RNP

RNP stands for Required Navigation Performance

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240
Q

What does the Altitude Reference Scale display?

A

Altitude in reference to the vertical position of the airplane symbol, terrain, and other objects

Shaded green during QFE operations

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241
Q

What does the airplane symbol on the VSD indicate?

A

Current airplane altitude and lateral position relative to terrain

The bottom of the triangle indicates altitude, while the point indicates lateral position

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242
Q

What does the Horizontal Reference Scale display?

A

Range in nautical miles

The scale is the full range selected on the EFIS control panel when the normal-display ND is used

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243
Q

In full-display ND mode, how is the Horizontal Reference Scale range calculated?

A

Twice the full range selected on the EFIS control panel

Applies when using the full-display ND

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244
Q

What does the MCP Selected Altitude Readout display?

A

The altitude set in the MCP altitude window

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245
Q

What does the Active Vertical Path display?

A

The path that VNAV commands if active

The VSD must be in route mode for the active vertical path to be displayed.

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246
Q

What indicates the selected altitude in the MCP?

A

Selected Altitude Bug and Line

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247
Q

What happens when the selected altitude is off scale?

A

The bug is parked at the top or bottom, with only one half the bug visible

The dashed line does not park.

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248
Q

What do the BARO Minimums Bug and Line indicate?

A

The barometric minimums selected on the EFIS control panel

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249
Q

What color do the pointer and dashed line turn when the airplane descends below selected minimum altitude?

A

Amber

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250
Q

How can the BARO Minimums be reset?

A

With the RST switch on the EFIS control panel

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251
Q

What is displayed with any altitude constraint beneath the Waypoint ID?

A

Dashed vertical line depicts lateral position

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252
Q

During QFE operations, how are altitude constraints shown?

A

In parentheses below the QNH values

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253
Q

What does the FMC Approach Glidepath Angle Line display?

A

Displayed for approaches that have a designated approach angle

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254
Q

How far does the dashed line of the FMC Approach Glidepath Angle extend?

A

10 NM for situational awareness

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255
Q

To what is the FMC Approach Glidepath Angle Line anchored?

A

The missed approach waypoint, not the runway

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256
Q

What symbol is used to represent altitude constraints on the waypoint anchor line?

A

Triangle(s)

The altitude constraint symbol is displayed as triangle(s) on the waypoint anchor line.

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257
Q

What does the Vertical Situation Display (VSD) represent in flight instruments?

A

Flight path background

The VSD provides a visual representation of the flight path background.

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258
Q

What does MCP stand for in the context of flight instruments?

A

Mode Control Panel

The MCP is used to set various flight parameters, including vertical speed and flight path angle.

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259
Q

What does the dashed target angle line indicate when the MCP V/S mode is selected?

A

Selected vertical speed

It displays the selected vertical speed as a dashed target angle line.

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260
Q

What does the dashed target angle line indicate when the MCP FPA mode is selected?

A

Flight path angle vector

It displays the flight path angle vector as a dashed target angle line.

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261
Q

What does the Vertical Flight Path Vector indicate?

A

Current flight path angle

It shows current flight path angle based on vertical speed and groundspeed.

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262
Q

How is the length of the Vertical Flight Path Vector determined?

A

Fixed at one half of the VSD range

The length of the vector does not change and is fixed relative to the VSD range.

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263
Q

What does the Range to Target Speed Dot (RTSD) indicate?

A

Where the airplane will achieve the target speed

It shows the position where the airplane will reach the FMC or MCP target speed.

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264
Q

When does the RTSD dot appear?

A

More than 5 knots above target speed

The dot is blanked within 5 knots of the target speed.

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265
Q

What does the Range to Target Speed Dot (RTSD) indicate?

A

Indicates where the airplane will achieve the FMC or MCP target speed

The dot is blanked within 5 knots of target speed, appears if more than 5 knots above target speed, and is placed at the end or edge of the vertical flight path vector line based on speed achievement.

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266
Q

When does the Range to Target Speed Dot appear?

A

Appears if more than 5 knots above target speed

The dot is unfilled and placed at the end of the vertical flight path vector line if the speed will not be achieved in that distance.

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267
Q

What is the purpose of the 3° Reference Line?

A

Displayed for approaches that do not have a designated approach angle

The dashed line extends 10 NM for situational awareness and is anchored to the runway threshold.

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268
Q

What do Decision Gates represent?

A

Displayed on the FMC approach glidepath angle line at 500 feet and 1,000 feet above field elevation

They help in determining the aircraft’s position relative to the glidepath.

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269
Q

What does the Runway symbol represent on the display?

A

Represents the selected runway

The runway length is scaled to the selected range.

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270
Q

Fill in the blank: The Range to Target Speed Dot is blanked within _______ of target speed.

A

5 knots

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271
Q

True or False: The 3° Reference Line may intersect terrain.

A

True

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272
Q

What is the altitude at which Decision Gates are displayed?

A

500 feet and 1,000 feet above field elevation

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273
Q

How far does the 3° Reference Line extend?

A

10 NM

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274
Q

What happens to the Range to Target Speed Dot if the speed will not be achieved within the display area?

A

It is unfilled and placed at the edge of the display along the vertical flight path vector line.

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275
Q

What does the Terrain Profile Line on the Vertical Situation Display (VSD) represent?

A

The highest terrain within the enroute corridor

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276
Q

How is the actual altitude separation between the airplane and terrain shown on the VSD?

A

By depicting terrain below and ahead of the airplane

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277
Q

What color indicates terrain that is more than 500 feet below the airplane on the VSD?

A

Green

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278
Q

What color indicates terrain ranging from 500 feet below to 2,000 feet above the airplane on the VSD?

A

Amber

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279
Q

What color indicates terrain that is more than 2,000 feet above the airplane on the VSD?

A

Red

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280
Q

At what range does the Airport Map automatically display if the airport is the ORIGIN or DESTINATION?

A

5 NM or less

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281
Q

What is the ICAO ID for the taxiway mentioned in the Airport Map Display?

A

TASSO

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282
Q

Fill in the blank: The Airport Map is integrated with the _______.

A

[Navigation Display (ND)]

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283
Q

True or False: The Airport Map Display shows construction areas.

A

True

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284
Q

What is the significance of the color coding used on the VSD?

A

It corresponds to the GPWS terrain depiction

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285
Q

What does the RADIO selection on the Minimums Reference Selector do?

A

Selects radio altitude as the PFD minimums reference

PFD stands for Primary Flight Display.

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286
Q

What does the BARO selection on the Minimums Reference Selector do?

A

Selects barometric altitude as the PFD minimums reference

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287
Q

What function does the Minimums Selector (Middle) serve?

A

Adjusts the PFD radio or baro minimums altitude by rotating (slewing)

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288
Q

What happens when the Minimums Reset (MINS RST) Switch is pushed?

A

Resets the PFD minimums alert display and blanks the minimums display when green

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289
Q

What does the Flight Path Vector (FPV) Switch do when pushed?

A

Displays the PFD flight path vector

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290
Q

What does the Meters (MTRS) Switch do when pushed?

A

Displays PFD altitude meters indications

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291
Q

What does the Barometric Standard (BARO STD) Switch do when pushed?

A

Selects the standard barometric setting (29.92 inches Hg/1013 HPA) for the PFD barometric reference

If STD is displayed, it selects the preselected barometric setting.

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292
Q

What is the function of the Barometric (BARO) Selector?

A

Adjusts the PFD barometric reference by rotating (slewing)

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293
Q

What does the ND Mode Selector (Outer) do?

A

Moves the highlight box to the desired ND map display or map information selection.

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294
Q

What are the key features of the MAP mode on the ND?

A
  • Displays a moving, track-up route depiction
  • Displays FMC generated route and map information, airplane position, heading, and track
  • Displays waypoints, including the active waypoint, within the selected range
  • Displays VNAV path deviation
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295
Q

What are the characteristics of the PLAN mode on the ND?

A
  • Displays a non-moving, true north-up, route depiction
  • Allows route step-through using the CDU legs page
  • Weather radar and TCAS are not displayed in PLAN mode
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296
Q

What function does the MENU option serve in the ND Mode Selector?

A

Rotate to move highlight between Map Information Selections.

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297
Q

What happens when the ND Mode Select Switch (Inner) is pushed?

A

Selects the highlighted key on the ND.

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298
Q

What do the map switches do?

A
  • Displays selected detailed ND and mini-map data
  • Displays can be selected simultaneously
  • Second push removes the data
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299
Q

What information does the WXR (Weather Radar) display?

A

Displays weather radar information.

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300
Q

What does the TFC (Traffic) display show?

A

Displays TCAS information.

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301
Q

What does the TERR (Terrain) display show?

A

Displays terrain data

Includes GPWS Look-Ahead Terrain Alerting Display and Annunciations.

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302
Q

What is the function of the ND Range Selector (Outer)?

A

Selects the desired ND nautical mile range scale

Uses increment/decrement knob; range between 0.5nm to 1280nm.

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303
Q

How does the ND Range Selector adjust the range?

A

Rotating clockwise increases range; counter-clockwise decreases range.

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304
Q

What does the ND Center (CTR) Switch (Inner) do when pushed?

A

Displays the full compass rose for MAP mode

Subsequent pushes alternate between expanded and centered displays.

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305
Q

What are the functions of the MAP / PLAN keys?

A

Used to access MAP and PLAN modes.

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306
Q

What is the range of nautical miles that can be selected on the ND Range Selector?

A

0.5nm to 1280nm.

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307
Q

Fill in the blank: The ND Center (CTR) Switch alternates between expanded and _______ displays.

A

centered

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308
Q

True or False: The ND Range Selector can only increase the range.

A

False

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309
Q

What does the MAP key provide access to?

A

Map menu.

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310
Q

What happens when the ND Center (CTR) Switch is pushed multiple times?

A

Alternates between expanded and centered displays.

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311
Q

What is the purpose of the GPWS Look-Ahead Terrain Alerting Display?

A

Provides alerts based on terrain data.

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312
Q

What does the MАP Key display when selected?

A

A moving, track-up route depiction

Additional information includes FMC generated route and map information, airplane position, heading, track, waypoints, and VNAV path deviation.

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313
Q

What does the PLAN Key display when selected?

A

A non-moving, true north-up, route depiction

This mode allows route step-through using the CDU legs page and does not display weather radar or TCAS.

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314
Q

What happens when the MENU Key is selected?

A

Displays a drop-down menu containing map information selections

When de-selected, it removes the menu from the ND.

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315
Q

What is not displayed in PLAN mode?

A

Weather radar and TCAS

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316
Q

What does the MENU Key control?

A

Map information selections

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317
Q

Fill in the blank: The MАP Key displays VNAV path _______.

A

deviation

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318
Q

What information does the MАP Key show regarding waypoints?

A

Displays waypoints, including the active waypoint, within the selected range

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319
Q

True or False: The PLAN Key allows route step-through using the CDU legs page.

A

True

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320
Q

What are the four selections displayed under the MENU Key?

A
  • VSD
  • WXR
  • TERR
  • ARPT
  • WPT
  • STA
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321
Q

What does MAP MODE display?

A

VOR selections, map information selections, and associated data

MAP MODE shows information relevant to navigation and situational awareness

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322
Q

What information does the VOR selection display?

A

VOR pointer, VOR frequency or identification, and associated DME information

DME stands for Distance Measuring Equipment

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323
Q

What are the limitations of WXR and TERR selections?

A

WXR and TERR are not selectable at the same time

This applies to the display settings on the MFD

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324
Q

What is VSD?

A

Vertical Situation Display

VSD provides vertical information about the aircraft’s position relative to terrain and air traffic

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325
Q

What does WXR stand for?

A

Weather Radar

Displays weather radar information, aiding in weather-related navigation

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326
Q

What does TERR display?

A

Terrain data

Used for GPWS Look-Ahead Terrain Alerting

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327
Q

What information does TFC display?

A

Traffic information from TCAS

TCAS stands for Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System

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328
Q

What does ARPT display?

A

Airports on all ranges

For ranges greater than 640 NM, it displays as a star field

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329
Q

What does WPT stand for?

A

Waypoint

Displays waypoints when the ND is in the 10, 20, or 40 NM range

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330
Q

What is STA used for?

A

Displays high and low altitude navigation aids

Shows navigation aids based on the ND range settings

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331
Q

Fill in the blank: Selections that are common to both MAP and PLAN modes ______ when changing between the two formats.

A

retain their states

This ensures consistency in displayed information

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332
Q

True or False: STA will display as a star field for all ranges.

A

False

STA displays as a star field only for ranges greater than 640 NM

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333
Q

What does the POS (Position) function display?

A

Displays IRS and GPS positions and VOR raw data radials extended from the nose of the airplane to the stations displayed on the CDU NAV RAD page

IRS stands for Inertial Reference System, and CDU stands for Control Display Unit.

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334
Q

What information does the DATA (Data) function provide?

A

Displays the entered or procedural altitude and ETAs at each waypoint, based on distance to go and groundspeed

ETAs may differ from other FMC performance predictions.

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335
Q

What is reserved for future development in the context of flight information?

A

FIR (Flight Information Regions) and AIRSP (Airspace)

These features may include advanced navigation or airspace management capabilities.

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336
Q

What is the function of the EXIT Key?

A

Removes menu from ND when selected (momentary)

ND refers to Navigation Display.

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337
Q

What does the AIRPLANE Map Centering function do?

A

Centers the map on the current latitude and longitude of the airplane when momentarily pushed

This function is available only in PLAN Mode.

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338
Q

What are the Map Centering Keys used for?

A

Used for centering the map in PLAN Mode only

This allows for better navigation and situational awareness.

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339
Q

What is the purpose of the CURSOR control?

A

Enables selection and manipulation of waypoints on the navigation display

This aids in route planning and adjustment.

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340
Q

Fill in the blank: The _______ function displays the entered or procedural altitude and ETAs at each waypoint.

A

DATA (Data)

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341
Q

True or False: The AIRSP function is currently available for use.

A

False

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342
Q

What does the CTR function do?

A

Centers the map on the airplane’s current position

This enhances the pilot’s awareness of the aircraft’s location.

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343
Q

What does the AIRPLANE key do in PLAN mode?

A

Centers the map on the current latitude and longitude of the airplane

The map does not continually re-center on the airplane.

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344
Q

What happens when the DEST key is pressed?

A

Places the airplane on the center of the destination airport

Displayed cyan if no destination airport is entered in the flight plan.

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345
Q

What is the function of the CURSOR key?

A

Re-centers airplane on the position where the cursor clicks when activated

The cursor changes shape when mode is active and is deactivated when other centering keys are selected.

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346
Q

How does the CTR ON key function?

A

Centers on any database item or latitude/longitude coordinate already entered in the scratch pad

Activated by a momentary push.

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347
Q

What does the PICK WPT key allow the pilot to do?

A

Graphically create a latitude/longitude point or select a visible waypoint, airport, or navigation aid

Visible only when the cursor is on the ND map area and enabled when the scratch pad is empty.

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348
Q

What indicates that the PICK WPT key is disabled?

A

The key label is displayed in cyan

This occurs when the scratch pad contains data.

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349
Q

What happens to the PICK WPT key label when activated?

A

Changes to CANCEL

This indicates that the user can cancel the action.

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350
Q

What are instrument source switches used for?

A

To manually select instrument sources if a display-related failure is not detected by automatic system monitors

Normally, the display system automatically reconfigures.

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351
Q

What is the purpose of the instrument source switches?

A

To manually select instrument sources if a display-related failure is not detected by automatic system monitors

Normally, the display system automatically reconfigures for failures without the pilot having to use these switches.

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352
Q

What does the ‘NORM’ position indicate on the PFD/MFD Selector?

A

Normal position

This is the standard operational setting for the display.

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353
Q

What happens when the PFD/MFD Selector is in the ‘INBD DU’ position?

A

The outboard DU is blanked and the inboard DU displays the PFD in reversion mode and EICAS if EICAS was displayed on this side

This is considered a non-normal position.

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354
Q

True or False: The display system requires the pilot to manually switch sources for all types of failures.

A

False

The system automatically reconfigures for most failures.

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355
Q

Fill in the blank: The PFD/MFD Selector has a position labeled _______.

A

NORM

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356
Q

What does EICAS stand for?

A

Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System

EICAS provides critical information about the aircraft’s systems status.

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357
Q

What is the function of the Instrument Source Select Panels?

A

To allow manual source selection for flight instruments in case of display failures

This is used when automatic monitoring does not detect a failure.

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358
Q

What are the two types of display units mentioned?

A

Outboard DU and Inboard DU

These units are part of the display system in the cockpit.

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359
Q

In the event of a failure, which display shows the PFD in reversion mode?

A

Inboard DU

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360
Q

What happens when the OUTBD DU selector is in the non-normal position?

A

The inboard DU is blanked and the outboard half of the outboard DU displays the PFD in reversion mode and EICAS if EICAS was displayed on this side.

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361
Q

What is the normal position of the Air Data / Attitude (AIR DATA/ATT) Source Selector?

A

AUTO

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362
Q

In AUTO position, what does the ADRS provide to the PFD and HUD?

A

Air data

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363
Q

What type of backup airspeed is provided in AUTO position?

A

Based on AOA and inertial data

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364
Q

What type of backup altitude is provided in AUTO position?

A

Based on GPS data

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365
Q

What does the IRS provide to the PFD and HUD in AUTO position?

A

Attitude data

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366
Q

What is automatically provided as required in terms of backup attitude data?

A

From the ISFD sources

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367
Q

What is the non-normal position of the Air Data / Attitude (AIR DATA/ATT) Source Selector?

A

ALTN

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368
Q

In ALTN position, what is displayed for air data on the on-side PFD and HUD?

A

Backup airspeed and altitude

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369
Q

In ALTN position, what is displayed for attitude on the on-side PFD and HUD?

A

ISFD attitude

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370
Q

What are the options for Heading Reference Controls?

A

NORM, TRUE

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371
Q

What does the HEADING REF switch control?

A

Selects the heading reference for the AFDS, FMCs, NDs, and PFDs

AFDS stands for Autopilot Flight Director System, FMC stands for Flight Management Computer, ND stands for Navigation Display, and PFD stands for Primary Flight Display.

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372
Q

What is the default reference when the HEADING REF switch is in NORM?

A

Magnetic north

In polar regions, it references true north automatically.

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373
Q

When does the HEADING REF switch automatically reference true north?

A

When operating within the polar regions for FMCs, NDs, and PFDs

Also applies to all AFDS cruise roll modes.

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374
Q

What happens when the AFDS roll mode is HDG SEL and the HEADING REF switch is changed from NORM to TRUE?

A

Activates HDG HOLD as the roll mode

HDG HOLD is a mode that maintains the aircraft’s heading.

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375
Q

In which roll mode does switching the HEADING REF from NORM to TRUE activate TRK HOLD?

A

TRK SEL

TRK HOLD is a mode that maintains the aircraft’s track.

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376
Q

True or False: The HEADING REF switch can only be switched manually.

A

False

The autopilot can automatically switch between magnetic and true references.

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377
Q

What is the effect of manually switching the HEADING REF switch when the AFDS roll mode is TRK SEL?

A

Activates TRK HOLD as the roll mode

This applies to both manual and automatic switching of the reference.

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378
Q

What section should be referred to for additional information on FMC Polar Operations?

A

Chapter 11, Section 31

This section contains further details on how to operate in polar regions.

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379
Q

Fill in the blank: The HEADING REF switch in TRUE mode references ______.

A

true north

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380
Q

What does the Multifunction Display (MFD) Switches do?

A

Selects the on-side MFD location (left or right window on each upper display unit) that is affected by pressing display switch(es).

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381
Q

What happens when the Upper Display Switch is pushed a second time?

A

The MFD format is removed and the default format is displayed.

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382
Q

What information does the SYS display provide?

A

System synoptic and maintenance information including:
* System menu
* Status messages for dispatch
* Electrical system indications
* Hydraulic system indications
* Fuel system indications
* Air system indications
* Door system indications
* Landing gear / brake indications
* Flight control indications
* EFIS / DSP backup
* Circuit breaker functions

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383
Q

What is the purpose of the CHKL indicator?

A

Checklist (Normal Checklist, Chapter 10, Section 50)

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384
Q

What does CDU stand for in the context of flight displays?

A

Control Display Unit (CDU)

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385
Q

What does the COMM display provide information about?

A

Communications (Communications Menus, Chapter 5, Section 40)

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386
Q

Fill in the blank: The INFO display shows _______.

A

airport map database effectivity dates

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387
Q

What does ND stand for?

A

Navigation Display (ND)

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388
Q

What does pushing the ENG Display Switch do?

A

Displays secondary engine information on EICAS and blanks it upon a second push

EICAS stands for Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System.

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389
Q

What is the function of the EICAS Transfer Switch?

A

Transfers EICAS format between the captain and first officer inboard display units

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390
Q

What does the Cancel/Recall (CANC/RCL) Switch do?

A

Refer to Display Select Panel (DSP) in Chapter 15, Section 10 for additional information

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391
Q

Where are the Multifunction Keypads (MFK) located?

A

On the forward aisle stand, one on each side of the lower DU

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392
Q

What is the purpose of the Multifunction Keypads (MFK)?

A

Controls cursor position and operation on the on-side inboard DU and on-side MFD on the lower DU

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393
Q

Fill in the blank: The ENG Display Switch displays secondary engine information on _______.

A

[EICAS]

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394
Q

True or False: There is only one Multifunction Keypad (MFK) on the forward aisle stand.

A

False

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395
Q

What is the function of the Lower Display Switches?

A

Pushing the switch displays the associated format; pushing it again removes the MFD format and displays the default format

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396
Q

What type of information does the SYS format display?

A

System synoptic and maintenance information including:
* System menu
* Status messages for dispatch
* Electrical system indications
* Hydraulic system indications
* Fuel system indications
* Air system indications
* Door system indications
* Landing gear / brake indications
* Flight control indications
* EFIS / DSP backup
* Maintenance functions
* Circuit breaker functions

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397
Q

What does the CHKL format represent?

A

Checklist (Normal Checklist)

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398
Q

What does CDU stand for in the context of flight displays?

A

Control Display Unit

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399
Q

What is the purpose of the COMM format?

A

Communications Menus

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400
Q

What information does the INFO format provide?

A

Displays airport map database effectivity dates

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401
Q

What is the ND format used for?

A

Navigation Display

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402
Q

Fill in the blank: The function of the _______ is to display electrical system indications.

A

Electrical Synoptic Display

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403
Q

True or False: The hydraulic system indications are displayed in the SYS format.

A

True

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404
Q

Which chapter covers the Landing Gear / Brake Indications?

A

Chapter 14, Section 10

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405
Q

Which section details the Air System Indications?

A

Chapter 2, Section 10

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406
Q

What does the term ‘EFIS’ refer to?

A

Electronic Flight Instrument System

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407
Q

What does DSP stand for in the context of flight displays?

A

Display System Processor

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408
Q

What type of indications are included under Flight Control Synoptic Displays?

A

Flight control indications

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409
Q

Fill in the blank: The circuit breaker functions are indicated in the _______.

A

Circuit Breaker Indication and Control (CBIC)

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410
Q

What does the Multifunction Keypad (MFK) allow a user to do?

A

Input characters and control displays on the MFD

MFK includes various keys for different functions.

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411
Q

What is the function of the Alpha/Numeric Keys on the MFK?

A

Input selected characters into the scratchpad

Each key corresponds to a specific character.

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412
Q

What does the Slash (1) key do on the MFK?

A

Enters ‘/’ in the scratchpad

It is a specific character input key.

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413
Q

What is the purpose of the Plus Minus (+/-) key on the MFK?

A

First push enters ‘’ in scratchpad; subsequent pushes alternate between ‘+’ and ‘_’

It allows for flexible input in the scratchpad.

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414
Q

What does the Space (SP) Key do when pushed?

A

Enters a space in the scratchpad

This key allows for spacing in text input.

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415
Q

What is the function of the Cursor Control Selector (Outer)?

A

Rotates to move the highlight in a predetermined path on the active MFD

It facilitates navigation through options.

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416
Q

What action does the Cursor Select Switch (Inner) perform when pushed?

A

Selects the highlighted key on the MFD

This key is essential for confirming selections.

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417
Q

What does the ENTER Key do when pushed?

A

Performs an associated action to the highlighted field

It is crucial for executing commands.

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418
Q

What happens when the Clear (CLR) Key is pushed?

A

Clears the last character of data in the scratchpad

It is used for correcting input mistakes.

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419
Q

What does pushing and holding the Clear (CLR) Key do?

A

Clears all scratchpad data

This allows for complete data reset.

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420
Q

What is the function of the Delete (DEL) Key?

A

Enters ‘DELETE’ in the scratchpad

It signifies a command to remove data.

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421
Q

What does the Cursor Control Device (CCD) contain?

A

The left CCN contains the left inboard display unit and the lower display unit

It is part of the overall system for display management.

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422
Q

What does CCD stand for in the context of flight instruments?

A

Cursor Control Device

The CCD is used to control the cursor position and operation on display units.

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423
Q

What does the left CCD control?

A

The left inboard display unit and the lower display unit cursor position and operation

The left CCD is responsible for managing specific display units in the cockpit.

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424
Q

What does the right CCD control?

A

The right inboard display unit and the lower display unit cursor position and operation

The right CCD functions similarly to the left CCD, managing its respective display units.

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425
Q

True or False: The left and right CCDs have different functions.

A

False

Both CCDs serve similar functions, controlling different display units.

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426
Q

Fill in the blank: The left CCD is shown; the right CCD is similar, except the _______ switch and the _______ switch are located on the opposite side.

A

EFB, LWR

EFB stands for Electronic Flight Bag and LWR stands for Lower switch.

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427
Q

What does CCD stand for in the context of flight instruments?

A

Cursor Control Device

The CCD is used to control the cursor position and operation on display units.

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428
Q

What does the left CCD control?

A

The left inboard display unit and the lower display unit cursor position and operation

The left CCD is responsible for managing specific display units in the cockpit.

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429
Q

What does the right CCD control?

A

The right inboard display unit and the lower display unit cursor position and operation

The right CCD functions similarly to the left CCD, managing its respective display units.

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430
Q

True or False: The left and right CCDs have different functions.

A

False

Both CCDs serve similar functions, controlling different display units.

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431
Q

Fill in the blank: The left CCD is shown; the right CCD is similar, except the _______ switch and the _______ switch are located on the opposite side.

A

EFB, LWR

EFB stands for Electronic Flight Bag and LWR stands for Lower switch.

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432
Q

What does the associated annunciator light indicate?

A

It indicates where the cursor appears

The associated annunciator light is linked to the Cursor Location Lights.

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433
Q

What is the function of the Cursor Location Switches?

A

Selects the display where the cursor appears and automatically deselects the previous display

Displays can include EFB, left MFD, right MFD, or lower MFD.

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434
Q

How does the Touch Pad function in cursor movement?

A

Finger movement on the touch pad moves the cursor on the selected display

Lifting the finger off the pad does not move the cursor unless it is placed back down in a different location.

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435
Q

What happens when tapping in the corner areas of the display?

A

Tapping places the cursor in the corresponding corner of the display

This effect occurs except for system (SYS) displays.

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436
Q

What is the purpose of the Cursor Select Switch?

A

Activates the area of the screen that the cursor is currently in

The area is highlighted by a magenta border to indicate it can be selected.

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437
Q

What functions can the Cursor Select Switch be used for?

A

Select menus, checklists, checklist steps, and other functions

This switch enhances interaction with the display.

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438
Q

What do the Display Brightness Controls adjust?

A

Adjust the brightness of the forward panel displays

Includes controls for OUTBD DSPL, INBD DSPL, and CONTRAST.

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439
Q

Fill in the blank: The Cursor Location Lights indicate where the _______ appears.

A

cursor

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440
Q

True or False: The cursor can be moved by lifting the finger off the touch pad.

A

False

The cursor only moves when the finger is moved on the touch pad surface.

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441
Q

What are the components of standby flight instruments?

A

The standby flight instruments include the:

  • integrated standby flight display
  • standby magnetic compass

These instruments provide essential information in case of primary instrument failure.

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442
Q

What does the Integrated Standby Flight Display (ISFD) provide?

A

The ISFD provides an independent source of attitude, airspeed, and altitude information.

This ensures that critical flight data is available even if main displays fail.

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443
Q

What does the Approach (APP) Switch do when blank?

A

Selects APP

This initiates the approach mode for the flight instruments.

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444
Q

What is indicated when the Approach Mode Annunciation is blank?

A

No approach deviation data displayed

This means the system is not in an active approach mode.

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445
Q

What does APP indicate in the Approach Mode Annunciation?

A

ILS/GLS localizer and glideslope deviation data displayed

This provides critical information for landing approaches.

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446
Q

What does BCRS stand for in the context of Approach Mode Annunciation?

A

Back Course

This mode reverses the sensing for the localizer pointer during back course approaches.

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447
Q

What does the Attitude Display indicate?

A

Airplane attitude and bank in reference to the bank scale

It shows the airplane’s orientation relative to the horizon.

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448
Q

What happens when the airplane’s pitch exceeds 30°?

A

Large red arrowheads (V-shaped) indicate excessive attitude

This visual cue alerts the pilot to a dangerous pitch angle.

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449
Q

What do the Display Brightness Switches control?

A

Increase or decrease display brightness

The + button increases brightness while the - button decreases it.

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450
Q

What does the airplane symbol on the display indicate?

A

Airplane position with reference to the horizon

It helps pilots understand their aircraft’s orientation.

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451
Q

What percentage is indicated by the airplane symbol’s ‘I’?

A

64%

This may refer to a specific parameter related to the airplane’s performance or position.

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452
Q

What does the Integrated Standby Flight Display (ISFD) provide?

A

Standby flight information

It serves as a backup display for critical flight data.

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453
Q

What is indicated when airspeed is above 30 knots?

A

Airspeed indications

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454
Q

What does the Attitude Reset (ATT RST) Switch do?

A

Aligns horizon with the airplane symbol and starts a new initialization sequence if previous attempt failed

Requires a push and hold of at least two seconds and takes approximately ten seconds to reset

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455
Q

What happens when the Hectopascal/Inch (HP/IN) Switch is pushed?

A

Changes units of barometric reference

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456
Q

What does the barometric setting indicate?

A

The barometric setting selected with the barometric selector

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457
Q

What is displayed when STD is selected with the barometric selector?

A

STD is displayed

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458
Q

What does the Ambient Light Sensor do?

A

Automatically adjusts display intensity for ambient lighting condition

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459
Q

What does the glideslope pointer indicate?

A

Glideslope position relative to the airplane

The pointer is in view when the glideslope signal is received

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460
Q

When is the glideslope scale in view?

A

When the APP mode is selected

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461
Q

What occurs when the B/CRS mode is selected?

A

The glideslope pointer and scale are removed

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462
Q

What does the Localizer Pointer and Deviation Scale indicate?

A

Current altitude

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463
Q

What does the localizer pointer indicate?

A

Localizer position relative to the airplane.

The pointer is in view when the localizer signal is received.

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464
Q

When is the localizer scale in view?

A

When either the APP or B/CRS mode is selected.

APP refers to approach mode, and B/CRS refers to bearing/course mode.

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465
Q

What function does the Barometric Selector (BARO) serve when rotated?

A

Changes barometric setting.

This allows pilots to adjust the altimeter setting for accurate altitude readings.

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466
Q

What happens when the Barometric Selector (BARO) is pushed?

A

Selects standard barometric setting (29.92 inches Hg/1013 HPA).

This is important for standardizing altitude readings across different aircraft.

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467
Q

What does the display show when ‘STD’ is displayed on the Barometric Selector?

A

Selects the preselected barometric setting.

This allows for easy switching between standard and specific altimeter settings.

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468
Q

What does the heading indication display show?

A

Airplane heading.

This is crucial for navigation and maintaining the desired flight path.

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469
Q

What does the TRU heading source indicate?

A

True heading.

True heading is based on geographic north, not magnetic north.

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470
Q

What does a blank heading source indicate?

A

Magnetic heading.

Magnetic heading is based on the Earth’s magnetic field.

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471
Q

What does ‘WAIT ATT’ signify in ISFD messages?

A

Indicates that the system is waiting for attitude information.

ISFD stands for Integrated Standby Flight Display.

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472
Q

What does the ATT:RST message indicate?

A

Attitude must be reset using the attitude reset switch

This message is displayed in amber color.

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473
Q

What does the ATT 10s message signify?

A

10 second attitude realignment in progress

This message is also displayed in amber color.

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474
Q

What does the WAIT ATT message indicate?

A

Temporary self correcting loss of attitude

This message is displayed in amber color.

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475
Q

What does the INIT 90s message represent?

A

Countdown of 90 second initialization

This countdown stops if excessive motion is detected and resumes when motion stops.

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476
Q

What happens if initialization is not complete within six minutes?

A

ATT:RST displays

This indicates a failure in completing the initialization process.

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477
Q

What does the OUT OF ORDER flag indicate?

A

Instrument system failure

This failure flag replaces the appropriate display.

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478
Q

What are the components displayed in standby flight instruments?

A
  • Airspeed
  • Glideslope
  • Altitude
  • Attitude
  • Localizer

These instruments provide essential flight data.

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479
Q

Fill in the blank: The _______ message indicates that attitude must be reset using the attitude reset switch.

A

[ATT:RST]

This message is displayed in amber color.

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480
Q

True or False: The WAIT ATT message indicates that the attitude is permanently lost.

A

False

The WAIT ATT message indicates a temporary self-correcting loss of attitude.

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481
Q

What does the message INIT 90s do when excessive motion is detected?

A

Countdown stops

The countdown resumes when motion stops.

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482
Q

What does the CLOCK switch do?

A

Push - subsequent pushing starts, stops, removes the chronograph from display.

The CLOCK switch allows for the management of the chronograph function.

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483
Q

What type of time does the UTC Time display show?

A

Current UTC time (hours, minutes, seconds) using GPS inputs.

This feature relies on GPS for accurate timekeeping.

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484
Q

What information does the Date display indicate?

A

Current date (day, month, year) using GPS inputs.

The date is also sourced from GPS data.

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485
Q

What does the Elapsed Time display show?

A

Elapsed flight time (hours, minutes, seconds).

This helps pilots track the duration of the flight.

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486
Q

Describe the automatic start-stop logic for the timer.

A
  • On power up, timer is set to 00:00
  • Timer begins at weight off wheels
  • Timer stops at weight on wheels plus 30 seconds
  • Timer resets to 00:00 when on ground and V-speeds are entered into CDU

This logic ensures accurate timing related to flight phases.

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487
Q

What are the two display methods for elapsed time in the chronograph function?

A
  • Analog dial with sweep second hand
  • Digital readout

Both methods present elapsed time since the chronograph was started.

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488
Q

What does the EFIS Control Panels and Display Select Panel (DSP) provide?

A

An alternate way to control the functions of the EFIS control panel and/or the display select panel.

This feature enhances user interface options for pilots.

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489
Q

How are DSP controls available in relation to EFIS controls?

A

DSP controls are available full time; backup EFIS controls must be enabled prior to activation.

This distinction is important for operational readiness.

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490
Q

What does the CLOCK switch do?

A

Push - subsequent pushing starts, stops, removes the chronograph from display.

The CLOCK switch allows for the management of the chronograph function.

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491
Q

What type of time does the UTC Time display show?

A

Current UTC time (hours, minutes, seconds) using GPS inputs.

This feature relies on GPS for accurate timekeeping.

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492
Q

What information does the Date display indicate?

A

Current date (day, month, year) using GPS inputs.

The date is also sourced from GPS data.

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493
Q

What does the Elapsed Time display show?

A

Elapsed flight time (hours, minutes, seconds).

This helps pilots track the duration of the flight.

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494
Q

Describe the automatic start-stop logic for the timer.

A
  • On power up, timer is set to 00:00
  • Timer begins at weight off wheels
  • Timer stops at weight on wheels plus 30 seconds
  • Timer resets to 00:00 when on ground and V-speeds are entered into CDU

This logic ensures accurate timing related to flight phases.

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495
Q

What are the two display methods for elapsed time in the chronograph function?

A
  • Analog dial with sweep second hand
  • Digital readout

Both methods present elapsed time since the chronograph was started.

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496
Q

What does the EFIS Control Panels and Display Select Panel (DSP) provide?

A

An alternate way to control the functions of the EFIS control panel and/or the display select panel.

This feature enhances user interface options for pilots.

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497
Q

How are DSP controls available in relation to EFIS controls?

A

DSP controls are available full time; backup EFIS controls must be enabled prior to activation.

This distinction is important for operational readiness.

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498
Q

What does EFIS stand for?

A

Electronic Flight Instrument System

EFIS is a key component in modern aircraft cockpits, providing pilots with critical flight information.

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499
Q

What is the purpose of the Display Select Panel (DSP)?

A

To control the display settings and select various information for the Multi-Function Display (MFD)

The DSP allows pilots to customize the information shown on the MFD.

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500
Q

What does MFD stand for?

A

Multi-Function Display

MFDs are used to present multiple types of information to the pilot in a consolidated format.

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501
Q

True or False: The control call outs on the EFIS control panels correspond to the control names on the DSP.

A

True

This ensures consistency in terminology and function across the systems.

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502
Q

Fill in the blank: The _______ allows for alternate control of the systems on the MFD.

A

Systems MFD Alternate Control

This feature provides backup functionality in case the primary controls fail.

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503
Q

What is the function of the BAROSET control?

A

To set the barometric pressure for altitude reference

Correct barometric settings are crucial for accurate altitude readings.

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504
Q

What does the term ‘STAT’ refer to in the context of the flight instruments?

A

Status information display

This display provides real-time operational status of various aircraft systems.

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505
Q

What does the ‘ND RANGE’ control adjust?

A

The range of the navigation display

Adjusting the ND RANGE allows pilots to zoom in or out on the navigation information.

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506
Q

What information can be accessed through the MAINT INFO control?

A

Maintenance information regarding aircraft systems

This information is vital for ensuring the aircraft is in a safe operating condition.

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507
Q

What does the ‘FT’ control indicate?

A

Feet, a unit of measurement for altitude

Pilots use this measurement for vertical navigation.

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508
Q

What is indicated by the ‘CAPT’ label on the controls?

A

Captain’s controls and displays

These are specifically for the pilot in command.

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509
Q

What does the ‘FO’ label signify?

A

First Officer’s controls and displays

These are specifically for the co-pilot or first officer.

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510
Q

True or False: The EFIS control panels are not related to the functions of the CDU.

A

False

The CDU functions are aligned with the control panels to provide a cohesive control system.

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511
Q

Fill in the blank: The _______ control provides backup functionality for the EFIS.

A

EFIS CTRL BACKUP

This ensures continued operation in case of primary control failure.

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512
Q

What does the ‘WXR’ control represent?

A

Weather radar information

This is crucial for situational awareness regarding weather conditions.

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513
Q

What does ‘HPA’ stand for in the context of barometric settings?

A

Hectopascal

Hectopascal is a unit of pressure often used in aviation.

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514
Q

What does the EFIS Control Panels and Display Select Panel (DSP) manage?

A

Controls and indicators for the EFIS and DSP systems.

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515
Q

What does the Backup EFIS/DSP Select Key display?

A

Backup EFIS/DSP control keys.

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516
Q

What is the purpose of the CAPT/FO Keys?

A

Allows manual reconfiguration to control off-side EFIS/DSP control panels.

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517
Q

What happens when the EFIS CTRL BACKUP Key is pushed?

A

Enables EFIS backup controls.

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518
Q

What must occur for Backup EFIS Controls to be functional?

A

They need to be enabled before functional.

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519
Q

When Backup EFIS Controls are enabled, what are they initially configured to control?

A

On-side EFIS control panel.

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520
Q

What do Backup EFIS Controls do when enabled?

A

Override functional EFIS control panel.

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521
Q

Do DSP Controls need to be enabled for backup controls to be functional?

A

No, they do not need to be enabled.

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522
Q

What happens to DSP if it is still functional?

A

Backup controls do not override DSP.

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523
Q

What is the primary function of the Head-Up Display (HUD)?

A

Displays symbology similar to the PFD.

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524
Q

Where can detailed descriptions of HUD symbology be found?

A

Section 10 of the chapter.

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525
Q

What is the Full Symbology Mode in relation to HUD?

A

It displays symbology consistent with PFD symbology.

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526
Q

What does HUD stand for in aviation?

A

Head-Up Display

The HUD provides critical flight information without requiring the pilot to look down at instruments.

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527
Q

What information does the Airspeed/Mach Indication provide?

A

Current airspeed and Mach number

This is crucial for maintaining flight performance and safety.

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528
Q

What does the Attitude, Steering, and Miscellaneous Indications display?

A

Flight attitude, steering commands, and additional relevant information

This helps pilots maintain proper control of the aircraft.

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529
Q

What does the Autopilot, Flight Director System Status indicate?

A

The operational status of the autopilot and flight director system

This is essential for understanding flight automation levels.

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530
Q

What information does Vertical Speed Indication provide?

A

Rate of climb or descent

This helps pilots manage altitude changes effectively.

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531
Q

What does the Compass Rose display?

A

Current IRS heading, track, and related information

The compass rose is not displayed during ground operations.

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532
Q

When is the decluttered symbology mode not available?

A

During takeoff or go-around when TO/GA is the active pitch mode

This ensures critical information is available during critical phases of flight.

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533
Q

Fill in the blank: The acronym LNAV stands for _______.

A

Lateral Navigation

LNAV is used for managing lateral flight path.

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534
Q

Fill in the blank: The acronym VNAV stands for _______.

A

Vertical Navigation

VNAV is used for managing vertical flight path.

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535
Q

What does the SPD indication refer to?

A

Speed indication

This is vital for maintaining appropriate airspeed.

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536
Q

What altitude does the example display indicate?

A

31000 feet

This altitude is common for cruising in commercial aviation.

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537
Q

What does the A/P indication represent?

A

Autopilot status

This indicates whether the autopilot is engaged or not.

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538
Q

True or False: The compass rose is displayed during ground operations.

A

False

The compass rose is specifically noted to be absent during ground operations.

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539
Q

What does the Head-Up Display (HUD) indicate?

A

Current ADRS airspeed

The HUD displays various speed indications crucial for pilot awareness.

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540
Q

What happens to the current airspeed indication when it is below minimum manoeuvring speed?

A

The box around the current airspeed indication flashes

This visual alert helps pilots recognize critical speed thresholds.

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541
Q

What does the HUD display when the Mach number is 0.40 or greater?

A

Current groundspeed or Mach

The HUD transitions between displaying groundspeed and Mach number based on speed.

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542
Q

How long is the new display highlighted when transitioning between groundspeed and Mach number?

A

10 seconds

This highlighting aids in pilot transition between different speed metrics.

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543
Q

What indicates the maximum manoeuvring speed on the HUD?

A

Bottom of the bar

This indication is crucial for maintaining safe operational parameters during flight.

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544
Q

What is the significance of the maximum manoeuvring speed?

A

Provides 1.3 g manoeuvre capability to high speed buffet

This is essential for flight safety and performance.

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545
Q

At what bank angle does the 1.3 g manoeuvre capability occur in level flight?

A

40°

This detail is important for understanding aircraft performance limits.

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546
Q

What does the Selected Speed Bug represent on the HUD?

A

A reference for selected airspeed

The speed bug helps pilots manage and maintain desired airspeeds.

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547
Q

Fill in the blank: The HUD displays the current airspeed, groundspeed, and _______.

A

Mach number

This is part of the critical data presented to pilots for decision making.

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548
Q

True or False: The maximum manoeuvring speed is displayed only at low altitudes.

A

False

It may be displayed at high altitude with relatively high gross weights.

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549
Q

What does HUD stand for?

A

Head-Up Display

HUD provides critical flight information to the pilot without requiring them to look down at instruments.

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550
Q

What are Takeoff Reference Speeds used for?

A

To determine the appropriate airspeeds for takeoff

These speeds ensure safe and efficient aircraft operation during takeoff.

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551
Q

What is the VNAV Speed Band?

A

A range of speeds for vertical navigation

VNAV helps pilots maintain optimal climb and descent profiles.

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552
Q

What does the top of the bar in the HUD indicate?

A

Minimum manoeuvring speed

This speed allows for safe aircraft maneuverability.

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553
Q

What is the minimum manoeuvring speed below 20,000 ft?

A

1.3 g manoeuvre capability to stick shaker

This ensures the aircraft can safely maneuver without stalling.

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554
Q

What is the minimum manoeuvring speed above approximately 20,000 ft?

A

1.3 g manoeuvre capability to low speed buffet or alternative approved manoeuvre capability

Maintenance can preset this capability for operational safety.

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555
Q

When is the minimum speed displayed in relation to flap retraction after takeoff?

A

Displayed with first flap retraction after takeoff

This timing helps pilots manage speed during the critical phase of flight.

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556
Q

What does the term ‘VREF Speed’ refer to?

A

Landing flap and reference speed

VREF is crucial for ensuring safe landing approaches.

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557
Q

What attitude indications are provided by the HUD?

A

FLT DIR, ITN, HOS

These indications help pilots understand the aircraft’s orientation and flight path.

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558
Q

What bank angle is associated with the 1.3 g manoeuvre capability?

A

40° of bank in level flight

This bank angle ensures effective maneuvering at the specified speed.

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559
Q

What does the Bank Pointer indicate?

A

Indicates bank in reference to the bank scale

Fills if bank angle is 35° or more.

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560
Q

What do Slip/Skid Indications display?

A

Displaces to indicate slip or skid

Fills at full scale deflection.

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561
Q

When does the indicator below the flight path vector symbol appear?

A

During takeoff or low altitude go-around

This indicator is specifically noted in the context provided.

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562
Q

What is the purpose of the Bank Scale?

A

Fixed reference for the bank pointer

Scale marks are at 0°, 10°, 20°, 30°.

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563
Q

What additional scale marks are added to the Bank Scale?

A

Enhanced scale marks at 45° and 60°

These are added if the airplane bank is within 10° of those bank angles.

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564
Q

What does the Angle of Attack Limit represent?

A

Referenced to the flight path vector symbol

The distance between the AOA limit symbol and the flight path vector symbol represents the margin available to stick shaker.

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565
Q

When is the Angle of Attack Limit displayed?

A

Displayed during the following conditions:
* angle-of-attack is within 5° of stick shaker
* whenever stick shaker is active
* whenever windshear guidance cue is displayed

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566
Q

What does the Bank Pointer indicate?

A

Indicates bank in reference to the bank scale

Fills if bank angle is 35° or more.

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567
Q

What do Slip/Skid Indications display?

A

Displaces to indicate slip or skid

Fills at full scale deflection.

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568
Q

When does the indicator below the flight path vector symbol appear?

A

During takeoff or low altitude go-around

This indicator is specifically noted in the context provided.

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569
Q

What is the purpose of the Bank Scale?

A

Fixed reference for the bank pointer

Scale marks are at 0°, 10°, 20°, 30°.

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570
Q

What additional scale marks are added to the Bank Scale?

A

Enhanced scale marks at 45° and 60°

These are added if the airplane bank is within 10° of those bank angles.

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571
Q

What does the Angle of Attack Limit represent?

A

Referenced to the flight path vector symbol

The distance between the AOA limit symbol and the flight path vector symbol represents the margin available to stick shaker.

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572
Q

When is the Angle of Attack Limit displayed?

A

Displayed during the following conditions:
* angle-of-attack is within 5° of stick shaker
* whenever stick shaker is active
* whenever windshear guidance cue is displayed

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573
Q

What does the Head-Up Display (HUD) attitude indication fill at?

A

Full scale deflection

This indicates the maximum extent of the display for attitude indications.

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574
Q

When does the indicator below the flight path vector symbol appear?

A

During takeoff or low altitude go-around

This is a specific operational context for the HUD display.

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575
Q

What is the purpose of the bank scale in the HUD?

A

Fixed reference for the bank pointer

The scale assists pilots in understanding the aircraft’s bank angle.

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576
Q

What are the scale marks on the bank scale?

A

0°, 10°, 20°, 30°

Enhanced marks at 45° and 60° appear when the bank is within 10° of these angles.

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577
Q

What does the angle of attack limit symbol reference?

A

Flight path vector symbol

This symbol indicates the safety margin before stick shaker activation.

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578
Q

Under what conditions is the angle of attack limit displayed?

A

• Angle-of-attack is within 5° of stick shaker
• Whenever stick shaker is active
• Whenever windshear guidance cue is displayed

These conditions help in maintaining safe flight operations.

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579
Q

What does the horizon line and pitch scale indicate?

A

IRS horizon and degrees of pitch

The pitch scale displays increments of 5°.

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580
Q

What additional information is referenced for HUD steering indications?

A

• TCAS HUD Vertical Guidance, Chapter 15, Section 10
• Alerts Displayed on the HUD, Chapter 15, Section 10

These sections provide further details on HUD functionalities.

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581
Q

What does the HUD Steering Indication represent?

A

Indicates flight director pitch and roll steering commands

Refer to Autopilot Flight Director Roll and Pitch Controls in Chapter 4, Section 10 for additional information.

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582
Q

What does the Flight Path Vector Symbol (FPV) display during flight?

A

Displays current flight path angle and drift angle

Flight path angle is depicted by the flight path vector symbol position on the pitch scale. Drift angle is represented by the perpendicular distance from the line drawn through the center of the pitch scale to the center of the flight path vector symbol.

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583
Q

How is the drift angle represented in the FPV?

A

By the perpendicular distance from the line drawn through the center of the pitch scale to the center of the flight path vector symbol

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584
Q

When does the FPV show as dashed lines?

A

When limited laterally by other symbology or the display field-of-view

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585
Q

What does the Horizon Line Heading Scale display?

A

Displays current heading

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586
Q

How are the tie marks and labels arranged on the Horizon Line Heading Scale?

A

Tie marks every 5° and labels every 10° representing the heading value

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587
Q

Where is the current heading located on the Horizon Line?

A

At a point on the horizon line where a line drawn perpendicular to the horizon line goes through the center of the airplane symbol

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588
Q

Fill in the blank: The HUD displays the current heading with tie marks every ______.

A

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589
Q

True or False: The Flight Path Vector Symbol shows solid lines at all times.

A

False

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590
Q

What does the HUD Steering Indication represent?

A

Indicates flight director pitch and roll steering commands

Refer to Autopilot Flight Director Roll and Pitch Controls in Chapter 4, Section 10 for additional information.

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591
Q

What does the Flight Path Vector Symbol (FPV) display during flight?

A

Displays current flight path angle and drift angle

Flight path angle is depicted by the flight path vector symbol position on the pitch scale. Drift angle is represented by the perpendicular distance from the line drawn through the center of the pitch scale to the center of the flight path vector symbol.

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592
Q

How is the drift angle represented in the FPV?

A

By the perpendicular distance from the line drawn through the center of the pitch scale to the center of the flight path vector symbol

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593
Q

When does the FPV show as dashed lines?

A

When limited laterally by other symbology or the display field-of-view

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594
Q

What does the Horizon Line Heading Scale display?

A

Displays current heading

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595
Q

How are the tie marks and labels arranged on the Horizon Line Heading Scale?

A

Tie marks every 5° and labels every 10° representing the heading value

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596
Q

Where is the current heading located on the Horizon Line?

A

At a point on the horizon line where a line drawn perpendicular to the horizon line goes through the center of the airplane symbol

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597
Q

Fill in the blank: The HUD displays the current heading with tie marks every ______.

A

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598
Q

True or False: The Flight Path Vector Symbol shows solid lines at all times.

A

False

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599
Q

What does the HUD Radio Altitude indication maintain?

A

A set distance directly below the flight path vector symbol

The radio altitude is displayed below 2,500 feet AGL.

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600
Q

At what altitude is the HUD Radio Altitude indication boxed for 10 seconds?

A

When descending through 2,500 feet AGL

This indicates a critical transition in altitude.

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601
Q

When is the HUD Radio Altitude boxed and blinking?

A

When descending below radio altitude minimums

The box blinks for 2 seconds, then becomes steady.

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602
Q

What is the primary purpose of HUD Navigation Performance Indications?

A

To show differences between the HUD and PFD

Additional information can be found in Chapter 10, Section 10 regarding NPS and IAN.

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603
Q

What are the components displayed in HUD Navigation Performance Indications? (List at least three)

A
  • SPD
  • LNAV
  • LOC
  • A/P
  • V
  • VNAV PTH
  • G/P

These components indicate various navigation performance metrics.

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604
Q

Fill in the blank: The HUD displays radio altitude below _______ feet AGL.

A

2,500

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605
Q

True or False: The HUD Radio Altitude indication is steady when descending below radio altitude minimums.

A

True

After blinking for 2 seconds, it becomes steady.

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606
Q

What is the significance of the flight path vector symbol in relation to HUD Radio Altitude?

A

It serves as the reference point for the radio altitude indication

The HUD references the flight path vector for altitude data.

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607
Q

What does the HUD Radio Altitude indication maintain?

A

A set distance directly below the flight path vector symbol

The radio altitude is displayed below 2,500 feet AGL.

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608
Q

At what altitude is the HUD Radio Altitude indication boxed for 10 seconds?

A

When descending through 2,500 feet AGL

This indicates a critical transition in altitude.

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609
Q

When is the HUD Radio Altitude boxed and blinking?

A

When descending below radio altitude minimums

The box blinks for 2 seconds, then becomes steady.

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610
Q

What is the primary purpose of HUD Navigation Performance Indications?

A

To show differences between the HUD and PFD

Additional information can be found in Chapter 10, Section 10 regarding NPS and IAN.

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611
Q

What are the components displayed in HUD Navigation Performance Indications? (List at least three)

A
  • SPD
  • LNAV
  • LOC
  • A/P
  • V
  • VNAV PTH
  • G/P

These components indicate various navigation performance metrics.

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612
Q

Fill in the blank: The HUD displays radio altitude below _______ feet AGL.

A

2,500

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613
Q

True or False: The HUD Radio Altitude indication is steady when descending below radio altitude minimums.

A

True

After blinking for 2 seconds, it becomes steady.

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614
Q

What is the significance of the flight path vector symbol in relation to HUD Radio Altitude?

A

It serves as the reference point for the radio altitude indication

The HUD references the flight path vector for altitude data.

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615
Q

What does the Approach Deviation Pointer indicate when the LOC or G/S is not captured?

A

Unfilled diamond

Represents the selected approach path relative to the airplane position

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616
Q

What does a filled triangle in the Approach Deviation Pointer signify?

A

FAC or G/P is captured (active FMA)

Indicates that the flight management system is actively tracking the approach path

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617
Q

What does the NPS Deviation Pointer indicate when the airplane is parked at deflection limit?

A

Unfilled symbol

Shows that the airplane is at the maximum allowable deflection limit

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618
Q

When is the NPS Deviation Pointer displayed on the vertical deviation scale?

A

Only in descent phase of flight

Indicates that the pointer is relevant during the descent

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619
Q

What happens to the NPS Deviation Pointer if it migrates into the bar area for five seconds?

A

Flashes for ten seconds

Alerts the crew to a potential deviation from the path

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620
Q

What do the outer tic marks on the Deviation Scale represent?

A

RNP

Indicates the required navigation performance for the flight

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621
Q

What does the center tic mark on the Deviation Scale represent?

A

Airplane position

Shows where the airplane is relative to the RNP

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622
Q

What do the bars on the vertical scale display?

A

Only during FMC descent phase of flight

Indicates the available navigation performance during descent

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623
Q

If ANP equals or exceeds RNP, what does this indicate?

A

Potential navigation performance issue

Indicates that the airplane may not meet required navigation performance criteria

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624
Q

What does a filled diamond in the Approach Deviation Pointer indicate?

A

LOC or G/S is captured (active FMA)

Signifies that the aircraft is actively following the approach path

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625
Q

What do the bars on the deviation scale represent?

A

ANP

Shows the actual navigation performance of the aircraft

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626
Q

What percentage of 4G is indicated?

A

78%

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627
Q

What does QRH stand for in aviation?

A

Quick Reference Handbook

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628
Q

What does FCOM stand for?

A

Flight Crew Operating Manual

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629
Q

What are the components of the B787 documentation mentioned?

A
  • B787 QRH
  • B787 FCOM
  • B787 Weight and Balance Documents
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630
Q

What does HUD stand for?

A

Head-Up Display

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631
Q

What do the outer tic marks on the lateral and vertical scales of the HUD represent?

A

RNP (Required Navigation Performance)

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632
Q

What does the center tic mark represent in the HUD Navigation Performance Indications?

A

Airplane position

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633
Q

What do the bars on the lateral scale represent?

A

ANP (Actual Navigation Performance)

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634
Q

What indicates the margin available to remain within RNP criteria?

A

The area between the bars

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635
Q

When do the bars on the vertical scale display?

A

During FMC descent phase of flight

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636
Q

What happens if ANP equals or exceeds RNP?

A
  • Solid bars meet in the middle
  • After five seconds, bars become hollow and blink for three seconds
  • NAV UNABLE RNP EICAS message is displayed
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637
Q

What indicates that RNP operations can no longer be maintained?

A

Bars and indices blink for three seconds

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638
Q

What occurs if the pointer migrates into the bar area for five seconds?

A
  • Bars become hollow and blink for 3 seconds
  • Indices blink for 3 seconds
  • Pointer blinks for 10 seconds
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639
Q

What is displayed when the pointer blinks for ten seconds?

A

It then becomes steady

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640
Q

The HUD Instrument Landing System Indications are intended to show differences between which two systems?

A

HUD and PFD (Primary Flight Display)

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641
Q

What does the term ‘G/S’ refer to in the context of HUD indications?

A

Glide Slope

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642
Q

Fill in the blank: The HUD indicates _____ during the Instrument Landing System.

A

SPD, LOC, ROLLOUT, G/S, FLARE

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643
Q

What does the Head-Up Display (HUD) in the B787 show during an approach?

A

Displays the selected ILS/GLS identifier or frequency, approach front course, and ILS/GLS DME distance, and source annunciation

The HUD provides critical information for pilots during instrument approaches.

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644
Q

What indicates a disagreement in the tuned ILS/GLS frequencies on the HUD?

A

The frequency displayed has a horizontal line through it

This visual cue helps pilots identify potential navigation issues.

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645
Q

What does a filled diamond pointer indicate on the localizer scale?

A

Within 2 1/2 dots from the center

This indicates that the aircraft is close to being on course for the localizer.

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646
Q

Under what conditions does the localizer pointer flash at low radio altitudes?

A

When the autopilot is engaged or flight director is on and there is excessive localizer deviation

This alert aids pilots in correcting their approach to capture the localizer.

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647
Q

What happens to the glideslope pointer when the glideslope signal is received?

A

It appears as an unfilled diamond

This indicates that the aircraft is receiving the necessary signals for vertical guidance.

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648
Q

What does a filled diamond on the glideslope scale signify?

A

Within 2 1/2 dots from the scale center

This shows that the aircraft is approaching the correct vertical flight path.

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649
Q

What remains in view after the frequency is tuned if NPS are not shown?

A

The scale for localizer and glideslope indications

This helps ensure that pilots have continuous visual reference to their navigation systems.

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650
Q

True or False: The localizer pointer remains in view only until localizer capture.

A

False

The pointer remains in view with LNAV or VNAV active or armed until localizer capture.

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651
Q

Fill in the blank: The pointer indicates the glideslope position relative to the airplane and is an _______ when it appears.

A

unfilled diamond

This is a standard indication for the glideslope in the HUD.

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652
Q

What visual indication occurs if the localizer is not captured at low altitudes with LNAV active?

A

The pointer flashes

This alert is crucial for maintaining proper navigation during critical phases of flight.

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653
Q

What does the Head-Up Display (HUD) in the B787 show during an approach?

A

Displays the selected ILS/GLS identifier or frequency, approach front course, and ILS/GLS DME distance, and source annunciation

The HUD provides critical information for pilots during instrument approaches.

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654
Q

What indicates a disagreement in the tuned ILS/GLS frequencies on the HUD?

A

The frequency displayed has a horizontal line through it

This visual cue helps pilots identify potential navigation issues.

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655
Q

What does a filled diamond pointer indicate on the localizer scale?

A

Within 2 1/2 dots from the center

This indicates that the aircraft is close to being on course for the localizer.

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656
Q

Under what conditions does the localizer pointer flash at low radio altitudes?

A

When the autopilot is engaged or flight director is on and there is excessive localizer deviation

This alert aids pilots in correcting their approach to capture the localizer.

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657
Q

What happens to the glideslope pointer when the glideslope signal is received?

A

It appears as an unfilled diamond

This indicates that the aircraft is receiving the necessary signals for vertical guidance.

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658
Q

What does a filled diamond on the glideslope scale signify?

A

Within 2 1/2 dots from the scale center

This shows that the aircraft is approaching the correct vertical flight path.

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659
Q

What remains in view after the frequency is tuned if NPS are not shown?

A

The scale for localizer and glideslope indications

This helps ensure that pilots have continuous visual reference to their navigation systems.

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660
Q

True or False: The localizer pointer remains in view only until localizer capture.

A

False

The pointer remains in view with LNAV or VNAV active or armed until localizer capture.

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661
Q

Fill in the blank: The pointer indicates the glideslope position relative to the airplane and is an _______ when it appears.

A

unfilled diamond

This is a standard indication for the glideslope in the HUD.

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662
Q

What visual indication occurs if the localizer is not captured at low altitudes with LNAV active?

A

The pointer flashes

This alert is crucial for maintaining proper navigation during critical phases of flight.

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663
Q

What does the pointer indicate at low radio altitudes with the autopilot engaged or flight director on?

A

Flashes to indicate excessive glideslope deviation

This is a critical safety feature in the Head-Up Display (HUD) system.

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664
Q

What does the Expanded Localizer Scale display when the autopilot or flight director is in LOC mode?

A

A more sensitive display when close to the runway center line

This feature aids in precise navigation during approach.

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665
Q

What does a rectangle equal in the Expanded Localizer indications?

A

1/2 dot deviation

This measurement helps pilots gauge their lateral position relative to the runway centerline.

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666
Q

During which operations do expanded localizer indications also display?

A

HUD takeoff operations

This assists pilots during the critical phase of takeoff.

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667
Q

What is the purpose of the HUD Instrument Landing System?

A

To provide visual guidance during landing

This system enhances situational awareness and precision for pilots.

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668
Q

Fill in the blank: The B787 FCOM is part of the _____ documents.

A

Weight and Balance

This documentation is essential for safe aircraft operation.

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669
Q

What does the pointer indicate at low radio altitudes with the autopilot engaged or flight director on?

A

Flashes to indicate excessive glideslope deviation

This is a critical safety feature in the Head-Up Display (HUD) system.

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670
Q

What does the Expanded Localizer Scale display when the autopilot or flight director is in LOC mode?

A

A more sensitive display when close to the runway center line

This feature aids in precise navigation during approach.

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671
Q

What does a rectangle equal in the Expanded Localizer indications?

A

1/2 dot deviation

This measurement helps pilots gauge their lateral position relative to the runway centerline.

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672
Q

During which operations do expanded localizer indications also display?

A

HUD takeoff operations

This assists pilots during the critical phase of takeoff.

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673
Q

What is the purpose of the HUD Instrument Landing System?

A

To provide visual guidance during landing

This system enhances situational awareness and precision for pilots.

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674
Q

Fill in the blank: The B787 FCOM is part of the _____ documents.

A

Weight and Balance

This documentation is essential for safe aircraft operation.

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675
Q

What is the B787 QRH?

A

B787 Quick Reference Handbook

A manual providing essential information for pilots to reference during flight operations.

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676
Q

What does FCOM stand for in the context of the B787?

A

Flight Crew Operating Manual

A comprehensive guide outlining the operation of the aircraft for flight crew.

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677
Q

What is indicated by the HUD Altitude Indica in the Head-Up Display System?

A

Selected Altitude

Displays the altitude set in the MCP altitude window.

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678
Q

What happens to the selected altitude display prior to reaching the selected altitude?

A

The selected altitude is boxed between 900 feet and 200 feet prior to reaching the selected altitude

This visual cue helps pilots track their approach to the set altitude.

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679
Q

What does the Current Altitude display indicate?

A

Current ADRS altitude

Shows the aircraft’s current altitude as measured by the Air Data Reference System.

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680
Q

What occurs when the current altitude deviates beyond 200 feet from the selected altitude?

A

Boxed outline around current altitude flashes

This alerts the crew to the significant deviation from the selected altitude.

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681
Q

When does the alerting terminate regarding altitude deviation?

A

If deviation continues beyond 900 feet from selected altitude

The system stops alerting when the deviation becomes extreme.

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682
Q

What are the HUD Landing Altitude/Minimums Indications?

A

5000, 2400, 2200, 1800

These values represent the minimum altitude indications for safe landing.

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683
Q

Fill in the blank: The B787 Weight and Balance Documents provide essential information regarding _______.

A

weight distribution and balance of the aircraft

Critical for ensuring the aircraft is within safe operational limits.

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684
Q

What does the hollow bar on the Head-Up Display (HUD) indicate?

A

Height above touchdown between 500 to 1000 feet

The hollow bar represents the altitude range above the landing altitude.

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685
Q

What does the filled bar on the HUD indicate?

A

Height above touchdown between 0 to 500 feet

The filled bar indicates the altitude range closer to the landing altitude.

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686
Q

What is represented by the triangular bug and line on the altitude scale?

A

BARO minimums displayed

This visual cue indicates when the aircraft descends below the barometric minimums.

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687
Q

How long does the BARO minimums pointer flash when below minimums?

A

Flashes for 3 seconds, then steady

This alerts the crew that the aircraft has descended below the set barometric minimums.

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688
Q

What does the EFIS control panel MINS reference selector set to BARO display?

A

Displays BARO minimums altitude in feet MSL

MSL stands for Mean Sea Level.

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689
Q

What does the EFIS control panel MINS reference selector set to RADIO display?

A

Displays RADIO minimums altitude in feet AGL

AGL stands for Above Ground Level.

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690
Q

What happens when the airplane descends below the selected minimum altitude?

A

Flashes for 3 seconds, then steady

This indicates to the crew that the aircraft is below the minimum altitude set for the approach.

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691
Q

What are BARO minimums expressed in?

A

Feet MSL

Mean Sea Level is used as a reference for barometric altitudes.

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692
Q

What are RADIO minimums expressed in?

A

Radio altitude feet AGL

This is based on the aircraft’s height above the ground.

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693
Q

What does the barometric setting indicate on the EFIS control panel?

A

The barometric setting selected on the EFIS control panel barometric selector.

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694
Q

What does ‘STD’ indicate on the EFIS control panel?

A

‘STD’ is displayed when STD is selected on the EFIS control panel barometric STD switch.

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695
Q

When is the display boxed regarding barometric settings?

A

If a barometric setting is set and altitude climbs above the transition altitude, or if STD is set and altitude descends below the transition flight level.

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696
Q

What does QFE indicate on the CDU APPROACH REF page?

A

Indicates QFE altitude reference selected.

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697
Q

How long is QFE boxed when selected?

A

QFE is boxed for 10 seconds when selected.

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698
Q

What happens when QNH is selected on the CDU?

A

QNH is displayed for 10 seconds, then blanks.

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699
Q

What does ‘L’ or ‘R’ indicate in the Autopilot/Flight Director Barometric Source?

A

‘L’ or ‘R’ indicates that the left or right EFIS control panel is the barometric setting reference.

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700
Q

When is the barometric source displayed on the HUD?

A

Displayed when a flight director switch is in the ON position or the autopilot is engaged.

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701
Q

What does F/D indicate when one is turned on and one is not?

A

Determines ‘L’ or ‘R’.

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702
Q

What is indicated when both flight directors are on?

A

‘L’ is displayed.

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703
Q

How is the barometric setting determined when the autopilot is engaged?

A

The first one pushed on determines ‘L’ or ‘R’.

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704
Q

What are the two types of barometric settings mentioned?

A
  • QFE
  • QNH
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705
Q

Fill in the blank: The selected track bug and selected heading bug are not displayed at the same time. _______

A

[key learning term]

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706
Q

What does the Head-Up Display (HUD) indicate?

A

The current track and drift angle.

The HUD provides critical flight information directly in the pilot’s line of sight.

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707
Q

What is displayed when HDG (heading) is selected on the HUD?

A

SEL HDG.

This indicates the selected heading reference on the HUD.

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708
Q

What is displayed when TRK (track) is selected on the HUD?

A

SEL TRK.

This indicates the selected track reference on the HUD.

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709
Q

What happens if the selected heading/track exceeds the display range?

A

The bug parks on the side of the compass rose and horizon line heading scale.

The direction of the bug indicates the shorter turn to the selected heading.

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710
Q

How is the selected heading/track represented when it cannot be displayed?

A

The symbol’s outline is depicted with dashed lines.

This indicates that the selected heading/track can no longer be displayed on the HUD.

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711
Q

What does the digital display on the HUD show?

A

The current heading and the selected heading or track bug.

The digital heading corresponds to the heading on the horizon reference line.

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712
Q

What are the two types of heading/track references displayed?

A
  • MAG (magnetic north)
  • TRU (true north)

These references can be automatically or manually selected.

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713
Q

What does HUD stand for in aviation?

A

Head-Up Display

The HUD provides critical flight information directly in the pilot’s line of sight.

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714
Q

What does the TO/GA Reference Line indicate?

A

It indicates the flight director TO/GA mode is active

TO/GA stands for Takeoff/Go-Around.

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715
Q

Under what conditions is the TO/GA Reference Line displayed on the ground?

A

When flight director TO/GA mode is active and groundspeed is greater than 65 knots

This ensures that the indication is relevant for takeoff scenarios.

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716
Q

When is the TO/GA Reference Line displayed in the air?

A

When flight director TO/GA mode is active

This helps pilots maintain situational awareness during critical phases of flight.

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717
Q

What type of information does the HUD display that is unique compared to the PFD?

A

HUD-Unique Indications and Symbology

These indications provide specific guidance and information relevant to the HUD’s operational context.

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718
Q

Fill in the blank: The HUD does have some unique indications not found on the _______.

A

PFD

PFD stands for Primary Flight Display.

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719
Q

What is the significance of Ground Deviation Indications on the HUD during takeoff?

A

They provide critical information for maintaining the correct flight path

This is essential for safe takeoff and initial climb.

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720
Q

What does HUD stand for?

A

Head-Up Display

HUD provides critical flight information while allowing the pilot to maintain situational awareness.

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721
Q

What is the purpose of the Ground Deviation Indications on the HUD during takeoff?

A

To display the aircraft’s position relative to the intended flight path

This helps pilots ensure they are on the correct takeoff trajectory.

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722
Q

What does the On Course Line indicate?

A

The aircraft is following the planned flight path

It is important for maintaining proper navigation during flight.

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723
Q

What is indicated by the Right of Course Line on the HUD?

A

The aircraft is deviating to the right of the intended flight path

This prompts the pilot to adjust course to return to the planned route.

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724
Q

What does the Flight Director Guidance Cue provide?

A

Guidance for the pilot to follow the desired flight path

This cue assists in manual flying and enhances situational awareness.

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725
Q

What information is displayed by the Ground Roll Reference Symbol?

A

The aircraft’s current ground roll status during takeoff

This helps pilots monitor their speed and trajectory on the runway.

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726
Q

Fill in the blank: The B787 FCOM is a _______.

A

[Flight Crew Operations Manual]

The FCOM contains essential operational procedures and guidelines for pilots.

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727
Q

True or False: The HUD provides unique indications and symbology relevant to flight operations.

A

True

These indications are critical for safe and efficient flight management.

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728
Q

What does VNAV stand for in aviation terminology?

A

[Vertical Navigation]

VNAV is used to manage altitude changes during flight.

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729
Q

What is the significance of the HOLD indication on the HUD?

A

It indicates the aircraft should hold its current course or altitude

This is often used in holding patterns or during approach.

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730
Q

What does the HUD Takeoff Ground Roll Reference Symbol display?

A

Displays airplane position relative to the localizer

This symbol helps pilots understand their alignment with the runway during takeoff.

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731
Q

What does the Ground Excessive Deviation Symbol indicate?

A

Indicates excessive deviation (more than 23 feet) from localizer course line during takeoff roll

The flashing triangle points in the direction of the runway centerline.

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732
Q

When does the Flight Director Guidance Cue appear during a normal takeoff?

A

At approximately 50 feet RA

RA stands for Radio Altitude.

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733
Q

What happens to the Flight Director Guidance Cue during a HUD takeoff?

A

Appears with the flight path vector symbol during the ground to air transition

This cue assists pilots in transitioning from ground operations to flight.

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734
Q

At what altitude is the Flight Director Guidance Cue removed from the HUD on approach?

A

Approximately 50 feet RA

This indicates a critical phase of landing where manual control may be needed.

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735
Q

What does the Flight Path Vector Symbol display?

A

Displays actual flight path vector of the airplane as derived from IRS

IRS stands for Inertial Reference System.

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736
Q

When does the Flight Path Vector Symbol appear?

A

Only in flight

This symbol is crucial for pilots to understand their current flight trajectory.

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737
Q

What does the Flight Director Guidance Cue do during windshear alerting?

A

The cue fills (solid) during windshear alerting and when TO/GA pitch mode is active

TO/GA stands for Takeoff/Go-Around, indicating a critical operational mode.

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738
Q

What does the Flight Path Acceleration symbol indicate?

A

The inertial acceleration (or deceleration) of the airplane along the flight path.

This symbol is removed from the display when low-level, decreasing performance windshear is detected below 400 feet AGL.

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739
Q

When is the Speed Error Tape displayed?

A

It is not displayed until first flap retraction.

The Speed Error Tape shows the difference between the indicated airspeed and the selected airspeed.

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740
Q

What happens to the Speed Error Tape when the indicated airspeed is faster than the selected speed?

A

The Speed Error Tape rises above the wing.

Conversely, if the airspeed is slower than the selected speed, the Speed Error Tape falls below the wing.

741
Q

What does it mean if the Flight Path Acceleration symbol is above the flight path vector symbol?

A

The airplane is accelerating.

742
Q

What does it mean if the Flight Path Acceleration symbol is below the flight path vector symbol?

A

The airplane is decelerating.

743
Q

What does the Speed Error Tape display?

A

The difference between the indicated airspeed and the selected airspeed or flight management system commanded airspeed.

744
Q

True or False: The Flight Path Acceleration symbol remains on the display during low-level windshear conditions.

A

False.

745
Q

Fill in the blank: The Speed Error Tape is displayed only after _______.

A

first flap retraction.

746
Q

What type of indications does the HUD provide?

A

Unique indications and symbology related to flight path acceleration and speed error.

747
Q

What is the significance of the 4G 76% mentioned in the context of the B787?

A

It refers to the aircraft’s performance capabilities, specifically in terms of acceleration.

748
Q

What document provides operational information for the B787?

A

B787 FCOM

FCOM stands for Flight Crew Operating Manual

749
Q

What does the Slip/Skid Indicator reference during takeoff or low altitude go-around?

A

Flight path vector symbol

It provides yaw reference in the event of engine failure

750
Q

When is the Wind Speed and Direction displayed?

A

When wind speed exceeds 6 knots and the airplane is not on the ground

This display indicates wind speed and direction with respect to display orientation

751
Q

What does the Digital Heading display show?

A

Current heading corresponding to the horizon reference line

752
Q

What are the components displayed on the Pitch Scale?

A

Pitch Scale Chevrons and Pitch Scale Compression

753
Q

What type of indications are unique to the Head-Up Display System?

A

Slip/Skid Indicator and other HUD-specific symbology

754
Q

Fill in the blank: The B787 Weight and Balance Documents are part of the _______.

A

B787 documentation

755
Q

True or False: The Slip/Skid Indicator is displayed during cruise flight.

A

False

756
Q

What flight conditions activate the display of the Slip/Skid Indicator?

A

During takeoff or low altitude go-around

757
Q

What is indicated by the digital heading in the B787?

A

The current heading of the aircraft

758
Q

What does B787 QRH stand for?

A

B787 Quick Reference Handbook

759
Q

What is the purpose of the B787 FCOM?

A

B787 Flight Crew Operations Manual

760
Q

What type of documents are included in B787 Weight and Balance?

A

Weight and Balance Documents

761
Q

What does FAM stand for in the context of B787 documentation?

A

Flight Attendant Manual

762
Q

What does the Head-Up Display (HUD) provide in the B787?

A

Unique Indications and Symbology

763
Q

What happens to the pitch scale when the horizon reference line is parked at the limit of the display?

A

Pitch scale compresses due to excessive pitch angle

764
Q

What does the Upper Pitch Scale Chevron indicate?

A

Apply pitch down

765
Q

What does the Lower Pitch Scale Chevron indicate?

A

Apply pitch up

766
Q

Fill in the blank: The pitch scale compresses if the horizon reference line or the flight path vector symbol are parked at the limit of the display because of excessive _______.

A

pitch angle

767
Q

True or False: The Pitch Scale Chevron directs the pilot to apply pitch down at +30°.

A

True

768
Q

True or False: The Pitch Scale Chevron directs the pilot to apply pitch up at +20°.

A

False

769
Q

What is displayed when pitch is less than -20°?

A

Unusual Attitude (UA) symbology

770
Q

What conditions trigger the display of Unusual Attitude (UA) symbology?

A

• Pitch is less than -20°
• Pitch is greater than +35°
• Roll exceeds 55° in either direction

771
Q

Under what conditions does Unusual Attitude (UA) symbology stop displaying?

A

• Pitch angle is between -5° and 10° for 5 seconds
• Roll angle is less than 10° for 5 seconds

772
Q

Where is the Zenith Symbol displayed?

A

Center of HUD pitch scale at +90° pitch line

773
Q

Where is the Nadir Symbol displayed?

A

Center of HUD pitch scale at -90° pitch line

774
Q

What does the Runway Edge Lines and Glideslope Reference Line indicate?

A

4G 76%

775
Q

Fill in the blank: Unusual Attitude symbology remains displayed until pitch angle is between _______ and _______ for 5 seconds.

A

-5°, 10°

776
Q

True or False: Roll angle must be less than 5° for 5 seconds to stop displaying Unusual Attitude symbology.

A

False

777
Q

What is the maximum roll angle that triggers Unusual Attitude symbology?

A

55° in either direction

778
Q

What does the B787 FCOM include?

A

B787 QRH, B787 Weight and Balance Documents, B787 FCOM @ FAM

FCOM stands for Flight Crew Operations Manual.

779
Q

What unique indications does the Head-Up Display System (HUD) provide?

A

Displays HUD-Unique Indications and Symbology

The HUD enhances situational awareness for pilots.

780
Q

What is displayed when the VREF speed is selected during an approach?

A

Display of the glideslope or glidepath value for the active approach

This information is crucial for maintaining the correct flight path.

781
Q

At what height is the glideslope reference line removed from the HUD?

A

70 feet

This is a standard procedure to minimize information overload during landing.

782
Q

What is the default value for the digital glideslope angle if no approach is selected?

A

This ensures a standard approach angle is maintained when no specific angle is provided.

783
Q

When is the runway symbol displayed in the HUD?

A

Only in decluttered mode

This helps reduce visual clutter for pilots during critical phases of flight.

784
Q

At what height is the runway symbol removed from the HUD?

A

60 feet

This is part of the transition to visual references during landing.

785
Q

What do the tick marks on runway edge lines correspond to?

A

Touchdown aiming point

These marks assist pilots in aligning with the runway for landing.

786
Q

What does the ground deceleration scale indicate?

A

Ground deceleration rates

This information is vital for managing aircraft speed on the runway.

787
Q

What does the vertical position of the Flight Path Acceleration symbol indicate?

A

The actual inertial deceleration rate of the airplane

788
Q

What does the Ground Deceleration Scale display?

A

The actual deceleration rate being achieved

It is provided by the corresponding autobrake setting (1, 2, 3, 4, MAX AUTO)

789
Q

When is the Ground Deceleration Scale displayed during flight?

A

Displayed on landing and on takeoff if a deceleration is sensed with groundspeed above 50 knots and airplane is still on ground

790
Q

Under what conditions is the Ground Deceleration Scale removed from the display?

A

When groundspeed decreases below 25 knots, airplane begins accelerating, or airplane lifts off

791
Q

What does the B787 FCOM refer to?

A

B787 Flight Crew Operating Manual

792
Q

What is indicated by the HUD-Unique Indications and Symbology section in the B787 FCOM?

A

Specific indications and symbology unique to the Head-Up Display system

793
Q

Fill in the blank: The Ground Deceleration Scale is a _______ indexed scale and pointer.

A

vertical

794
Q

What is the purpose of HUD Controls in the B787?

A

To manage and manipulate the Head-Up Display settings

795
Q

What is the purpose of the Combiner in the B787 Head-Up Display System?

A

Combines the overhead unit projected flight symbology with the pilot’s view through forward window

This allows pilots to see critical flight information without looking down at instruments.

796
Q

What does the Combiner Locking Lever do?

A

Locks and releases the combiner assembly for deployment

The locking lever must be engaged to secure the combiner in its stowed position.

797
Q

How is the Combiner Locking Lever released?

A

Push lock release to right to release combiner assembly for deployment

This action allows the combiner to be folded down for use.

798
Q

What should be ensured before operating the Combiner?

A

Ensure the combiner is fully raised and securely latched in the stowed position

This is a precaution to prevent the possibility of injury.

799
Q

True or False: The Combiner Locking Lever can be in a stowed position.

A

True

The stowed position is shown when the lever is folded upward towards the overhead panel.

800
Q

What are the five primary groups of information displayed to the flight crew?

A
  • Primary Flight Display (PFD) with mini-map
  • Navigation Display (ND)
  • Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System (EICAS)
  • Auxiliary Display (AUX)
  • Multifunction Display (MFD)
801
Q

What is the default configuration of displays after power-up with PFD/MFD selectors set to NORM?

A
  • PFDs on the two outboard display units (DUs)
  • Normal-display ND on the left MFD of the captain inboard DU
  • Full-display ND on the First Officer inboard DU
  • EICAS in the right MFD window of the captain inboard DU
  • CDU in each MFD window of the lower DU
802
Q

Fill in the blank: The flight instruments and displays supply information to the flight crew on five flat panel _______ units.

A

liquid crystal display

803
Q

True or False: The Primary Flight Display (PFD) includes a mini-map.

A

True

804
Q

What are the sections in the B787 FCOM that provide additional information about displays? List any three.

A
  • Head-Up Display System - Displays, Chapter 10, Section 12
  • Primary Flight Displays (PFDs), Chapter 10, Section 30
  • Navigation Displays, Chapter 10, Section 40
805
Q

How many flat panel liquid crystal display units are used to supply information to the flight crew?

A

Five

806
Q

Fill in the blank: The Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System is abbreviated as _______.

A

EICAS

807
Q

Which display shows a normal-display ND in the default configuration?

A

Left MFD of the captain inboard DU

808
Q

What is displayed in the right MFD window of the captain inboard DU?

A

EICAS

809
Q

In the default configuration, where is the CDU displayed?

A

In each MFD window of the lower DU

810
Q

What are the typical configurations for the displays during normal operations in a B787?

A

PFDs on the two outboard DUs
EICAS in either right MFD window of captain inboard DU or left MFD window of First Officer inboard DU
Normal-display ND in MFD window on same inboard DU as EICAS
Full-display ND on inboard DU without EICAS
CDU in each MFD window of lower DU

PFD stands for Primary Flight Display and ND stands for Navigation Display. EICAS stands for Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System. CDU stands for Control Display Unit.

811
Q

How many MFDs are available at any one time on the B787 flight deck?

A

Five MFDs

MFD stands for Multifunction Display.

812
Q

What are the three management options for additional instances of a display format in the B787?

A
  • Synchronized
  • Independent
  • Blank

Synchronized means a copy of an already displayed instance. Independent means not linked to any other instance. Blank occurs when the maximum number of instances is exceeded.

813
Q

What happens when a third INFO instance is opened on the B787?

A

“SELECT MFD - INFO NOT AVAILABLE” shows, and no INFO function can show for that instance

There is a limit of two functional instances for the INFO format.

814
Q

What is the maximum number of instances that each format can show on the B787?

A
  • SYS: 2 per side, independent
  • CDU: 1 per side, independent
  • INFO: 2 per side, independent
  • CHKL: 1 per side, synchronized
  • COMM: 1 per side, independent
  • ND: 1 per side, independent

SYS refers to System Display, CDU is Control Display Unit, INFO refers to Information Display, CHKL refers to Checklist Display, COMM refers to Communication Display, and ND refers to Navigation Display.

815
Q

True or False: Each MFD window can show multiple instances of the same format simultaneously.

A

False

Only one instance of each format can be displayed at a time.

816
Q

Fill in the blank: The message displayed when the selected display exceeds the maximum number of instances allowed is “_______”.

A

“SELECT MFD.”

This message indicates that additional pilot selection is required to replace the blank display.

817
Q

What is the maximum number of functional instances allowed in the SYS format?

A

Three functional instances

If a fourth instance is opened, a message indicates that the SYS function is not available.

818
Q

What does the EFIS control panel control?

A

Display options, mode, and range for PFDs and NDs

Primary Flight Displays (PFDs) and Navigation Displays (NDs) are referenced in specific chapters.

819
Q

What happens if an EFIS control panel fails?

A

Displays can be controlled through the backup EFIS/DSP display on the SYS page

This backup capability is available at all times but inhibits inputs from the EFIS control panel.

820
Q

How can pilots control the ND on the lower DU?

A

Both pilots have access to the lower DU; the first pilot to select an ND controls the full-display ND

A single full-display ND is shown when each pilot selects an ND into a window.

821
Q

What is the function of the Display Select Panel (DSP)?

A

Controls the MFDs for the on-side inboard DU

Each pilot has a DSP on the glareshield.

822
Q

What does the ENG switch do on the Display Select Panel?

A

Toggles the display of secondary engine information on the EICAS display

EICAS stands for Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System.

823
Q

What is the purpose of the EICAS transfer switch?

A

Transfers the EICAS display between the inboard half of the captain and first officer inboard DUs

This allows for shared access to engine information.

824
Q

What does the MASTER BRIGHTNESS control adjust?

A

Brightness for all displays and panel lighting simultaneously

Each display unit also has an individual control for brightness adjustment.

825
Q

Fill in the blank: The Multifunction Keypad (MFK) has _______ located on the top.

A

Lower Display Switches

These switches provide control over the on-side MFD on the lower DU.

826
Q

True or False: The DSP control is not available when the EFIS backup is enabled.

A

False

DSP control remains active if the DSP is still functional.

827
Q

What does the MASTER BRIGHTNESS control do?

A

Provides simultaneous brightness adjustment for all displays and panel lighting

Individual controls exist for each display unit, offering limited range control when master brightness is on, and full range control when off.

828
Q

How do the remote light sensors function?

A

Measure brightness in the forward field of view and adjust overall display brightness

Located left and right on the top of the glareshield.

829
Q

What is the purpose of the PFD/MFD selector?

A

Used to switch displays if there is undetected display unit failure

830
Q

What happens when the PFD/MFD selector is in the inboard position (INBD DU)?

A

The outboard display unit is blanked and the inboard display unit shows cropped PFD and EICAS if previously displayed

Otherwise, shows whichever display was shown instead of EICAS before the failure.

831
Q

What occurs when the PFD/MFD selector is in the outboard position (OUTBD DU)?

A

The inboard display unit is blanked; outboard half shows cropped PFD, inboard half displays EICAS if previously shown

Otherwise, shows whichever display was shown instead of EICAS before the failure.

832
Q

What does the AIR DATA/ATT source selector control?

A

Controls the source of airspeed, altitude, and attitude information for the associated PFD and HUD

833
Q

What is the effect of the AIR DATA/ATT source selector on the autoflight or navigation system?

A

It has no effect on the autoflight or navigation system

834
Q

What does the non-normal (ALTN) position on the AIR DATA/ATT source selector allow?

A

Provides the capability for manual selection of PFD and HUD sources in case of undetected source failure

835
Q

What is the default display configuration when the PFD/MFD DISPLAY selectors are set to NORM?

A

The inboard DUs display NDs and EICAS

836
Q

Fill in the blank: The automatic display brightness control system also affects the brightness of _______.

A

[EFBs, mode control panel displays, standby flight instruments, aisle stand panel displays]

837
Q

True or False: The display system automatically reconfigures to compensate for most faults.

A

True

838
Q

What happens if an outboard DU fails?

A

The PFD automatically moves to the outboard MFD window of the inboard DU

The PFD is cropped on both sides and the AUX display is removed.

839
Q

Can the EICAS transfer switch function normally if an outboard DU fails?

A

Yes, the EICAS transfer switch on each EFIS control panel can still function normally.

840
Q

What occurs when both outboard DUs fail?

A

The AUX display is not shown on any DU.

841
Q

Fill in the blank: If an outboard DU fails, the _______ automatically moves to the outboard MFD window of the inboard DU.

A

[PFD]

842
Q

True or False: The AUX display remains visible on at least one DU when both outboard DUs fail.

A

False

843
Q

What happens if an inboard DU fails?

A

The EICAS display automatically moves to the other inboard DU.

844
Q

What must be done to move the EICAS display if both inboard DUs fail?

A

The pilots must use the PFD/MFD selector to manually reconfigure the displays.

845
Q

True or False: The EICAS transfer switch can move the EICAS display if the displays are not manually reconfigured.

A

False.

846
Q

Fill in the blank: If both inboard DUs fail, the EICAS can __________.

A

not be displayed.

847
Q

What is the role of the PFD/MFD selector in the event of a DU failure?

A

To manually reconfigure the displays for EICAS display.

848
Q

What should be set on the PFD/MFD selector if an outboard DU fails?

A

INBD DU

849
Q

What happens to the PFD when it moves to the outboard MFD window of the inboard DU?

A

The PFD is cropped on both sides and the AUX display is removed

850
Q

Can the EICAS transfer switch on each EFIS control panel function normally after an outboard DU failure?

A

Yes

851
Q

What are the three display types mentioned in the context of manual switching?

A
  • PFD
  • MFD
  • EICAS
852
Q

Fill in the blank: If an outboard DU fails, the appropriate PFD/MFD selector is set to _______.

A

INBD DU

853
Q

True or False: The AUX display remains visible when the PFD moves to the outboard MFD window of the inboard DU.

A

False

854
Q

What happens if an inboard DU fails?

A

The EICAS display automatically moves to the other inboard DU.

855
Q

How do you place EICAS on the outboard DU of either side?

A

Set the PFD/MFD selector to OUTBD DU.

856
Q

What does the acronym EICAS stand for?

A

Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System.

857
Q

What are the components involved in the B787 display selection?

A
  • HUD
  • AUX
  • PFD
  • EICAS
  • MFD
858
Q

Fill in the blank: The B787 FCOM stands for _______.

A

[Flight Crew Operating Manual]

859
Q

True or False: The B787 QRH includes weight and balance documents.

A

True

860
Q

What are the two types of display units mentioned for the B787?

A
  • Inboard DU
  • Outboard DU
861
Q

What does the PFD/MFD selector control in the B787?

A

The selection of display units for EICAS and other information.

862
Q

What does HUD stand for?

A

Heads-Up Display.

863
Q

List the display options available in the B787.

A
  • PFD
  • MFD
  • EICAS
  • AUX
  • HUD
864
Q

What is the purpose of the EICAS transfer switches?

A

To toggle the EICAS display between the captain inboard DU and the first officer inboard DU

EICAS stands for Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System, which is crucial for displaying engine and system information.

865
Q

What does EICAS stand for?

A

Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System

EICAS is vital for providing real-time data about engine performance and alerts to the flight crew.

866
Q

Fill in the blank: The EICAS transfer switches toggle the EICAS display between the captain inboard DU and the _______.

A

first officer inboard DU

867
Q

Identify two components related to B787 systems.

A
  • B787 QRH
  • B787 FCOM
868
Q

What does FCOM stand for in the context of B787?

A

Flight Crew Operating Manual

FCOM provides detailed information and procedures for the operation of the aircraft.

869
Q

What type of documents are included in B787 Weight and Balance?

A

Flight Instruments, Displays

These documents ensure that the aircraft is within safe weight limits for flight.

870
Q

What systems can be controlled by the EICAS transfer switches?

A
  • SYS
  • CHKL
  • MFD
  • CDU
  • INFO
  • COMM
  • ENG
871
Q

True or False: The EICAS display can be switched to the MFD using the transfer switches.

A

True

872
Q

What does MFD stand for?

A

Multi-Function Display

MFDs are used to present various types of flight information and data to the pilots.

873
Q

Fill in the blank: The EICAS transfer switches allow toggling between the EICAS display and the _______.

A

MFD

874
Q

List the display options available for the EICAS system.

A
  • AUX
  • PFD
  • MFD
875
Q

What are the Cursor Control Devices (CCD) used for?

A

To control the display cursor in the flight deck

The CCD, Multifunction Keypads (MFK), and EFIS control panels provide this functionality.

876
Q

How does the on-side cursor behave when a display is deselected?

A

The cursor is not pulled to the default display

The cursor is only pulled to a display if the pilot requests it.

877
Q

What happens when a finger is lifted off the touch pad of the CCD?

A

The cursor does not move unless the finger is in contact with the touch pad

Only finger motion while in contact with the touch pad moves the cursor.

878
Q

What are the functions of tapping in the corner areas of the touch pad?

A

Immediately places the cursor in the corresponding corner of the display

This feature helps pilots quickly locate the cursor.

879
Q

What do the cursor location switches on the CCD do?

A

They move the cursor to the on-side EFB or MFD

They can position the cursor to specific locations like upper left or soft keys.

880
Q

What indicates where the cursor appears when a cursor location switch is used?

A

An annunciator light illuminates

This light shows the location of the cursor on the display.

881
Q

Fill in the blank: The Cursor Control Device (CCD) uses a _______.

A

touch pad

882
Q

What is the primary purpose of the B787 Weight and Balance Documents?

A

To provide weight and balance information for the aircraft

This is critical for flight safety and performance.

883
Q

True or False: Each pilot in the B787 has different controls for their respective sides of the flight deck.

A

False

Each pilot has an identical set of controls.

884
Q

What chapters contain additional information about MFD Communications Functions?

A

Chapter S, Section 40

This chapter provides detailed information on MFD functionalities.

885
Q

What feature allows pilots to quickly access selections at the corners of the display?

A

Tapping on the corners of the touch pad

This action positions the cursor quickly for faster access.

886
Q

What does the Multifunction Keypad (MFK) include?

A

The MFK includes the rotary Cursor Control Selector and the Cursor Select Switch

The MFK is used to navigate and select options on displays.

887
Q

How do you move the cursor between active areas in a display using the MFK?

A

Rotate the Cursor Control Selector

This allows navigation through various selectable options.

888
Q

What is the primary function of the EFIS control panel?

A

Provides cursor control of any on-side ND

ND stands for Navigation Display.

889
Q

What does the ND Mode Selector do?

A

Moves the highlight between MAP and PLAN modes for the ND

It allows the user to switch between different display modes.

890
Q

What items are highlighted with the ND Mode Selector?

A

Items on the ND drop-down menu

This facilitates selection of options from the menu.

891
Q

What must be highlighted to exit the drop-down menu on the ND?

A

MENU or EXIT keys

These keys must be selected to close the menu.

892
Q

What are the two components of the standby flight instruments?

A
  • Integrated standby flight display
  • Standby magnetic compass

These instruments provide essential flight information in case of primary instrument failure.

893
Q

What information does the Integrated Standby Flight Display (ISFD) show?

A
  • Attitude
  • Airspeed
  • Altitude
  • ILS
  • GLS
  • Heading

The ISFD is critical for maintaining flight awareness.

894
Q

From where does the ISFD receive airspeed and altitude data?

A

From the center pitot and static air data modules

These modules are crucial for accurate air data measurement.

895
Q

What provides the attitude information for the ISFD?

A

Internal inertial sensors

These sensors detect changes in orientation.

896
Q

What happens if the ISFD detects a momentary out-of-limit condition?

A

The attitude display may blank and a WAIT ATT or ATT: RST message may display

This indicates a need for recalibration or reset.

897
Q

What must be done to reset the attitude display in flight?

A

Push the Attitude Reset switch while in wings level, non-accelerated flight

This ensures a stable environment for accurate reset.

898
Q

What does the ATT 10s message indicate during an attitude reset?

A

It indicates that the airplane must maintain straight and level flight for 10 seconds

Failure to do so results in an ATT:RST message.

899
Q

What happens if the attitude reset is unsuccessful?

A

The ATT:RST message remains displayed and the attitude is not displayed

This indicates a failure in the reset process.

900
Q

What type of compass is provided as a standby magnetic compass?

A

A standard liquid-damped magnetic standby compass

This design helps reduce oscillations and provides stable readings.

901
Q

What does the card located near the standby magnetic compass provide?

A

Heading correction factors

This helps in adjusting the compass for accurate readings.

902
Q

What does the radio altimeter measure?

A

Airplane altitude above terrain

Radio altitude is displayed on both the PFD and HUD.

903
Q

How many radio altimeter systems are there?

A

Two: left and right

If both systems are inoperative or degraded, an EICAS advisory message displays.

904
Q

What happens if both RA systems are inoperative?

A

EICAS advisory message RADIO ALTIMETER L+R displays

‘RA’ is also displayed on both PFD and HUD.

905
Q

What systems receive data from the radio altimeter?

A
  • Autopilot system
  • Autothrottle
  • GPWS
  • TCAS
  • Weather radar
  • Primary flight control system

These systems rely on radio altitude data for operation.

906
Q

What are the two distinct areas of the AUX display?

A
  • Clock/flight information
  • ATC datalink block

The AUX area outboard of each PFD consists of these two areas.

907
Q

What information is included in the clock/flight information area of the AUX display?

A
  • Flight number
  • MIC readout
  • Transponder code
  • SELCAL
  • Airplane tail number
  • UTC time
  • Date
  • Elapsed flight time
  • Chrono dial and readout

This information is located in the upper part of the AUX display.

908
Q

What does the ATC datalink block display?

A

Uplinked messages, COMM system generated messages, and flight information messages

Refer to ATC Messages in Chapter 5, Section 40, for additional information.

909
Q

What is the function of the clocks on the AUX display?

A
  • Derives UTC time and date from GPS data
  • Provides elapsed time
  • Provides chronograph functions

Each clock operates independently.

910
Q

When does the elapsed flight time timer start?

A

Automatically at weight off wheels

It ends at weight on wheels plus 30 seconds.

911
Q

What happens to the timer when v-speeds are entered into the CDU?

A

Timer resets to 00:00

The PFD ‘NO VSPD’ flag disappears.

912
Q

True or False: The clocks on the AUX display are synchronized between the two pilot stations.

A

False

The pilots have independent control of the chrono displays.

913
Q

What is the primary source for attitude and inertial navigation position information in the B787?

A

Inertial Reference System (IRS)

Major components include two inertial reference units (IRU) and two attitude heading reference units (AHRU).

914
Q

What are the major components of the Inertial Reference System (IRS)?

A
  • Two inertial reference units (IRU)
  • Two attitude heading reference units (AHRU)

The IRS is crucial for providing navigation information.

915
Q

What does the Inertial Reference Unit (IRU) process?

A

Information from internal gyros, accelerometers, and GPS inputs

The IRU is the primary source for independent inertial navigation position information.

916
Q

What is the function of the Attitude Heading Reference Units (AHRU)?

A

Provide attitude and heading information

AHRUs are essential for navigation and aircraft control.

917
Q

What does the Air Data Reference System (ADRS) provide?

A

Primary, secondary, and standby air data

The ADRS is integral for accurate flight data.

918
Q

List the major components of the Air Data Reference System (ADRS).

A
  • Six air data modules
  • Six static ports
  • Three pitot probes
  • Two angle-of-attack sensors
  • One total air temperature probe

These components work together to measure air data.

919
Q

Where are the static ports located on the B787?

A

Three on the left side and three on the right side

Static ports are paired through pneumatic tubing to the air data modules.

920
Q

How do air data modules utilize static air pressure?

A

Convert static air pressure to a digital output

This output is used by other systems for navigation and control.

921
Q

Where are the pitot probes mounted on the B787?

A
  • Right forward section (two probes)
  • Left forward section (one probe)

Pitot probes measure dynamic air pressure.

922
Q

True or False: The B787 has two angle-of-attack sensors.

A

True

Angle-of-attack sensors are part of the Air Data Reference System.

923
Q

Fill in the blank: The IRS is the primary source for _______ and inertial navigation position information.

A

attitude

Attitude is crucial for navigation and aircraft stability.

924
Q

What are the two components that measure airplane angle-of-attack?

A

Two angle-of-attack sensors located on each side of the forward fuselage

925
Q

What does Angle-of-Attack Speed (AOA SPD) provide when air data is erroneous?

A

Backup airspeed indication based on angle of attack and inertial system inputs

926
Q

What happens to AOA SPD indications during configuration changes or speedbrake use?

A

Subject to indication variations

927
Q

What is the impact of AOA SPD showing due to air data anomalies?

A

Simplified flight control laws are used, increasing pitch control sensitivity

928
Q

What is the reduced maximum speed indication due to AOA SPD accuracy limitations?

A

Reduced from 360K/.90M to 300K/.85M

929
Q

What alerts are reduced when AOA SPD is automatically displayed?

A

OVERSPEED warning alerts

930
Q

What is the function of the total air temperature probe on the airplane?

A

Sense air mass temperature

931
Q

How many total air temperature inputs does the ADRS use?

A

Six inputs from total air temperature and EEC TAT sensors

932
Q

What temperature is displayed on the CDU PROGRESS page?

A

Static air temperature

933
Q

How does the ADRS compute total air temperature?

A

Using the total air temperature probe and weighted averages of sensor inputs

934
Q

What is the purpose of the head-up displays (HUD) in the airplane?

A

Project flight data symbology onto a transparent glass combiner screen

935
Q

True or False: The head-up displays operate independently from each other.

A

True

936
Q

Fill in the blank: The AOA SPD is based on angle of attack and _______.

A

inertial system inputs

937
Q

What occurs when both pilots select the AIR DATA / ATT source selector to the ALTN position?

A

AOA SPD is automatically displayed

938
Q

What temperature data do sensors in CAC inlets provide when on the ground at less than 50 kts CAS?

A

ADRS TAT

939
Q

What are the two components that measure airplane angle-of-attack?

A

Two angle-of-attack sensors located on each side of the forward fuselage

940
Q

What does Angle-of-Attack Speed (AOA SPD) provide when air data is erroneous?

A

Backup airspeed indication based on angle of attack and inertial system inputs

941
Q

What happens to AOA SPD indications during configuration changes or speedbrake use?

A

Subject to indication variations

942
Q

What is the impact of AOA SPD showing due to air data anomalies?

A

Simplified flight control laws are used, increasing pitch control sensitivity

943
Q

What is the reduced maximum speed indication due to AOA SPD accuracy limitations?

A

Reduced from 360K/.90M to 300K/.85M

944
Q

What alerts are reduced when AOA SPD is automatically displayed?

A

OVERSPEED warning alerts

945
Q

What is the function of the total air temperature probe on the airplane?

A

Sense air mass temperature

946
Q

How many total air temperature inputs does the ADRS use?

A

Six inputs from total air temperature and EEC TAT sensors

947
Q

What temperature is displayed on the CDU PROGRESS page?

A

Static air temperature

948
Q

How does the ADRS compute total air temperature?

A

Using the total air temperature probe and weighted averages of sensor inputs

949
Q

What is the purpose of the head-up displays (HUD) in the airplane?

A

Project flight data symbology onto a transparent glass combiner screen

950
Q

True or False: The head-up displays operate independently from each other.

A

True

951
Q

Fill in the blank: The AOA SPD is based on angle of attack and _______.

A

inertial system inputs

952
Q

What occurs when both pilots select the AIR DATA / ATT source selector to the ALTN position?

A

AOA SPD is automatically displayed

953
Q

What temperature data do sensors in CAC inlets provide when on the ground at less than 50 kts CAS?

A

ADRS TAT

954
Q

What does the HUD and PFD receive flight data from?

A

The same sources

HUD indications match PFD indications, though data format and symbology may differ.

955
Q

Where are the overhead units located in the B787?

A

Above the head of each pilot

956
Q

What type of projector is used in the HUD?

A

Monochromatic (green)

957
Q

What are the only dedicated HUD controls?

A

Symbology and brightness controls

958
Q

Does the HUD system have an ON/OFF switch?

A

No

959
Q

What determines the data output on both the HUD and PFD?

A

Manipulation of the FMS, EFIS, and MCP controls

960
Q

What is the function of the symbology control switches?

A

Allow the pilot to alternate between the two display modes

961
Q

What does pulling out the brightness control allow for?

A

Manual adjustment of display brightness and contrast level

962
Q

What happens when the brightness control is pushed in?

A

The HUD system automatically adjusts brightness to maintain constant display contrast

963
Q

What is the purpose of the glass combiner?

A

To display flight data symbology onto the combiner glass

964
Q

How is the combiner release accomplished?

A

By sliding the locking lever to the right

965
Q

What message is shown if the combiner is not properly aligned?

A

ALIGN HUD message

966
Q

What must be done to ensure the combiner is positioned correctly?

A

Position it at the stop to remove the ALIGN HUD message

967
Q

What does the HUD and PFD receive flight data from?

A

The same sources

HUD indications match PFD indications, though data format and symbology may differ.

968
Q

Where are the overhead units located in the B787?

A

Above the head of each pilot

969
Q

What type of projector is used in the HUD?

A

Monochromatic (green)

970
Q

What are the only dedicated HUD controls?

A

Symbology and brightness controls

971
Q

Does the HUD system have an ON/OFF switch?

A

No

972
Q

What determines the data output on both the HUD and PFD?

A

Manipulation of the FMS, EFIS, and MCP controls

973
Q

What is the function of the symbology control switches?

A

Allow the pilot to alternate between the two display modes

974
Q

What does pulling out the brightness control allow for?

A

Manual adjustment of display brightness and contrast level

975
Q

What happens when the brightness control is pushed in?

A

The HUD system automatically adjusts brightness to maintain constant display contrast

976
Q

What is the purpose of the glass combiner?

A

To display flight data symbology onto the combiner glass

977
Q

How is the combiner release accomplished?

A

By sliding the locking lever to the right

978
Q

What message is shown if the combiner is not properly aligned?

A

ALIGN HUD message

979
Q

What must be done to ensure the combiner is positioned correctly?

A

Position it at the stop to remove the ALIGN HUD message

980
Q

What is the primary function of the combiner in the HUD system?

A

To prevent the pilot’s head from impacting the combiner during sudden deceleration

The combiner rotates forward and locks in a breakaway position.

981
Q

What are the two alternate symbology modes displayed on the HUD?

A
  • Full-symbology mode
  • Decluttered mode
982
Q

How does the full-symbology mode differ from the decluttered mode?

A

Full-symbology displays speed and altitude tapes, while decluttered mode shows only digital values.

983
Q

What common elements are included in the full-symbology HUD display?

A
  • Speed and altitude tapes
  • Lateral and vertical navigation performance scales
  • Bank angle indicator
  • Flight mode annunciations (FMA)
  • Partial compass rose
984
Q

True or False: The partial compass rose is displayed in full symbology mode during ground operations.

A

False

985
Q

What alerting functions are affected by the monochromatic limitation of the HUD display?

A

Many alerting functions that use color symbology on the PFD may use flashing, shape filling/blanking, and highlight box symbology on the HUD.

986
Q

What does the HUD pitch scale normally display?

A

5° lined increments above and below the horizon reference line.

987
Q

What happens to the HUD pitch scale at higher altitudes?

A

The HUD horizon reference line may appear slightly above the actual horizon due to curvature of the earth.

988
Q

What occurs when the HUD cannot show the horizon reference line due to excessive pitch?

A

The pitch scale compresses to display 10° increments.

989
Q

What do the chevrons on the HUD indicate?

A

They direct the pilot to pitch the airplane back toward the horizon.

990
Q

What pitch angle triggers the Unusual Attitude (UA) symbology?

A

When airplane pitch angle exceeds -20° or +35°.

991
Q

What roll angle triggers the UA symbology?

A

When roll exceeds 55° in either direction.

992
Q

What is displayed when the UA symbology is active?

A

Only the symbology necessary to help recover from the situation.

993
Q

What replaces the full or decluttered symbology when UA is displayed?

A

The UA symbology replaces it.

994
Q

What is the UA symbology in the HUD?

A

The UA symbology includes a zenith symbol centered on the +90° pitch scale line, and a nadir symbol centered on the -90° pitch scale line.

995
Q

Under what conditions does the UA symbology remain displayed?

A

Until the airplane pitch angle is between -5° and +10° for 5 seconds and roll angle is less than 10° for 5 seconds.

996
Q

What does the digital heading display show?

A

A numerical digital heading value that corresponds to the heading on the horizon reference line of the pitch scale.

997
Q

What indications are included during a HUD takeoff?

A

Ground roll reference symbol, flight director guidance cue, and ILS/GLS localizer deviation pointer.

998
Q

What triggers the flashing triangle during a HUD takeoff?

A

If the airplane deviates more than seven meters (23 feet) right or left from the runway centerline.

999
Q

What is the function of the TO/GA reference line?

A

To depict flight director vertical guidance as a horizontal dashed line across the HUD pitch scale.

1000
Q

When does the TO/GA reference line become visible during takeoff?

A

When groundspeed is greater than 65 knots.

1001
Q

What does the flight path vector symbol indicate?

A

Where the airplane is going, derived from inertial sources.

1002
Q

What is the angle of the flight path vector symbol’s ‘gull wing’ wing roots?

A

30° to the horizontal.

1003
Q

What happens when the TO/GA reference line is positioned above the airplane reference symbol?

A

A flight director pitch up command is displayed.

1004
Q

Fill in the blank: The flight path angle is indicated by the position of the center of the flight path circle relative to the _______.

A

[pitch scale]

1005
Q

True or False: The ground deviation indications during a HUD takeoff become active regardless of the airplane’s heading.

A

False

1006
Q

What is the maximum heading deviation allowed for the HUD takeoff guidance to be active?

A

45° of the runway heading.

1007
Q

What is displayed when the TO/GA reference line is positioned below the airplane reference symbol?

A

A pitch down command.

1008
Q

What condition must be met for the HUD takeoff guidance to be activated?

A

The plane must be within 2º of the center of the ILS localizer beam or 75 feet of the GLS localizer centerline.

1009
Q

What is displayed in flight with priority over all other symbols except the guidance cue?

A

The flight path vector symbol

The flight path vector symbol indicates the aircraft’s intended flight path.

1010
Q

What happens if another symbol is positioned inside the circle of the flight path vector symbol?

A

That portion of the other symbol is not displayed

This helps to prioritize the flight path vector symbol for better situational awareness.

1011
Q

What does the flight path vector symbol indicate when limited laterally by other symbology?

A

It has a dashed outline instead of a solid outline

A dashed outline indicates that the current drift angle cannot be displayed.

1012
Q

What does the guidance cue represent?

A

Flight director guidance

The guidance cue appears when the flight directors are activated.

1013
Q

When does the guidance cue appear during takeoff?

A

At 50 feet RA

The guidance cue appears simultaneously with the flight path vector if a HUD takeoff is selected.

1014
Q

What changes in the guidance cue during a windshear alert condition?

A

Changes from hollow to solid (filled)

This change indicates an alert condition to the pilots.

1015
Q

What does the angle-of-attack (AOA) limit symbol depict on the HUD?

A

The airplane’s angle-of-attack limit

This symbol provides critical information about the aircraft’s performance and safety margins.

1016
Q

What does the distance between the AOA limit symbol and the flight path vector symbol represent?

A

The margin available before stick shaker occurs

This helps pilots maintain safe flight parameters.

1017
Q

When is the AOA limit symbol displayed?

A

During any of the following:
* angle of attack is within 5° of stick shaker
* stick shaker is active
* windshear alerting with solid guidance cue displayed

These conditions indicate critical flight situations.

1018
Q

What is the pitch limit indicator (PLI) displayed relative to on the PFD?

A

The airplane reference symbol

The PLI provides similar information as the AOA limit symbol but is referenced differently.

1019
Q

What are the two symbols that make up the Slip/Skid symbology?

A

The roll scale slip/skid indicator and the flight path slip/skid indicator

These indicators help pilots assess the aircraft’s lateral control and stability.

1020
Q

What is the function of the flight path slip/skid indicator?

A

Displayed during takeoff or low-altitude go-around to provide additional yaw reference in case of engine failure

The sensitivity of the slip/skid indicators is enhanced at low altitude to increase awareness.

1021
Q

What does the ‘fly-to box’ indicate on the HUD?

A

Where the flight path vector symbol should be positioned to obtain vertical separation from traffic

It’s a double-lined box that directs an evasive maneuver.

1022
Q

What does the speed error tape show?

A

The difference between the indicated airspeed and the selected airspeed on the mode control panel

Selected airspeed on takeoff is V2, and flight director guidance airspeed is V2 + 15.

1023
Q

When is the speed error tape displayed?

A

Not displayed until the first flap retraction

This prevents incorrect interpretation of the speed error tape.

1024
Q

How does the position of the speed error tape indicate airspeed status?

A

Rises above the wing if indicated airspeed is faster than selected speed, falls below if slower

Each 1° length of tape represents approximately 5 knots of airspeed error, limited to a 15 knot error indication.

1025
Q

What does the flight path acceleration symbol ‘›’ indicate?

A

The inertial acceleration or deceleration of the airplane along the flight path

It reflects the total sum of all forces affecting the airplane.

1026
Q

Where is the flight path acceleration symbol positioned when the airplane is accelerating?

A

Above the wing of the flight path vector symbol

If below, the airplane is decelerating; if directly left, it’s in steady state.

1027
Q

What happens to the flight path acceleration symbol during low-level windshear detection?

A

Removed from the display when a low-level, decreasing performance windshear is detected below 400 feet AGL

This avoids confusion in controlling airplane thrust.

1028
Q

What does the glideslope reference line depict during approach?

A

The projected glideslope angle of the active approach

A horizontal dashed line across the HUD pitch scale with a numerical value displayed adjacent to it.

1029
Q

What is the purpose of the glideslope reference line during visual approaches?

A

To maintain a precise descent angle to the runway by overlaying the reference line on the runway touchdown zone

1030
Q

What do runway edge lines represent in the HUD?

A

A projection of an 8,000 foot long, 200 foot wide runway, displaying the calculated position of the runway

1031
Q

How is the runway centerline for the HUD runway edge lines determined?

A

Based on the localizer course, not the geographic orientation of the runway

1032
Q

When are runway edge lines displayed in decluttered mode?

A

Enabled at a radio altimeter altitude of 300 feet and removed at 60 feet

1033
Q

What happens if radio altitude is not available for the runway edge lines?

A

The system will use barometric altitude above touchdown

1034
Q

What inputs are necessary for the calculations of runway edge lines?

A
  • Selected course for ILS and GLS approach procedures
  • Pitch
  • Roll
  • Heading
  • Barometric altitude
  • Radio altimeter
  • Localizer deviation
  • Glideslope deviation
  • Glideslope angle and elevation from the FMS
1035
Q

What is the purpose of the ground deceleration rate scale?

A

To indicate the actual deceleration rate being achieved during landing or takeoff

1036
Q

When is the ground deceleration rate scale displayed?

A

Displayed when a deceleration is sensed on takeoff and groundspeed is above 50 knots

1037
Q

What happens to the ground deceleration rate scale when groundspeed decreases below 25 knots?

A

The scale is removed when groundspeed decreases below 25 knots, the airplane begins accelerating, or the airplane lifts off

1038
Q

What information do Primary Flight Displays (PFDs) provide?

A
  • Flight mode annunciation
  • Airspeed
  • Altitude
  • Vertical speed
  • Attitude
  • Radio altitude
  • Instrument landing system display
  • Approach minimums
  • Heading/track indications
  • Engine fail, GPWS, and PWS alerts
1039
Q

What is displayed on the mini-maps in the B787 cockpit?

A
  • Flight path
  • Flight plan waypoints with ID and constraints
  • Altitude profile points
  • Alternate airports
  • Runway information
  • TCAS targets
  • Terrain depiction and alert patterns
  • Weather radar return patterns
  • Heading/track indications

Mini-maps provide immediate target and threat information and are placed below the PFDs directly in front of each pilot.

1040
Q

What information is NOT displayed on the mini-maps?

A
  • Untuned navaids
  • Background waypoints
  • Background airports

For additional information, refer to ND Symbology in Chapter 10, Section 40.

1041
Q

What happens to displayed information during airplane system failures?

A

Displayed information is removed or replaced by dashes if no valid information is available to the display system.

Displays are removed when a source fails or when no system source information is available.

1042
Q

How is airspeed displayed on the PFD of the B787?

A
  • On a tape
  • In a digital window on the left side of the PFD
  • Current Mach number digitally displayed below the speed tape (if > 0.40)
  • Airspeed trend vector indicates predicted airspeed in 10 seconds
  • Selected airspeed displayed above the speed tape
  • Takeoff and landing reference speeds shown along the right edge
  • Maximum and minimum airspeeds also displayed along the right edge

Caution: Reduced manoeuvre capability exists when operating within the amber regions below the minimum manoeuvring speed or above the maximum manoeuvring speed.

1043
Q

What does an altitude trend vector indicate on the B787 PFD?

A

Predicted altitude in six seconds.

Altitude is displayed on an altitude tape along the right side of the PFD and digitally in a window in the middle of the tape.

1044
Q

Fill in the blank: The mini-maps in the B787 provide immediate target and threat information and are placed below the __________ directly in front of each pilot.

A

[PFDs]

1045
Q

True or False: The B787 mini-maps display information about background airports.

A

False

Mini-maps do not display untuned navaids, background waypoints, or background airports.

1046
Q

What does PFD stand for in aviation?

A

Primary Flight Display

The PFD provides essential flight data to pilots.

1047
Q

How quickly can the B787 display current altitude?

A

In six seconds

This rapid display helps pilots maintain situational awareness.

1048
Q

What is displayed above the altitude window when meters is selected on the EFIS control panel?

A

Current altitude in meters

This provides a clear indication of altitude in the metric system.

1049
Q

What indicates the selected altitude on the altitude tape?

A

A boxed display and a bug

The boxed display appears when approaching the selected altitude.

1050
Q

What is indicated by the triangular pointer and green line on the altitude tape?

A

Selected barometric approach minimum

This helps pilots identify the minimum altitude for safe landing.

1051
Q

What does the landing altitude reference bar indicate?

A

Height above touchdown

This aids in landing planning and execution.

1052
Q

What colors are used for the reference bar above landing altitude?

A

White and amber

White from 1000 to 500 feet, amber from 500 feet to landing altitude.

1053
Q

Where is the current barometric reference displayed?

A

Below the altitude tape

This provides pilots with the current setting for altitude calculations.

1054
Q

What does QNH signify in the context of landing reference?

A

Normal operating mode

QNH is used for altitude settings under standard atmospheric pressure.

1055
Q

What happens when QFE is selected for landing reference?

A

Destination landing altitude indication is set to zero altitude

This allows pilots to manage landing altitude more effectively.

1056
Q

What background color does the altitude tape change to when QFE is selected?

A

Green

This visual cue helps pilots recognize the change in altitude reference.

1057
Q

What is displayed to the right of the altitude tape?

A

Vertical speed

Vertical speed helps pilots monitor their rate of climb or descent.

1058
Q

How is vertical speed displayed when greater than 400 feet per minute?

A

Digitally above or below the vertical speed display

Positive vertical speed is shown above, while negative is below.

1059
Q

What does the attitude indication display?

A

Airplane pitch and roll attitude referenced to the horizon

This is crucial for maintaining controlled flight.

1060
Q

What increments are used for pitch attitude display?

A

2.5° increments

This provides precise information on the aircraft’s pitch.

1061
Q

What indicates bank angle in the attitude display?

A

Pointer and single marks

The pointer indicates increments of 10°, 20°, and 30°, with single marks for 45° and 60°.

1062
Q

What is indicated when the flaps are up at low speeds?

A

Pitch limit indication

This serves as a warning to prevent stalling.

1063
Q

What is displayed when the flight director switch is on?

A

Flight director steering indications

The flight director steering indications help pilots navigate by providing guidance on flight path adjustments.

1064
Q

Where are TCAS resolution advisories displayed?

A

In the attitude indication area

TCAS stands for Traffic Collision Avoidance System, which helps prevent mid-air collisions.

1065
Q

What does the flight path vector (FPV) symbol represent?

A

Airplane flight path angle vertically and drift angle laterally

The FPV is a critical indicator for pilots to understand their current flight trajectory.

1066
Q

When is the flight path vector displayed on the PFD?

A

When the EFIS control panel FPV switch is selected on or the MCP FPA reference switch is selected on

EFIS stands for Electronic Flight Instrument System, and MCP stands for Mode Control Panel.

1067
Q

What does the flight path angle (FPA) symbol show?

A

Selected flight path angle

The FPA is essential for maintaining the desired altitude and angle of descent or climb.

1068
Q

How do the FPV and FPA symbols differ in display size and brightness?

A

Large, bright symbols when flight director is off; small, dim symbols when flight director is on

This differentiation helps pilots quickly identify the status of the flight director.

1069
Q

Where is the current radio altitude displayed?

A

In the bottom center of the attitude indication area when below 2,500 feet AGL

AGL stands for Above Ground Level, which is important for terrain clearance.

1070
Q

What do navigation performance scales and pointers display?

A

Real-time display of the location of the LNAV and VNAV path relative to the airplane

LNAV stands for Lateral Navigation, and VNAV stands for Vertical Navigation.

1071
Q

What does the center index on navigation performance scales represent?

A

The airplane position

This helps pilots determine their current location relative to the desired navigation path.

1072
Q

What happens if the deviation pointer moves into an ANP bar for 5 continuous seconds?

A

ANP bars and scale turn amber and the pointer flashes for 10 seconds

ANP stands for Actual Navigation Performance, indicating potential navigation issues.

1073
Q

What indicates that the ANP equals or exceeds RNP?

A

The ANP bars touch at the center of the scale, turning amber, and the deviation pointer flashes for 10 seconds

RNP stands for Required Navigation Performance, which is a standard for navigation accuracy.

1074
Q

Fill in the blank: The deviation represented by the distance from the center index to the outer index is equal to the _______.

A

RNP value in the FMC

FMC stands for Flight Management Computer, which calculates navigation performance.

1075
Q

What is displayed when the flight director switch is on?

A

Flight director steering indications

The flight director steering indications help pilots navigate by providing guidance on flight path adjustments.

1076
Q

Where are TCAS resolution advisories displayed?

A

In the attitude indication area

TCAS stands for Traffic Collision Avoidance System, which helps prevent mid-air collisions.

1077
Q

What does the flight path vector (FPV) symbol represent?

A

Airplane flight path angle vertically and drift angle laterally

The FPV is a critical indicator for pilots to understand their current flight trajectory.

1078
Q

When is the flight path vector displayed on the PFD?

A

When the EFIS control panel FPV switch is selected on or the MCP FPA reference switch is selected on

EFIS stands for Electronic Flight Instrument System, and MCP stands for Mode Control Panel.

1079
Q

What does the flight path angle (FPA) symbol show?

A

Selected flight path angle

The FPA is essential for maintaining the desired altitude and angle of descent or climb.

1080
Q

How do the FPV and FPA symbols differ in display size and brightness?

A

Large, bright symbols when flight director is off; small, dim symbols when flight director is on

This differentiation helps pilots quickly identify the status of the flight director.

1081
Q

Where is the current radio altitude displayed?

A

In the bottom center of the attitude indication area when below 2,500 feet AGL

AGL stands for Above Ground Level, which is important for terrain clearance.

1082
Q

What do navigation performance scales and pointers display?

A

Real-time display of the location of the LNAV and VNAV path relative to the airplane

LNAV stands for Lateral Navigation, and VNAV stands for Vertical Navigation.

1083
Q

What does the center index on navigation performance scales represent?

A

The airplane position

This helps pilots determine their current location relative to the desired navigation path.

1084
Q

What happens if the deviation pointer moves into an ANP bar for 5 continuous seconds?

A

ANP bars and scale turn amber and the pointer flashes for 10 seconds

ANP stands for Actual Navigation Performance, indicating potential navigation issues.

1085
Q

What indicates that the ANP equals or exceeds RNP?

A

The ANP bars touch at the center of the scale, turning amber, and the deviation pointer flashes for 10 seconds

RNP stands for Required Navigation Performance, which is a standard for navigation accuracy.

1086
Q

Fill in the blank: The deviation represented by the distance from the center index to the outer index is equal to the _______.

A

RNP value in the FMC

FMC stands for Flight Management Computer, which calculates navigation performance.

1087
Q

What does ILS stand for?

A

Instrument Landing System

1088
Q

What type of deviations does the ILS provide indications for?

A

Glideslope and localizer deviation

1089
Q

Where does the approach reference information appear on the PFD?

A

Above and to the left of the attitude display

1090
Q

What is displayed in the upper right corner of the attitude display area?

A

Marker beacon indication (OM, IM, MM)

1091
Q

What information does the glideslope pointer and scale provide?

A

Glideslope deviation indications

1092
Q

What does IAN stand for?

A

Integrated Approach Navigation

1093
Q

What information does the FMC provide in IAN mode?

A

Glidepath and FAC deviation, approach identifier, distance, and course

1094
Q

What happens when a valid IAN approach procedure is selected?

A

IAN glidepath and FAC deviation indications and alerts are displayed

1095
Q

What are approach minimums shown near on the altitude display?

A

Radio altitude or barometric approach minimums

1096
Q

Where is the selected heading/track information displayed on the PFD?

A

In the bottom section of the mini-map

1097
Q

What does the MCP selected heading bug indicate?

A

The selected heading on the compass rose

1098
Q

What is displayed under the pointer at the top of the compass rose?

A

Current track

1099
Q

What type of alerts are displayed in large capital letters on the PFD?

A

Engine fail, GPWS, and PWS alerts

1100
Q

Fill in the blank: The IAN approach procedure deviations are not available with _______ selected in the FMC.

A

QFE

1101
Q

True or False: The current heading/track reference can be shown as MAG or TRU.

A

True

1102
Q

What does GPWS stand for?

A

Ground Proximity Warning System

1103
Q

What does PWS stand for?

A

Predictive Wind Shear

1104
Q

What is the function of the heading or track display based on?

A

The position of the MCP HDG/TRK reference switch

1105
Q

What visual representation depicts the current airplane track on the PFD?

A

A line drawn perpendicular to the edge of the compass rose

1106
Q

What does PFD stand for in aviation?

A

Primary Flight Display

The PFD provides essential flight information to pilots.

1107
Q

Where are engine fail, GPWS, and PWS alerts displayed?

A

In large capital letters between the attitude display and the heading/track compass rose

GPWS stands for Ground Proximity Warning System, and PWS stands for Predictive Wind Shear.

1108
Q

What are the typical phases of flight where PFD configurations are used?

A
  • Climb
  • Cruise
  • Descent
  • Approach
  • Landing

The autopilot is engaged with LNAV and VNAV active during these phases.

1109
Q

What modes are used during approach and landing on the PFD?

A

AFDS approach mode

AFDS stands for Autopilot Flight Director System.

1110
Q

What does LNAV stand for?

A

Lateral Navigation

LNAV assists in lateral flight path management.

1111
Q

What does VNAV stand for?

A

Vertical Navigation

VNAV assists in vertical flight path management.

1112
Q

Fill in the blank: Alerts displayed on the PFD include _______ alerts.

A

engine fail, GPWS, and PWS

Alerts are critical for pilot awareness and safety.

1113
Q

True or False: The autopilot is not engaged during the approach phase.

A

False

The autopilot is typically engaged during the approach phase.

1114
Q

What is the function of the attitude display on the PFD?

A

Displays the aircraft’s orientation relative to the horizon

This is vital for maintaining controlled flight.

1115
Q

What are the two primary modes of the Navigation Displays (NDs) in the B787?

A

MAP and PLAN modes

The MAP mode is primarily recommended for most phases of flight.

1116
Q

What information is displayed in the MAP mode of the Navigation Displays?

A
  • Selected and current track
  • Selected and current heading
  • Position trend vector
  • Range to selected altitude
  • Map range scale
  • Groundspeed
  • True airspeed
  • Wind direction and speed
  • Next waypoint distance
  • Waypoint estimated time of arrival
  • Selected navigation data points

The MAP mode shows airplane position relative to the route of flight against a moving map background.

1117
Q

In which orientation is the MAP mode displayed?

A

Track-up

This orientation shows the airplane’s position relative to the route.

1118
Q

How can the MAP mode be switched in the B787?

A

Between expanded mode and centered mode

Expanded mode includes a partial compass rose, while centered mode features a full compass rose.

1119
Q

What is the orientation of the PLAN mode in the Navigation Displays?

A

True north up

This mode allows viewing the active route using the STEP prompt on the CDU LEGS pages.

1120
Q

What additional navigation facilities can be displayed on the ND?

A
  • Center map modes
  • Additional navigation facility (STA)
  • Waypoint (WPT)
  • Airport (ARPT)
  • Route progress (DATA)
  • Position (POS) data

These can be shown in both expanded and PLAN modes.

1121
Q

What is the purpose of the Navigation Displays (NDs) in the B787?

A

To provide a mode-selectable color flight progress display

This display aids pilots in navigation and situational awareness.

1122
Q

Fill in the blank: The MAP mode can be switched between an expanded mode with a partial compass rose and a ______ mode with a full compass rose.

A

centered

This functionality enhances the pilot’s situational awareness during flight.

1123
Q

What are the two primary modes of the Navigation Displays (NDs) in the B787?

A

MAP and PLAN modes

The MAP mode is primarily recommended for most phases of flight.

1124
Q

What information is displayed in the MAP mode of the Navigation Displays?

A
  • Selected and current track
  • Selected and current heading
  • Position trend vector
  • Range to selected altitude
  • Map range scale
  • Groundspeed
  • True airspeed
  • Wind direction and speed
  • Next waypoint distance
  • Waypoint estimated time of arrival
  • Selected navigation data points

The MAP mode shows airplane position relative to the route of flight against a moving map background.

1125
Q

In which orientation is the MAP mode displayed?

A

Track-up

This orientation shows the airplane’s position relative to the route.

1126
Q

How can the MAP mode be switched in the B787?

A

Between expanded mode and centered mode

Expanded mode includes a partial compass rose, while centered mode features a full compass rose.

1127
Q

What is the orientation of the PLAN mode in the Navigation Displays?

A

True north up

This mode allows viewing the active route using the STEP prompt on the CDU LEGS pages.

1128
Q

What additional navigation facilities can be displayed on the ND?

A
  • Center map modes
  • Additional navigation facility (STA)
  • Waypoint (WPT)
  • Airport (ARPT)
  • Route progress (DATA)
  • Position (POS) data

These can be shown in both expanded and PLAN modes.

1129
Q

What is the purpose of the Navigation Displays (NDs) in the B787?

A

To provide a mode-selectable color flight progress display

This display aids pilots in navigation and situational awareness.

1130
Q

Fill in the blank: The MAP mode can be switched between an expanded mode with a partial compass rose and a ______ mode with a full compass rose.

A

centered

This functionality enhances the pilot’s situational awareness during flight.

1131
Q

What is supplied by the FMC or IRS for the Heading on the Navigation Display?

A

Heading

The HEADING REF switch is used to manually select magnetic or true reference.

1132
Q

How can the ND compass rose be referenced?

A

To magnetic north or true north

The compass display is automatically referenced to true north when the airplane enters the polar regions.

1133
Q

What information is supplied by the FMC during normal operation for Track?

A

Track

In alternative navigation, Track is supplied by the IRS.

1134
Q

What system provides traffic information that can be displayed on the ND?

A

TCAS

Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) is referenced for additional information.

1135
Q

What type of information can the Weather Radar display on the ND?

A

Weather radar information

Refer to Weather Radar in Chapter 11, Section 20 for additional information.

1136
Q

What does the Airport Map integrated with the ND consist of?

A

Runways, taxiways, aprons, and buildings

The FMC provides the position of the airplane.

1137
Q

Under what conditions is the Airport Map automatically displayed?

A
  • The airport is either the ORIGIN or DESTINATION airport
  • The airport is in the Airport Map database
  • The ND range is 5 NM or less
  • The ANP value is 0.02 NM or less
1138
Q

In which modes can the Airport Map be displayed?

A

Track-up mode (MAP) or north-up mode (PLAN)

The Airport Map may be displayed at various ranges including 5 NM, 2 NM, 1 NM, and 0.5 NM.

1139
Q

What happens to the Airport Map display when weather radar is selected?

A

Only runways and taxiways are shown with associated identifiers and markers

This occurs even if there are no radar returns.

1140
Q

What does the Vertical Situation Display (VSD) present?

A

A profile view of the airplane and its environment

1141
Q

How is information shown within the VSD’s enroute corridor depicted?

A

In profile on the VSD

1142
Q

How does a pilot select the VSD display?

A

From the map information selections on the MAP mode drop-down menu

1143
Q

What type of information does the VSD depict?

A

Terrain and waypoint information within the enroute corridor on the ND

1144
Q

What is the relationship between the VSD range and the ND range?

A

The VSD range is a function of the ND range, depicted on the horizontal reference scale

1145
Q

What is the normal-display VSD range compared to the ND?

A

It has the same range as the ND except when the ND range is less than 5 NM

1146
Q

What is the full-display VSD range?

A

Twice the range of the ND, from 10 NM to 2560 NM

1147
Q

What is the altitude reference scale linked to?

A

The VSD range and is not independently adjustable

1148
Q

What glidepath does the VSD depict up to an 80NM range?

A

A consistent 3° glidepath

1149
Q

What altitude is shown on the VSD?

A

The same as the selected altitude shown on the on-side PFD

1150
Q

What do failure flags indicate?

A

System failures or invalid information

1151
Q

What happens to indications when source system information is not available?

A

Indications are removed or replaced by dashes

1152
Q

What message is displayed if the amount of information sent to the ND exceeds the display capability?

A

EXCESS DATA

1153
Q

How does the primary display system respond when the EXCESS DATA message appears?

A

It removes information from the center of the display outward

1154
Q

What remains displayed when EXCESS DATA occurs?

A

Information near the outer selected range area

1155
Q

What actions can remove the EXCESS DATA message?

A

[”* Reducing the amount of map information”, “* Reducing range”, “* Deselecting one or more map information selections (STA, WPT, ARPT, DATA, POS)”]

1156
Q

What does WXR stand for in typical ND map displays?

A

Weather radar

1157
Q

What does the Vertical Situation Display (VSD) present?

A

A profile view of the airplane and its environment

1158
Q

How is information shown within the VSD’s enroute corridor depicted?

A

In profile on the VSD

1159
Q

How does a pilot select the VSD display?

A

From the map information selections on the MAP mode drop-down menu

1160
Q

What type of information does the VSD depict?

A

Terrain and waypoint information within the enroute corridor on the ND

1161
Q

What is the relationship between the VSD range and the ND range?

A

The VSD range is a function of the ND range, depicted on the horizontal reference scale

1162
Q

What is the normal-display VSD range compared to the ND?

A

It has the same range as the ND except when the ND range is less than 5 NM

1163
Q

What is the full-display VSD range?

A

Twice the range of the ND, from 10 NM to 2560 NM

1164
Q

What is the altitude reference scale linked to?

A

The VSD range and is not independently adjustable

1165
Q

What glidepath does the VSD depict up to an 80NM range?

A

A consistent 3° glidepath

1166
Q

What altitude is shown on the VSD?

A

The same as the selected altitude shown on the on-side PFD

1167
Q

What do failure flags indicate?

A

System failures or invalid information

1168
Q

What happens to indications when source system information is not available?

A

Indications are removed or replaced by dashes

1169
Q

What message is displayed if the amount of information sent to the ND exceeds the display capability?

A

EXCESS DATA

1170
Q

How does the primary display system respond when the EXCESS DATA message appears?

A

It removes information from the center of the display outward

1171
Q

What remains displayed when EXCESS DATA occurs?

A

Information near the outer selected range area

1172
Q

What actions can remove the EXCESS DATA message?

A

[”* Reducing the amount of map information”, “* Reducing range”, “* Deselecting one or more map information selections (STA, WPT, ARPT, DATA, POS)”]

1173
Q

What does WXR stand for in typical ND map displays?

A

Weather radar

1174
Q

What color indicates present status and range scales on the ND?

A

W (white)

Indicates current operational status and the range scales being used.

1175
Q

What does the color green (G) represent on the ND?

A

Dynamic conditions

Reflects real-time changes in flight conditions.

1176
Q

What information does the color magenta (M) convey on the ND?

A

Command information, pointers, symbols, fly-to condition

Used for navigation commands and guidance.

1177
Q

What does cyan (C) represent in ND symbology?

A

Nonactive or background information

Indicates data that is not currently active.

1178
Q

What do amber (A) symbols indicate on the ND?

A

Cautions, faults, flags

Alerts the crew to potential issues that require attention.

1179
Q

What does the color red (R) signify on the ND?

A

Warnings

Indicates critical issues that require immediate action.

1180
Q

In ND symbology, what does the track orientation indicate?

A

G (current track), W (track reference)

Displays the current flight path and its reference.

1181
Q

What does the selected heading/track symbol represent?

A

M (selected heading/track), G (heading/track reference)

Shows the pilot’s selected navigation course.

1182
Q

What does the mini-map display in MAP and MAP CTR modes?

A

TRK as orientation, current track, MAG or TRU as reference

Provides a smaller scale view of the current track.

1183
Q

What is displayed when above 70° latitude on the ND?

A

GRID heading

Indicates the heading reference system used in extreme latitudes.

1184
Q

Fill in the blank: On the ND, W indicates _______.

A

present status, range scales

1185
Q

True or False: The color red on the ND indicates dynamic conditions.

A

False

Red indicates warnings, not dynamic conditions.

1186
Q

What color indicates present status and range scales on the ND?

A

W (white)

Indicates current operational status and the range scales being used.

1187
Q

What does the color green (G) represent on the ND?

A

Dynamic conditions

Reflects real-time changes in flight conditions.

1188
Q

What information does the color magenta (M) convey on the ND?

A

Command information, pointers, symbols, fly-to condition

Used for navigation commands and guidance.

1189
Q

What does cyan (C) represent in ND symbology?

A

Nonactive or background information

Indicates data that is not currently active.

1190
Q

What do amber (A) symbols indicate on the ND?

A

Cautions, faults, flags

Alerts the crew to potential issues that require attention.

1191
Q

What does the color red (R) signify on the ND?

A

Warnings

Indicates critical issues that require immediate action.

1192
Q

In ND symbology, what does the track orientation indicate?

A

G (current track), W (track reference)

Displays the current flight path and its reference.

1193
Q

What does the selected heading/track symbol represent?

A

M (selected heading/track), G (heading/track reference)

Shows the pilot’s selected navigation course.

1194
Q

What does the mini-map display in MAP and MAP CTR modes?

A

TRK as orientation, current track, MAG or TRU as reference

Provides a smaller scale view of the current track.

1195
Q

What is displayed when above 70° latitude on the ND?

A

GRID heading

Indicates the heading reference system used in extreme latitudes.

1196
Q

Fill in the blank: On the ND, W indicates _______.

A

present status, range scales

1197
Q

True or False: The color red on the ND indicates dynamic conditions.

A

False

Red indicates warnings, not dynamic conditions.

1198
Q

What does the ‘Time to align’ indicator show?

A

Indicates time remaining for IRU alignment.

Replaces wind direction/speed and wind arrow, on the ground, during alignment.

1199
Q

What does the selected heading bug indicate?

A

Displays the MCP-selected heading.

A dashed line may extend from the marker to the airplane symbol.

1200
Q

What happens to the dashed line in MAP mode with LNAV, LOC, or ROLLOUT active when the selected heading bug is moved?

A

The dashed line is removed 10 seconds after the selected heading bug is moved.

1201
Q

What does the selected track bug indicate?

A

Displays the MCP-selected track.

A dashed line may extend from the marker to the airplane symbol.

1202
Q

What does the track line and range scale display?

A

Indicates current track and number indicates range.

1203
Q

What does the heading/track reference box indicate?

A

Indicates heading/track is referenced to magnetic north or true north.

Switching from TRU to MAG displays a box around MAG for 10 seconds.

1204
Q

What does the current heading pointer show?

A

Points to current heading on the compass rose.

1205
Q

What does the ground speed indicator display?

A

Current groundspeed.

1206
Q

What does the true airspeed indicator show above 100 knots?

A

Current true airspeed.

1207
Q

Fill in the blank: The _______ indicates the time remaining for IRU alignment.

A

Time to align

1208
Q

True or False: The current true airspeed is displayed below 100 knots.

A

False

The true airspeed is displayed above 100 knots.

1209
Q

What does TAS stand for in the context of navigation displays?

A

True airspeed

True airspeed is crucial for understanding an aircraft’s actual speed relative to the air mass.

1210
Q

What information does the wind direction/speed arrow indicate?

A

Wind bearing, speed, and direction

This information is displayed with respect to the navigation display’s orientation and heading/track reference.

1211
Q

In which display mode is the wind arrow not shown?

A

PLAN mode

The PLAN mode focuses on route planning rather than real-time navigation data.

1212
Q

What is indicated by the left and right VOR pointer heads and tails?

A

Bearing to or from the tuned station

This is relevant when the VOR is selected on the respective MAP or MAP CTR drop-down menu.

1213
Q

Which navigation aids are displayed when the STA key is selected?

A

VOR, DME/TACAN, VORTAC

These aids help pilots navigate by providing distance and radial information.

1214
Q

What color are tuned VHF navaids displayed in?

A

Green

This color coding helps pilots quickly identify active navigation aids.

1215
Q

What does the MAP mode display?

A

Current true airspeed above 100 knots

This information is essential for pilots to manage speed during flight.

1216
Q

Fill in the blank: The VOR/DME raw data shows radial and _______.

A

Distance

This data is critical for determining the aircraft’s position relative to the navigation aid.

1217
Q

Where is the VOR L, R indicator located on the navigation display?

A

Lower left or right corner

The positioning helps pilots quickly reference navigation information.

1218
Q

True or False: The selected course and reciprocal are displayed when a navaid is manually tuned.

A

True

This feature assists the pilot in navigating accurately to or from a specific point.

1219
Q

What does the ND Mode MAP CTR refer to?

A

Centered map display mode

This mode emphasizes the current position of the aircraft on the map.

1220
Q

What does TAS stand for in the context of navigation displays?

A

True airspeed

True airspeed is crucial for understanding an aircraft’s actual speed relative to the air mass.

1221
Q

What information does the wind direction/speed arrow indicate?

A

Wind bearing, speed, and direction

This information is displayed with respect to the navigation display’s orientation and heading/track reference.

1222
Q

In which display mode is the wind arrow not shown?

A

PLAN mode

The PLAN mode focuses on route planning rather than real-time navigation data.

1223
Q

What is indicated by the left and right VOR pointer heads and tails?

A

Bearing to or from the tuned station

This is relevant when the VOR is selected on the respective MAP or MAP CTR drop-down menu.

1224
Q

Which navigation aids are displayed when the STA key is selected?

A

VOR, DME/TACAN, VORTAC

These aids help pilots navigate by providing distance and radial information.

1225
Q

What color are tuned VHF navaids displayed in?

A

Green

This color coding helps pilots quickly identify active navigation aids.

1226
Q

What does the MAP mode display?

A

Current true airspeed above 100 knots

This information is essential for pilots to manage speed during flight.

1227
Q

Fill in the blank: The VOR/DME raw data shows radial and _______.

A

Distance

This data is critical for determining the aircraft’s position relative to the navigation aid.

1228
Q

Where is the VOR L, R indicator located on the navigation display?

A

Lower left or right corner

The positioning helps pilots quickly reference navigation information.

1229
Q

True or False: The selected course and reciprocal are displayed when a navaid is manually tuned.

A

True

This feature assists the pilot in navigating accurately to or from a specific point.

1230
Q

What does the ND Mode MAP CTR refer to?

A

Centered map display mode

This mode emphasizes the current position of the aircraft on the map.

1231
Q

What is displayed before the identifier in the VOR frequency on the navigation display?

A

Frequency

Frequency is displayed before the identifier, which is then decoded.

1232
Q

What does a small ‘sta’ character indicate on the navigation display?

A

Only DME information is being received

DME stands for Distance Measuring Equipment.

1233
Q

What does DME distance indicate on the navigation display?

A

Distance to the referenced navaid

‘navaid’ refers to navigational aid.

1234
Q

What does the airplane symbol represent on the navigation display?

A

Current airplane position

The airplane position is represented at the apex of the triangle.

1235
Q

What color is displayed when ANP exceeds RNP on the navigation display?

A

Amber

ANP stands for Actual Navigation Performance, while RNP stands for Required Navigation Performance.

1236
Q

What does the position trend vector on the navigation display predict?

A

Position at the end of 30, 60, and 90 second intervals

The trend vector is represented by a dashed line.

1237
Q

What determines the number of segments displayed in the position trend vector?

A

Selected range

The segments are based on bank angle and groundspeed.

1238
Q

How many segments are shown when the range is greater than 20 NM?

A

3 segments

For a range of 20 NM, 2 segments are displayed, and for 10 NM, 1 segment is shown.

1239
Q

What is unique about the mini-map in relation to the trend vector segments?

A

Always shows 3 segments even though range is always 20 NM

The mini-map maintains a constant display of segments.

1240
Q

What do the lateral path deviation values indicate on the navigation display?

A

Lateral path deviation distance

Values are displayed for both ANP and RNP.

1241
Q

What is displayed before the identifier in the VOR frequency on the navigation display?

A

Frequency

Frequency is displayed before the identifier, which is then decoded.

1242
Q

What does a small ‘sta’ character indicate on the navigation display?

A

Only DME information is being received

DME stands for Distance Measuring Equipment.

1243
Q

What does DME distance indicate on the navigation display?

A

Distance to the referenced navaid

‘navaid’ refers to navigational aid.

1244
Q

What does the airplane symbol represent on the navigation display?

A

Current airplane position

The airplane position is represented at the apex of the triangle.

1245
Q

What color is displayed when ANP exceeds RNP on the navigation display?

A

Amber

ANP stands for Actual Navigation Performance, while RNP stands for Required Navigation Performance.

1246
Q

What does the position trend vector on the navigation display predict?

A

Position at the end of 30, 60, and 90 second intervals

The trend vector is represented by a dashed line.

1247
Q

What determines the number of segments displayed in the position trend vector?

A

Selected range

The segments are based on bank angle and groundspeed.

1248
Q

How many segments are shown when the range is greater than 20 NM?

A

3 segments

For a range of 20 NM, 2 segments are displayed, and for 10 NM, 1 segment is shown.

1249
Q

What is unique about the mini-map in relation to the trend vector segments?

A

Always shows 3 segments even though range is always 20 NM

The mini-map maintains a constant display of segments.

1250
Q

What do the lateral path deviation values indicate on the navigation display?

A

Lateral path deviation distance

Values are displayed for both ANP and RNP.

1251
Q

What does the airplane symbol (W) indicate in the navigation display?

A

Indicates actual position and track along the flight plan route.

Symbol changes to a circle north of 82N latitude and south of 82S latitude.

1252
Q

What do the symbols ‘active (M)’ and ‘inactive (W)’ represent in the navigation display?

A

Active (M) represents the waypoint the airplane is currently navigating to, while inactive (W) represents the waypoints on the active route.

1253
Q

What happens when the PICK WPT key is selected on the navigation display?

A

The letters ‘LAT’ and ‘LONG’ are removed when the cursor highlights a waypoint, airport, or navaid.

1254
Q

What is displayed when a visible route waypoint is passed over by the cursor?

A

Displayed waypoint name if visible, otherwise displays latitude and longitude.

1255
Q

What does the abbreviation ‘LAT’ stand for in the context of the navigation display?

A

Latitude.

1256
Q

What does the abbreviation ‘LONG’ stand for in the context of the navigation display?

A

Longitude.

1257
Q

When is the latitude and longitude displayed in the navigation display?

A

Displayed after a waypoint is selected when PICK WPT cursor is active and if the waypoint, airport, or navigation aid is not selected.

1258
Q

Fill in the blank: The navigation display shows the airplane’s actual position and track along the flight plan route using an _______.

A

airplane symbol (W).

1259
Q

True or False: The airplane symbol changes to a circle at latitudes above 82N and below 82S.

A

True.

1260
Q

What does the cursor indicate when it highlights a waypoint in the navigation display?

A

It indicates the selected waypoint name or displays latitude and longitude if not visible.

1261
Q

What does the cursor shape indicate in Center on Cursor mode?

A

Displayed when Center on CURSOR key is selected

Refers to the visual representation when the cursor is activated on the navigation display.

1262
Q

What does the term ‘Off route waypoint’ signify?

A

Waypoints not on the selected route displayed in ND ranges of 10, 20, or 40

Indicates waypoints that are available but not part of the current flight plan.

1263
Q

How is the active flight plan route represented on the navigation display?

A

Displayed with a continuous line (M) between waypoints

The continuous line visually indicates the current active route in the flight plan.

1264
Q

What does a modified route look like on the navigation display?

A

Displayed with short dashes (W) between waypoints

Indicates that the route has been altered but is still in use.

1265
Q

What visual representation indicates an inactive route?

A

Displayed with long dashes (C) between waypoints

Shows routes that are not currently active in the flight plan.

1266
Q

What is the purpose of the offset path and identifier on the navigation display?

A

Presents a dashed line parallel to and offset from the active or modified route

This feature helps pilots visualize alternate paths or deviations from the current route.

1267
Q

What route data is shown when the DATA key is selected?

A

Entered or procedural altitude and ETAs for route waypoints

This data assists in flight planning and monitoring progress.

1268
Q

Fill in the blank: The active route modifications are displayed with _______ between waypoints.

A

short dashes (W)

Indicates changes made to the active route during flight.

1269
Q

True or False: Inactive routes are displayed with a continuous line on the navigation display.

A

False

Inactive routes are represented with long dashes, not continuous lines.

1270
Q

What does the active waypoint identifier (M) indicate?

A

The active waypoint identifier in the navigation display indicates the next waypoint on the route of flight.

It is displayed on line IL. of the FMC-CDU ACT RTE LEGS page 1.

1271
Q

What information does the active waypoint data block provide?

A

The active waypoint data block provides:
* Active waypoint identifier (M)
* Distance to active waypoint (W)
* Active waypoint ETA (W)

The ETA is based on distance to go and ground speed.

1272
Q

Fill in the blank: When the DATA key is selected, entered or procedural altitude and ETAs for route waypoints are displayed based on _______.

A

[distance to go and ground speed]

1273
Q

True or False: The ETA times displayed on the navigation system consider FMC performance predictions.

A

False

The times do not consider FMC performance predictions and may differ from other FMC ETAs.

1274
Q

What does the altitude range arc (G) indicate on the navigation display?

A

The altitude range arc indicates the approximate map position where the MCP altitude will be reached.

MCP stands for Mode Control Panel.

1275
Q

What is the significance of the T/C and T/D points displayed on the navigation map?

A

T/C (top-of-climb) and T/D (top-of-descent) points indicate the approximate map position of these calculated altitude change points.

These points are calculated by the FMC.

1276
Q

What does the range readout (W) show?

A

The range readout shows the current selected range on the navigation display.

This is crucial for situational awareness during flight.

1277
Q

What are deceleration points on the navigation display?

A

Deceleration points indicate the approximate map position for FMC calculated speed settings without an identifier.

These points help pilots manage speed during descent.

1278
Q

What is the purpose of the speed profile point and settings (G) on the navigation display?

A

The speed profile point and settings indicate the approximate map position for FMC calculated speed settings.

These settings are calculated to ensure the aircraft remains on speed.

1279
Q

What do predicted altitude/ETA points display when entered on the FIX page?

A

Predicted altitude/ETA points display the altitude/ETA along with the profile point.

This information aids in altitude management during flight.

1280
Q

What does the active waypoint identifier (M) indicate?

A

The active waypoint identifier in the navigation display indicates the next waypoint on the route of flight.

It is displayed on line IL. of the FMC-CDU ACT RTE LEGS page 1.

1281
Q

What information does the active waypoint data block provide?

A

The active waypoint data block provides:
* Active waypoint identifier (M)
* Distance to active waypoint (W)
* Active waypoint ETA (W)

The ETA is based on distance to go and ground speed.

1282
Q

Fill in the blank: When the DATA key is selected, entered or procedural altitude and ETAs for route waypoints are displayed based on _______.

A

[distance to go and ground speed]

1283
Q

True or False: The ETA times displayed on the navigation system consider FMC performance predictions.

A

False

The times do not consider FMC performance predictions and may differ from other FMC ETAs.

1284
Q

What does the altitude range arc (G) indicate on the navigation display?

A

The altitude range arc indicates the approximate map position where the MCP altitude will be reached.

MCP stands for Mode Control Panel.

1285
Q

What is the significance of the T/C and T/D points displayed on the navigation map?

A

T/C (top-of-climb) and T/D (top-of-descent) points indicate the approximate map position of these calculated altitude change points.

These points are calculated by the FMC.

1286
Q

What does the range readout (W) show?

A

The range readout shows the current selected range on the navigation display.

This is crucial for situational awareness during flight.

1287
Q

What are deceleration points on the navigation display?

A

Deceleration points indicate the approximate map position for FMC calculated speed settings without an identifier.

These points help pilots manage speed during descent.

1288
Q

What is the purpose of the speed profile point and settings (G) on the navigation display?

A

The speed profile point and settings indicate the approximate map position for FMC calculated speed settings.

These settings are calculated to ensure the aircraft remains on speed.

1289
Q

What do predicted altitude/ETA points display when entered on the FIX page?

A

Predicted altitude/ETA points display the altitude/ETA along with the profile point.

This information aids in altitude management during flight.

1290
Q

What does the ND symbology indicate regarding the speed profile point and settings?

A

Indicates the approximate map position for FMC calculated speed settings

Position and settings are calculated to be on speed, on path, and on time at the final approach fix.

1291
Q

What flap settings are indicated on the ND symbology?

A

Flap settings for flaps 1, 5, and 20

Position and settings are calculated to be on speed, on path, and on time at the final approach fix.

1292
Q

What does the ATC conditional clearance point symbolize on the ND?

A

Indicates the FMC calculated map position where the airplane should comply with an ATC conditional clearance

Symbol is removed when the conditional clearance is met.

1293
Q

During which flight phase is the vertical deviation from the selected VNAV PATH displayed?

A

FMC descent phase of flight

Scale indicates # 400 feet deviation.

1294
Q

What does the path deviation band represent on the ND?

A

Represents vertical RNP

Path deviation band is symmetric about the pointer.

1295
Q

What happens when ANP exceeds RNP on the ND?

A

The ANP/RNP labels and values are displayed in amber

Displayed only during FMC descent phase of flight.

1296
Q

When is the airport and runway information displayed on the ND?

A

When selected as the origin or destination

Displayed on MAP, MAP CTR, PLAN.

1297
Q

Fill in the blank: The VNAV path pointer indicates _______.

A

[M] and deviation scale [W].

1298
Q

True or False: The flap speed profile point and settings are indicated for all flap settings.

A

False

Flap setting is indicated only for flaps 1, 5, and 20.

1299
Q

What does the digital display on the ND indicate during descent?

A

Provided when the pointer indicates more than # 20 feet

Displays vertical deviation from selected VNAV PATH.

1300
Q

What are the types of displays used in the B787 Navigation Displays?

A

MAP, MAP CTR, PLAN

These displays are utilized to show various navigation information.

1301
Q

What information is displayed when the ARPT key is selected?

A

Origin and destination airports

This information is always displayed regardless of map switch selection.

1302
Q

What do the energy management circles indicate in the B787 Navigation Displays?

A

Clean (C) and speedbrake (W) energy management circles

These circles are defined on the CDU OFFPATH DES page.

1303
Q

What does the FMC position update status indicate?

A

The system providing FMC position update

It can include systems like GPS, DME-DME, VOR-DME, LOC, and INERTIAL.

1304
Q

What is displayed when a reference point is selected on the CDU FIX page?

A

Bearing and/or distance from the fix

This information is displayed with dashes.

1305
Q

Fill in the blank: The B787 Navigation Displays show energy management circles as defined on the _______ page.

A

[CDU OFFPATH DES]

This page contains information related to the flight path and energy management.

1306
Q

True or False: The dashed runway centerlines extend 14.2 NM in the B787 Navigation Displays.

A

True

This information aids in runway awareness during approach.

1307
Q

What ND range options display the selected reference point and bearing distance information?

A

80, 160, 320, or 640 NM

This is applicable when selected as the origin or destination.

1308
Q

What are the main components of the B787 FCOM mentioned in the text?

A

Weight and Balance Documents, Systems Description

These components provide essential information for the operation of the aircraft.

1309
Q

What does the POS key indicate when selected?

A

GPS position relative to FMC position

The POS key is used to display the aircraft’s GPS position on the navigation display.

1310
Q

What does the star indicate when the POS key is selected?

A

IRU position relative to FMC position

The Inertial Reference Unit (IRU) position is shown in relation to the Flight Management Computer (FMC) position.

1311
Q

How are weather radar returns displayed in terms of intensity?

A

Red, amber, green, magenta

The most intense weather is displayed in red, lesser intensity in amber, and the lowest intensity in green. Turbulence is shown in magenta.

1312
Q

What information does the MAP menu provide?

A

Selected map options

The MAP menu allows the pilot to choose various map display options.

1313
Q

What does the North up arrow indicate?

A

Map background oriented to true north

It shows that the map is aligned with true north for navigation purposes.

1314
Q

What does a holding pattern on the display depict?

A

Entry path until entry completed

A holding pattern is shown when it is part of the flight plan, indicating the route to enter the hold.

1315
Q

What is displayed when a procedure turn is in the flight plan?

A

Increases in size upon entering the procedure turn

The procedure turn representation changes as the aircraft enters the maneuver.

1316
Q

What does the PLAN display show regarding alternate airports?

A

Displays up to four alternate airports at all times

The PLAN view continuously shows potential alternate airports for the flight.

1317
Q

What does the MAP display show when the ARPT key is selected?

A

Displays up to four alternate airports

This allows for quick access to alternate airport information during flight.

1318
Q

What do offscale airports indicate?

A

Directional arrow relative to airplane position

Offscale airports are shown with directional arrows to indicate their position relative to the aircraft’s current location.

1319
Q

What is displayed at ranges 2, 1, and 0.5 NM?

A

Airport beacon (W)

This is part of the ND symbology in the B787 flight instruments.

1320
Q

What does the ICAO ID represent in the ND symbology?

A

Airport ICAO Identifier in GRID Heading box

It is displayed at all ranges except when in GRID Heading.

1321
Q

When is the LOAD message displayed in the ND symbology?

A

Displayed at all ranges during delay between execution of flight plan and display of airport map

This occurs when the flight plan is executed but the airport map is not yet visible.

1322
Q

What happens when the active cycle of Airport Map database is expired?

A

Displayed at all ranges when active cycle of Airport Map database is expired or out of range

This indicates that the database needs updating.

1323
Q

What indicates that the WXR switch is selected?

A

WXR ON message

This message appears in the ND symbology when weather radar is active.

1324
Q

At what ranges is the concourse displayed in the ND symbology?

A

2, 1, and 0.5 NM

Concourse information is essential for airport navigation.

1325
Q

At what range are gates displayed in the ND symbology?

A

0.5 NM

This allows pilots to identify gate locations as they approach.

1326
Q

At what ranges are runways displayed in the ND symbology?

A

5, 2, 1, and 0.5 NM

This ensures pilots have adequate visual information for approach and landing.

1327
Q

What modes are referenced in the ND symbology?

A

MAP, MAP CTR, PLAN

These modes provide different levels of detail and orientation for navigation.

1328
Q

What is displayed at ranges 2, 1, and 0.5 NM?

A

Airport beacon (W)

This is part of the ND symbology in the B787 flight instruments.

1329
Q

What does the ICAO ID represent in the ND symbology?

A

Airport ICAO Identifier in GRID Heading box

It is displayed at all ranges except when in GRID Heading.

1330
Q

When is the LOAD message displayed in the ND symbology?

A

Displayed at all ranges during delay between execution of flight plan and display of airport map

This occurs when the flight plan is executed but the airport map is not yet visible.

1331
Q

What happens when the active cycle of Airport Map database is expired?

A

Displayed at all ranges when active cycle of Airport Map database is expired or out of range

This indicates that the database needs updating.

1332
Q

What indicates that the WXR switch is selected?

A

WXR ON message

This message appears in the ND symbology when weather radar is active.

1333
Q

At what ranges is the concourse displayed in the ND symbology?

A

2, 1, and 0.5 NM

Concourse information is essential for airport navigation.

1334
Q

At what range are gates displayed in the ND symbology?

A

0.5 NM

This allows pilots to identify gate locations as they approach.

1335
Q

At what ranges are runways displayed in the ND symbology?

A

5, 2, 1, and 0.5 NM

This ensures pilots have adequate visual information for approach and landing.

1336
Q

What modes are referenced in the ND symbology?

A

MAP, MAP CTR, PLAN

These modes provide different levels of detail and orientation for navigation.

1337
Q

What does B787 FCOM stand for?

A

B787 Flight Crew Operating Manual

The FCOM contains essential operational information for the B787 aircraft.

1338
Q

What is the purpose of the Vertical Situation Display (VSD) in the B787?

A

To provide information on the airplane’s altitude and lateral position relative to terrain

The VSD displays critical navigation and situational awareness data for pilots.

1339
Q

What does the symbol ‘W’ represent on the Navigation Display (ND)?

A

Airplane symbol

The airplane symbol indicates the current position of the aircraft on the ND.

1340
Q

What does the dashed line in the Enroute corridor (C) signify on the ND?

A

It represents the area of the map shown on the VSD

The dashed line is crucial for understanding navigation corridors during flight.

1341
Q

What does the selected altitude bug indicate on the ND?

A

The altitude set in the MCP altitude window

The bug’s position changes based on the selected altitude by the flight crew.

1342
Q

When the selected altitude is off scale, where does the bug park?

A

At the top or bottom, with only one half visible

The bug’s parking indicates that the selected altitude is outside the displayed range.

1343
Q

What happens to the pointer and line when the airplane descends below the selected minimum altitude?

A

They turn amber

This visual cue alerts the crew that they are below the set minimum altitude.

1344
Q

The BARO minimums pointer on the ND indicates what?

A

The barometric minimums selected on the EFIS control panel

This pointer helps pilots maintain awareness of minimum altitude requirements.

1345
Q

Fill in the blank: The Navigation Display (ND) shows the current airplane altitude at the _______.

A

bottom of the triangle

This triangle is part of the VSD symbology.

1346
Q

True or False: The VSD is displayed only during specific flight modes.

A

False

The VSD is displayed full time when selected.

1347
Q

What does B787 FCOM stand for?

A

B787 Flight Crew Operating Manual

The FCOM contains essential operational information for the B787 aircraft.

1348
Q

What is the purpose of the Vertical Situation Display (VSD) in the B787?

A

To provide information on the airplane’s altitude and lateral position relative to terrain

The VSD displays critical navigation and situational awareness data for pilots.

1349
Q

What does the symbol ‘W’ represent on the Navigation Display (ND)?

A

Airplane symbol

The airplane symbol indicates the current position of the aircraft on the ND.

1350
Q

What does the dashed line in the Enroute corridor (C) signify on the ND?

A

It represents the area of the map shown on the VSD

The dashed line is crucial for understanding navigation corridors during flight.

1351
Q

What does the selected altitude bug indicate on the ND?

A

The altitude set in the MCP altitude window

The bug’s position changes based on the selected altitude by the flight crew.

1352
Q

When the selected altitude is off scale, where does the bug park?

A

At the top or bottom, with only one half visible

The bug’s parking indicates that the selected altitude is outside the displayed range.

1353
Q

What happens to the pointer and line when the airplane descends below the selected minimum altitude?

A

They turn amber

This visual cue alerts the crew that they are below the set minimum altitude.

1354
Q

The BARO minimums pointer on the ND indicates what?

A

The barometric minimums selected on the EFIS control panel

This pointer helps pilots maintain awareness of minimum altitude requirements.

1355
Q

Fill in the blank: The Navigation Display (ND) shows the current airplane altitude at the _______.

A

bottom of the triangle

This triangle is part of the VSD symbology.

1356
Q

True or False: The VSD is displayed only during specific flight modes.

A

False

The VSD is displayed full time when selected.

1357
Q

What are decision gates in the context of flight instruments?

A

Suggested points where the airplane should be path and speed stable on approach

Decision gates are placed on the Reference Line or FMC Approach Glidepath Angle Line at specified altitudes.

1358
Q

At what altitudes are decision gates placed above field elevation?

A
  • 1000 feet (W)
  • 500 feet (A)

Decision gates that are below the missed approach waypoint altitude are not displayed.

1359
Q

What does the flight path vector indicate?

A

MCP selected vertical speed vector or flight path angle (M)

The flight path vector helps pilots understand the aircraft’s current flight trajectory.

1360
Q

What does the fixed length line on the navigation display represent?

A

Current flight path angle and rotates about the point of the triangle

The angle of the line is dependent on the vertical speed and groundspeed of the airplane.

1361
Q

What does the dashed line on the navigation display indicate?

A

Selected vertical speed as a target angle when MCP V/S mode is selected

It indicates selected flight path angle when MCP FPA mode is selected.

1362
Q

What happens to the target speed dot when the airplane is within 5 knots of target speed?

A

The dot blanks

If the airplane increases 5 knots or more faster than target speed, the dot reappears.

1363
Q

How is the target speed displayed when it will not be achieved within the vector length?

A

Displayed at the end of the Flight Path Vector as an unfilled dot

This indicates a failure to reach the target speed within the calculated flight path.

1364
Q

Fill in the blank: Decision gates are placed at _______ feet and _______ feet above field elevation.

A

1000 feet, 500 feet

1365
Q

True or False: Decision gates are displayed even if they are below the missed approach waypoint altitude.

A

False

1366
Q

What does T/D stand for in aviation terminology?

A

Top-of-descent

T/D indicates the point at which an aircraft begins its descent.

1367
Q

What is indicated by the symbol for ATC conditional clearance point?

A

Approximate map position where the airplane should comply with ATC clearance

The symbol is removed when the conditional clearance is met.

1368
Q

What are the types of navigation display symbology mentioned?

A
  • MAP
  • MAP CTR
  • PLAN

These represent different modes of navigation display on the aircraft.

1369
Q

What altitude profile points are calculated by the FMC?

A
  • T/C (top-of-climb)
  • T/D (top-of-descent)
  • S/C (step climb)
  • E/D (end of descent)

These points are crucial for flight planning and management.

1370
Q

What does the altitude/ETA display on the FIX page indicate?

A

Predicted altitude/ETA along with profile point

This helps in managing the flight’s vertical profile.

1371
Q

What flap settings are indicated on the navigation display?

A
  • Flaps 1
  • Flaps 5
  • Flaps 20

Only these specific flap settings are shown on the display.

1372
Q

What does the deceleration points symbol indicate?

A

No identifier

Deceleration points do not have a specific marker on the display.

1373
Q

What is the purpose of the speed profile point on the navigation display?

A

Indicates approximate map position for FMC calculated speed settings

It helps ensure the aircraft is on speed, on path, and on time at the final approach fix.

1374
Q

What does the waypoint altitude constraint signify?

A
  • Active (M)
  • Inactive

This indicates whether the altitude constraint for a waypoint is currently in effect.

1375
Q

What does T/D stand for in aviation terminology?

A

Top-of-descent

T/D indicates the point at which an aircraft begins its descent.

1376
Q

What is indicated by the symbol for ATC conditional clearance point?

A

Approximate map position where the airplane should comply with ATC clearance

The symbol is removed when the conditional clearance is met.

1377
Q

What are the types of navigation display symbology mentioned?

A
  • MAP
  • MAP CTR
  • PLAN

These represent different modes of navigation display on the aircraft.

1378
Q

What altitude profile points are calculated by the FMC?

A
  • T/C (top-of-climb)
  • T/D (top-of-descent)
  • S/C (step climb)
  • E/D (end of descent)

These points are crucial for flight planning and management.

1379
Q

What does the altitude/ETA display on the FIX page indicate?

A

Predicted altitude/ETA along with profile point

This helps in managing the flight’s vertical profile.

1380
Q

What flap settings are indicated on the navigation display?

A
  • Flaps 1
  • Flaps 5
  • Flaps 20

Only these specific flap settings are shown on the display.

1381
Q

What does the deceleration points symbol indicate?

A

No identifier

Deceleration points do not have a specific marker on the display.

1382
Q

What is the purpose of the speed profile point on the navigation display?

A

Indicates approximate map position for FMC calculated speed settings

It helps ensure the aircraft is on speed, on path, and on time at the final approach fix.

1383
Q

What does the waypoint altitude constraint signify?

A
  • Active (M)
  • Inactive

This indicates whether the altitude constraint for a waypoint is currently in effect.

1384
Q

What does ND stand for in the context of flight instruments?

A

Navigation Display

1385
Q

What is indicated by the waypoint altitude constraint with an active symbol?

A

M (active)

1386
Q

What does the inactive waypoint altitude constraint symbol represent?

A

W (inactive)

1387
Q

In the context of waypoint altitude constraints, what does ‘At or Above Altitude’ signify?

A

Example of altitude constraint

1388
Q

In the context of waypoint altitude constraints, what does ‘At or Below Altitude’ signify?

A

Example of altitude constraint

1389
Q

What is the significance of the block altitude example in navigation displays?

A

Represents altitude constraints

1390
Q

What does the HOLD symbol indicate in navigation displays?

A

Active hold waypoint

1391
Q

Where is the hold symbol displayed in relation to the hold waypoint?

A

Centered between the first and second instance of the hold waypoint

1392
Q

What does MAP CTR refer to in navigation displays?

A

Map Center

1393
Q

Fill in the blank: The waypoint altitude constraint is shown as _______ when inactive.

A

W

1394
Q

Fill in the blank: The waypoint altitude constraint is shown as _______ when active.

A

M

1395
Q

What does ND stand for in the context of flight instruments?

A

Navigation Display

1396
Q

What is indicated by the waypoint altitude constraint with an active symbol?

A

M (active)

1397
Q

What does the inactive waypoint altitude constraint symbol represent?

A

W (inactive)

1398
Q

In the context of waypoint altitude constraints, what does ‘At or Above Altitude’ signify?

A

Example of altitude constraint

1399
Q

In the context of waypoint altitude constraints, what does ‘At or Below Altitude’ signify?

A

Example of altitude constraint

1400
Q

What is the significance of the block altitude example in navigation displays?

A

Represents altitude constraints

1401
Q

What does the HOLD symbol indicate in navigation displays?

A

Active hold waypoint

1402
Q

Where is the hold symbol displayed in relation to the hold waypoint?

A

Centered between the first and second instance of the hold waypoint

1403
Q

What does MAP CTR refer to in navigation displays?

A

Map Center

1404
Q

Fill in the blank: The waypoint altitude constraint is shown as _______ when inactive.

A

W

1405
Q

Fill in the blank: The waypoint altitude constraint is shown as _______ when active.

A

M

1406
Q

What does TCAS stand for?

A

Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System

TCAS is a system designed to reduce the risk of mid-air collisions between aircraft.

1407
Q

What does the hold return symbol (M) indicate?

A

Shown during holding entry and when in holding

The symbol is displayed to the left of the second hold waypoint.

1408
Q

What is indicated by the TCAS resolution advisory (RA) symbol?

A

Relative altitude (R)

The RA symbol is displayed in the ND mode MAP, MAP CTR, and mini-map.

1409
Q

What does the TCAS traffic advisory (TA) symbol indicate?

A

Relative altitude (A)

The TA symbol is displayed in the ND mode MAP, MAP CTR, and mini-map.

1410
Q

How is traffic altitude displayed in TCAS?

A

The number indicates altitude in hundreds of feet relative to the airplane

The number is below the traffic symbol when the traffic is below and above when the traffic is above the airplane.

1411
Q

What does the absence of the altitude number imply in TCAS?

A

Altitude unknown

This indicates that the system cannot determine the altitude of the traffic.

1412
Q

What does the arrow in the TCAS symbol indicate?

A

Traffic climbing or descending at a rate greater than or equal to 500 fpm

If the rate is less than 500 fpm, the arrow is not displayed.

1413
Q

What information does the TCAS traffic alert message provide?

A

Traffic type, range in NM, altitude, and vertical direction

This message is displayed whenever a TCAS RA or TA is active.

1414
Q

True or False: The EFIS control panel TFC switch must be selected on for TCAS alerts to be displayed.

A

False

TCAS alerts are displayed regardless of the TFC switch setting.

1415
Q

Fill in the blank: The TCAS no bearing message indicates _____ for RA-R and TA-A.

A

No bearing information

This message indicates that there is no directional information available for the traffic.

1416
Q

What does TCAS stand for?

A

Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System

TCAS is a system designed to reduce the risk of mid-air collisions.

1417
Q

What is indicated by the TCAS off scale message?

A

RA-R. TA A

This message appears when traffic is outside the area covered by the ND range.

1418
Q

What does TCAS mode (C) indicate?

A

ND TCAS display is active

Mode (C) shows that the TCAS system is actively monitoring traffic.

1419
Q

What does TCAS mode (A) indicate?

A

TCAS computer is not computing RAs

This is displayed regardless of the TFC switch status.

1420
Q

What does TCAS TEST mode indicate?

A

TCAS is operating in the test mode

Displayed whether the EFIS control panel TFC switch is selected on or off.

1421
Q

When is TCAS FAIL displayed?

A

When TCAS is failed

It is shown if the TCAS/ATC mode switch is not set to TA ONLY or TA/RA.

1422
Q

What does TCAS ADS-B resolution advisory (RA) indicate?

A

Relative altitude (R)

This is shown on the ND in relation to the aircraft’s altitude.

1423
Q

What does the arrow in TCAS indicate?

A

Traffic climbing or descending at a rate greater than or equal to 500 fpm

If the rate is less than 500 fpm, the arrow is not displayed.

1424
Q

Fill in the blank: The number and associated signs in TCAS indicate the altitude of traffic in _______.

A

hundreds of feet relative to the airplane

This information helps pilots understand the vertical position of nearby traffic.

1425
Q

What types of displays are mentioned for TCAS information?

A

MAP, MAP CTR, mini-map

These displays provide visual information on traffic advisories.

1426
Q

True or False: TCAS mode (C) is displayed only when the EFIS control panel TFC switch is selected on.

A

False

Mode (C) is displayed regardless of the switch status.

1427
Q

What does TCAS stand for?

A

Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System

TCAS is a system designed to reduce the risk of mid-air collisions.

1428
Q

What is indicated by the TCAS off scale message?

A

RA-R. TA A

This message appears when traffic is outside the area covered by the ND range.

1429
Q

What does TCAS mode (C) indicate?

A

ND TCAS display is active

Mode (C) shows that the TCAS system is actively monitoring traffic.

1430
Q

What does TCAS mode (A) indicate?

A

TCAS computer is not computing RAs

This is displayed regardless of the TFC switch status.

1431
Q

What does TCAS TEST mode indicate?

A

TCAS is operating in the test mode

Displayed whether the EFIS control panel TFC switch is selected on or off.

1432
Q

When is TCAS FAIL displayed?

A

When TCAS is failed

It is shown if the TCAS/ATC mode switch is not set to TA ONLY or TA/RA.

1433
Q

What does TCAS ADS-B resolution advisory (RA) indicate?

A

Relative altitude (R)

This is shown on the ND in relation to the aircraft’s altitude.

1434
Q

What does the arrow in TCAS indicate?

A

Traffic climbing or descending at a rate greater than or equal to 500 fpm

If the rate is less than 500 fpm, the arrow is not displayed.

1435
Q

Fill in the blank: The number and associated signs in TCAS indicate the altitude of traffic in _______.

A

hundreds of feet relative to the airplane

This information helps pilots understand the vertical position of nearby traffic.

1436
Q

What types of displays are mentioned for TCAS information?

A

MAP, MAP CTR, mini-map

These displays provide visual information on traffic advisories.

1437
Q

True or False: TCAS mode (C) is displayed only when the EFIS control panel TFC switch is selected on.

A

False

Mode (C) is displayed regardless of the switch status.

1438
Q

What does TCAS stand for?

A

Traffic Collision Avoidance System

TCAS is designed to prevent mid-air collisions between aircraft.

1439
Q

What information does the TCAS ADS-B traffic symbol provide?

A

Relative altitude, ground speed, flight number

This information helps pilots assess the proximity of other aircraft.

1440
Q

What does the absence of a number indicate in TCAS ADS-B traffic?

A

Altitude unknown

This implies that the system cannot determine the altitude of the other aircraft.

1441
Q

In the context of the B787 navigation displays, what does a green traffic symbol represent?

A

Selected ADS-B traffic

This indicates that the traffic has been selected by the flight crew for monitoring.

1442
Q

What occurs when the CCD select button is used on the B787?

A

Traffic List is updated

The display changes from white to green to indicate selected traffic.

1443
Q

What does the hollow green chevron represent on the navigation display?

A

ITP reference traffic

ITP stands for In-Trail Procedure, indicating a specific traffic reference.

1444
Q

What does the OFFSCALE message indicate?

A

Selected ITP traffic is outside the traffic area covered by the ND

This message alerts the crew that the selected traffic is not visible on the display.

1445
Q

What is indicated by the cursor-over ADS-B traffic feature?

A

Altitude, ground speed, flight number

This feature allows pilots to get detailed information about specific traffic when hovered over.

1446
Q

Fill in the blank: The _______ ring may be added from the Traffic List.

A

Range

This allows pilots to visually assess the distance of selected traffic.

1447
Q

What does the symbol ‘TFC-ALL’ indicate?

A

Displays all traffic including ADS-B data

TFC-ALL mode shows all traffic information available.

1448
Q

What does ‘ADS-B IN’ refer to?

A

Automatic Dependent Surveillance–Broadcast In

ADS-B IN is a surveillance technology that allows aircraft to determine their position via satellite navigation and periodically broadcast it.

1449
Q

What does the ‘WXR’ symbol represent?

A

Weather radar (WXR)

The weather radar provides information about precipitation and turbulence.

1450
Q

What does ‘WXR precipitation only mode (C)’ indicate?

A

Weather radar is set to display only precipitation

This mode focuses solely on detecting and displaying precipitation data.

1451
Q

What does ‘WXR and turbulence mode (C)’ signify?

A

Weather radar displays both precipitation and turbulence

This mode allows pilots to see both weather phenomena simultaneously.

1452
Q

What is indicated by ‘TCAS ADS-B mode (C)’?

A

TCAS with ADS-B option enabled and functional

This mode actively displays traffic using both TCAS and ADS-B information.

1453
Q

What does ‘TCAS ADS-B Traffic Off (A)’ mean?

A

ADS-B traffic symbols are not shown

This occurs when the ADS-B functionality is disabled due to transponder settings.

1454
Q

Fill in the blank: The ‘MAP CTR’ mode displays _______.

A

[key learning term]

MAP CTR is a mode that provides a centered map view on the navigation display.

1455
Q

What does ‘Indicates degraded GPS position of ownship or surrounding traffic’ mean?

A

GPS position is not reliable, affecting displayed traffic

This indication can occur if the aircraft is near an airport without available map data.

1456
Q

What does the ‘WXR receiver gain (C)’ control?

A

Adjusts the sensitivity of the weather radar

This setting helps improve the accuracy of weather detection.

1457
Q

What does ‘TFC OFF’ indicate?

A

Traffic symbols are not displayed

This mode may be due to the transponder being set to standby or altitude reporting off.

1458
Q

What does the predictive windshear symbol indicate?

A

It displays windshear location and approximate geometric size (width and depth)

The symbol can show different states: R for warning and A for caution.

1459
Q

What do the amber radials extending from the predictive windshear symbol help identify?

A

They help identify the location of the windshear event

Amber radials provide visual cues for pilots to assess windshear.

1460
Q

What does the WINDSHEAR annunciation indicate when it is active?

A

It indicates that predictive windshear caution (A) or warning (R) is active

R stands for warning, indicating a more severe situation.

1461
Q

What type of displays are used in the B787 for electronic checklists?

A

Electronic Checklist Displays

These displays may not be current or applicable to the specific aircraft/simulator.

1462
Q

In the context of the B787, what does the NORMAL MENU include?

A

It includes options like PREFLIGHTA and NON-NORMAL MENU

These options are part of the checklists and procedures.

1463
Q

What is included in the NORMAL CHECKLIST of the B787?

A

It includes resets and tests, such as for oxygen

The checklist is for reference and may not reflect current procedures.

1464
Q

What are the two main types of menu options in the B787 electronic checklist system?

A

NORMAL MENU and NON-NORMAL MENU

These menus guide pilots through standard and emergency procedures.

1465
Q

Fill in the blank: The predictive windshear symbol has states indicated by _______.

A

[R, A]

1466
Q

True or False: The checklists shown in the electronic checklist displays are always current and applicable.

A

False

The displays may not represent the latest information or procedures.

1467
Q

What does the predictive windshear symbol indicate?

A

It displays windshear location and approximate geometric size (width and depth)

The symbol can show different states: R for warning and A for caution.

1468
Q

What do the amber radials extending from the predictive windshear symbol help identify?

A

They help identify the location of the windshear event

Amber radials provide visual cues for pilots to assess windshear.

1469
Q

What does the WINDSHEAR annunciation indicate when it is active?

A

It indicates that predictive windshear caution (A) or warning (R) is active

R stands for warning, indicating a more severe situation.

1470
Q

What type of displays are used in the B787 for electronic checklists?

A

Electronic Checklist Displays

These displays may not be current or applicable to the specific aircraft/simulator.

1471
Q

In the context of the B787, what does the NORMAL MENU include?

A

It includes options like PREFLIGHTA and NON-NORMAL MENU

These options are part of the checklists and procedures.

1472
Q

What is included in the NORMAL CHECKLIST of the B787?

A

It includes resets and tests, such as for oxygen

The checklist is for reference and may not reflect current procedures.

1473
Q

What are the two main types of menu options in the B787 electronic checklist system?

A

NORMAL MENU and NON-NORMAL MENU

These menus guide pilots through standard and emergency procedures.

1474
Q

Fill in the blank: The predictive windshear symbol has states indicated by _______.

A

[R, A]

1475
Q

True or False: The checklists shown in the electronic checklist displays are always current and applicable.

A

False

The displays may not represent the latest information or procedures.

1476
Q

What does the Open Loop Indicator indicate?

A

Indicates the line item is an open loop action item. Requires flight crew confirmation to become complete.

1477
Q

What does the Complete Indicator signify?

A

Indicates the line item is complete.

1478
Q

What is the function of the Normal Checklist (NORMAL) Key?

A

Select - shows the next incomplete normal checklist and shows normal checklists menu page when all normal checklists are complete.

1479
Q

What does the Line Item Override (ITEM OVRD) Key do?

A

Select - overrides the line item in the current line item box. Item shows cyan.

1480
Q

What color indicates that an action item is incomplete?

A

White.

1481
Q

What color indicates that an action item is complete?

A

Green.

1482
Q

What color indicates that an action item is inactive or overridden?

A

Cyan.

1483
Q

What does the Current Line Item Box highlight?

A

Highlights the current incomplete line item.

1484
Q

What happens when the Checklist Reset (CHKL RESET) Key is selected?

A

Starts the current checklist from the beginning. All line items become incomplete and the current line item box, the cursor selection box, and the cursor move to the first incomplete line item.

1485
Q

Fill in the blank: The cursor selection area is highlighted by the _______.

A

Cursor Selection Box.

1486
Q

What does the Select key do in the Non-Normal Checklist?

A

Shows the previous checklist page

This key allows the user to navigate back to the prior checklist page.

1487
Q

What does it indicate when the Shows key is gray in the Non-Normal Checklist?

A

The previous page is available

This signifies that there is a prior page that can be accessed.

1488
Q

What does it indicate when the Shows key is cyan in the Non-Normal Checklist?

A

The key is inactive

This means that the first page of the checklist is currently being displayed.

1489
Q

What does the Select key do in the Checklist Page Key?

A

Shows the checklist page corresponding to the page number on the key

This key is utilized to access specific checklist pages.

1490
Q

What does it indicate when the Shows key is white in the Checklist Page Key?

A

The checklist page corresponding to the page number on the key is currently displayed

This shows the active checklist page.

1491
Q

What does it indicate when the Shows key is gray in the Checklist Page Key?

A

The checklist page corresponding to the page number on the key is not currently displayed

This indicates that the specified checklist page is not active.

1492
Q

What does it indicate when the Shows key is white in the Checklist Page Number?

A

The checklist page is incomplete

This highlights that the current checklist page has not been fully completed.

1493
Q

What does it indicate when the Shows key is green in the Checklist Page Number?

A

The checklist page is complete

This signifies that all items on the checklist page have been addressed.

1494
Q

What does the Select key do in the Next Page Key?

A

Shows the next checklist page

This allows the user to move forward to the subsequent page of the checklist.

1495
Q

What does it indicate when the Shows key is gray in the Next Page Key?

A

The next page is available

This means that there is another page that can be accessed.

1496
Q

What does it indicate when the Shows key is cyan in the Next Page Key?

A

The key is inactive

This indicates that the last page of the checklist is currently being displayed.

1497
Q

What does the Non-Normal Checklist (NON-NORMAL) Key show when there are additional incomplete non-normal checklists?

A

Shows when there are additional incomplete non-normal checklists in the checklist queue

This informs the user about the status of the non-normal checklist queue.

1498
Q

What does the Select key do when there is one incomplete non-normal checklist in the checklist queue?

A

Shows the next incomplete non-normal checklist

This allows access to the next item in the queue.

1499
Q

What does the Select key do when there are multiple incomplete non-normal checklists in the checklist queue?

A

Shows the non-normal checklist queue

This provides an overview of all incomplete items in the queue.

1500
Q

What does it indicate when the Shows key is white in the Non-Normal Checklist Key?

A

An incomplete non-normal checklist has not been shown

This means there are pending items that need to be addressed.

1501
Q

What does the Select key do in the Non-Normal Checklist?

A

Shows the previous checklist page

This key allows the user to navigate back to the prior checklist page.

1502
Q

What does it indicate when the Shows key is gray in the Non-Normal Checklist?

A

The previous page is available

This signifies that there is a prior page that can be accessed.

1503
Q

What does it indicate when the Shows key is cyan in the Non-Normal Checklist?

A

The key is inactive

This means that the first page of the checklist is currently being displayed.

1504
Q

What does the Select key do in the Checklist Page Key?

A

Shows the checklist page corresponding to the page number on the key

This key is utilized to access specific checklist pages.

1505
Q

What does it indicate when the Shows key is white in the Checklist Page Key?

A

The checklist page corresponding to the page number on the key is currently displayed

This shows the active checklist page.

1506
Q

What does it indicate when the Shows key is gray in the Checklist Page Key?

A

The checklist page corresponding to the page number on the key is not currently displayed

This indicates that the specified checklist page is not active.

1507
Q

What does it indicate when the Shows key is white in the Checklist Page Number?

A

The checklist page is incomplete

This highlights that the current checklist page has not been fully completed.

1508
Q

What does it indicate when the Shows key is green in the Checklist Page Number?

A

The checklist page is complete

This signifies that all items on the checklist page have been addressed.

1509
Q

What does the Select key do in the Next Page Key?

A

Shows the next checklist page

This allows the user to move forward to the subsequent page of the checklist.

1510
Q

What does it indicate when the Shows key is gray in the Next Page Key?

A

The next page is available

This means that there is another page that can be accessed.

1511
Q

What does it indicate when the Shows key is cyan in the Next Page Key?

A

The key is inactive

This indicates that the last page of the checklist is currently being displayed.

1512
Q

What does the Non-Normal Checklist (NON-NORMAL) Key show when there are additional incomplete non-normal checklists?

A

Shows when there are additional incomplete non-normal checklists in the checklist queue

This informs the user about the status of the non-normal checklist queue.

1513
Q

What does the Select key do when there is one incomplete non-normal checklist in the checklist queue?

A

Shows the next incomplete non-normal checklist

This allows access to the next item in the queue.

1514
Q

What does the Select key do when there are multiple incomplete non-normal checklists in the checklist queue?

A

Shows the non-normal checklist queue

This provides an overview of all incomplete items in the queue.

1515
Q

What does it indicate when the Shows key is white in the Non-Normal Checklist Key?

A

An incomplete non-normal checklist has not been shown

This means there are pending items that need to be addressed.

1516
Q

What does the Non-Normal Checklist (NON-NORMAL) Key indicate?

A

Shows when there are additional incomplete non-normal checklists in the checklist queue.

1517
Q

What happens when there is one incomplete non-normal checklist in the checklist queue?

A

Select - shows the next incomplete non-normal checklist.

1518
Q

What happens when there are more than one incomplete non-normal checklists in the checklist queue?

A

Select - shows the non-normal checklist queue.

1519
Q

What does a white display indicate in the Non-Normal Checklist?

A

An incomplete non-normal checklist has not been shown.

1520
Q

What does an amber display indicate in the Non-Normal Checklist?

A

An incomplete non-normal checklist has been shown but is not currently shown.

1521
Q

What is the purpose of the Checklist Timer?

A

Not specified in the provided content.

1522
Q

What is the first step when the right pack shutdown occurs?

A

Wait 2 minutes to allow time for any overheat condition to cool.

1523
Q

How many resets should be attempted after a right pack shutdown?

A

Attempt only one reset.

1524
Q

What action should be taken with the AIR COND RESET switch?

A

Push and hold for 1 second.

1525
Q

What should be done with the PACK switch after a reset attempt?

A

Leave PACK switch ON even if the pack shuts down again.

1526
Q

What type of checklist displays operational notes?

A

Non-normal checklist

1527
Q

What does the CHECKLIST COMPLETE Indicator show?

A

When all line items are complete, inactive, or overridden, and all pages have been shown

1528
Q

What does the Operational Notes (NOTES) key do?

A

Shows the operational notes page

1529
Q

What are the types of menus mentioned for the Operational Notes Page?

A
  • Normal Menu
  • Resets
  • Non-Normal Menu
1530
Q

When can the autothrottle be re-engaged according to TAT Probe Icing?

A
  • Reference/target N1 and reference N1 are shown
  • TAT is not near 0 degrees C
1531
Q

What might indicate TAT probe icing?

A
  • Autothrottle disconnects
  • V
1532
Q

Fill in the blank: The Operational Notes page can be accessed through the _______ key.

A

[NOTES]

1533
Q

True or False: The information shown in the non-normal checklist is required for checklist completion.

A

False

1534
Q

What type of checklist displays operational notes?

A

Non-normal checklist

1535
Q

What does the CHECKLIST COMPLETE Indicator show?

A

When all line items are complete, inactive, or overridden, and all pages have been shown

1536
Q

What does the Operational Notes (NOTES) key do?

A

Shows the operational notes page

1537
Q

What are the types of menus mentioned for the Operational Notes Page?

A
  • Normal Menu
  • Resets
  • Non-Normal Menu
1538
Q

When can the autothrottle be re-engaged according to TAT Probe Icing?

A
  • Reference/target N1 and reference N1 are shown
  • TAT is not near 0 degrees C
1539
Q

What might indicate TAT probe icing?

A
  • Autothrottle disconnects
  • V
1540
Q

Fill in the blank: The Operational Notes page can be accessed through the _______ key.

A

[NOTES]

1541
Q

True or False: The information shown in the non-normal checklist is required for checklist completion.

A

False

1542
Q

What does a white display indicate for a conditional line item?

A

The conditional line item is incomplete.

This indicates that the task or check has not been fully addressed.

1543
Q

What does a cyan display indicate for a conditional line item?

A

The conditional line item is sensed false.

All line items indented below become inactive and show cyan.

1544
Q

What does a green display indicate for a conditional line item?

A

The conditional line item is sensed true.

The cursor and selection box move to the next incomplete line item.

1545
Q

What is the recommended flap setting for landing if performance allows?

A

Flaps 30.

Use VREF 30 for landing with flaps 30.

1546
Q

What is the recommended flap setting for go-around?

A

Flaps 5.

This is specified for optimal performance during a go-around maneuver.

1547
Q

What is the purpose of the GPWS key?

A

To activate the Ground Proximity Warning System.

This system helps prevent controlled flight into terrain.

1548
Q

Fill in the blank: The conditional line item shows _______ when it is sensed false.

A

cyan

1549
Q

True or False: The cursor skips inactive items when selecting line items.

A

True

1550
Q

What does the term ‘Closed Loop’ refer to in the context of conditional line items?

A

A system where the status of conditional line items is actively monitored and displayed.

This contrasts with ‘Open Loop’, where no feedback is provided.

1551
Q

What is the significance of using VREF 20 for landing?

A

It is the reference speed for landing with flaps 20.

This ensures safe landing performance.

1552
Q

What does a white conditional line item indicate in the electronic checklist?

A

The conditional line item is incomplete.

Indicates that the item requires attention or action before proceeding.

1553
Q

What does a cyan conditional line item indicate in the electronic checklist?

A

The conditional line item is selected NO.

All line items indented below become inactive and show cyan.

1554
Q

What happens to the cursor when a cyan conditional line item is selected?

A

The cursor skips inactive items and moves to the next incomplete line item.

This ensures efficient navigation through the checklist.

1555
Q

What does a green conditional line item indicate in the electronic checklist?

A

The conditional line item is selected YES.

The current line item box, cursor selection box, and cursor move to the next incomplete line item.

1556
Q

What is the maximum flap setting allowed in alternate mode during landing?

A

Flaps 20.

Use VREF 20 for landing.

1557
Q

What should be monitored during the extension of alternate flaps?

A

Airspeed.

This is crucial to ensure safe operation.

1558
Q

Fill in the blank: The alternate flaps selector is set to _______ for extending flaps.

A

EXT.

This initiates the flap extension process.

1559
Q

What is the purpose of the non-normal checklist?

A

To manage deferred line items and specific abnormal procedures.

Essential for handling non-standard situations.

1560
Q

What is indicated by deferred line items in the checklist?

A

Items that require attention but are not immediately actionable.

Important for tracking unresolved issues.

1561
Q

What is the role of the FLAP/SLAT CONTROL 4 in the checklist?

A

To manage flap and slat settings during flight.

Ensures correct configuration for various flight phases.

1562
Q

What does the Checklist Override (CHKL OVRD) Key do?

A

Overrides the current checklist

1563
Q

What condition is indicated by the HYD PRESS DEM L message?

A

The left demand pump pressure is low when commanded on

1564
Q

What should be done if the HYD PRESS DEM L message is displayed?

A

Set L ELEC DEMAND pump selector to ON

1565
Q

What happens when the L ELEC DEMAND pump selector is switched OFF after the HYD PRESS DEM L message?

A

The HYD PRESS DEM L message stays shown

1566
Q

What note is associated with the left thrust reverser deployment?

A

Deployment may be slower than normal

1567
Q

Fill in the blank: The B787 FCOM includes _______ for Flight Instruments and Displays.

A

[Systems Description]

1568
Q

What is the purpose of the B787 Weight and Balance Documents?

A

[Weight and balance management for the aircraft]

1569
Q

What is the function of the NORMAL MENU in the B787 FCOM?

A

[Standard operational checklists]

1570
Q

What does the NON-NORMAL MENU in the B787 FCOM include?

A

[Procedures for abnormal situations]

1571
Q

What does the Checklist Override (CHKL OVRD) Key do?

A

Overrides the current checklist

1572
Q

What condition is indicated by the HYD PRESS DEM L message?

A

The left demand pump pressure is low when commanded on

1573
Q

What should be done if the HYD PRESS DEM L message is displayed?

A

Set L ELEC DEMAND pump selector to ON

1574
Q

What happens when the L ELEC DEMAND pump selector is switched OFF after the HYD PRESS DEM L message?

A

The HYD PRESS DEM L message stays shown

1575
Q

What note is associated with the left thrust reverser deployment?

A

Deployment may be slower than normal

1576
Q

Fill in the blank: The B787 FCOM includes _______ for Flight Instruments and Displays.

A

[Systems Description]

1577
Q

What is the purpose of the B787 Weight and Balance Documents?

A

[Weight and balance management for the aircraft]

1578
Q

What is the function of the NORMAL MENU in the B787 FCOM?

A

[Standard operational checklists]

1579
Q

What does the NON-NORMAL MENU in the B787 FCOM include?

A

[Procedures for abnormal situations]

1580
Q

What does the CHECKLIST OVERRIDDEN Indicator signify?

A

It shows when the checklist is overridden. All the line items show cyan.

1581
Q

What is the purpose of the MULTIFUNCTION DISPLAY?

A

It serves multiple functions in the system.

1582
Q

What is the meaning of the term ‘CALISI’?

A

It is a specific term used in the context of the system.

1583
Q

What does the NORMAL setting refer to?

A

It indicates the standard operational mode.

1584
Q

What does the CHIL setting represent?

A

It is a specific operational mode related to cooling.

1585
Q

What is the function of the RESET option?

A

It restores the system to its initial state.

1586
Q

Fill in the blank: The __________ Menu Page provides access to various checklists.

A

Checklists

1587
Q

What does the Resets Menu Key do in the B787?

A

Shows the checklist resets page

The Resets Menu Key allows pilots to access the resets page for checklists.

1588
Q

What does the Database Selection Key do when selected?

A

Activates associated checklist database

The selection is only available on the ground and when both engines are off.

1589
Q

What does a white indicator on the Database Selection Key signify?

A

The database is available for selection

This indicates that the checklist database can be activated.

1590
Q

What does a cyan indicator on the Database Selection Key indicate?

A

The key is inactive

This means the database is inhibited from selection or invalid.

1591
Q

What happens when the Reset Key is selected?

A

Resets checklists corresponding to the title on the key

All affected checklists become incomplete after this action.

1592
Q

What does a green indicator on Active Database Indicators mean?

A

The database is active

This shows that the checklist database is currently in use.

1593
Q

What does a gray indicator on Active Database Indicators signify?

A

The database is inactive

This indicates that the checklist database is not currently in use.

1594
Q

What is the function of the Exit Menu Key?

A

Exits page for access to normal and non-normal checklist keys

This key allows pilots to navigate away from the current menu.

1595
Q

What does the electronic checklist (ECL) system display?

A

Normal and non-normal checklists on a multifunction display (MFD)

The ECL system is designed to enhance situational awareness for pilots.

1596
Q

Is the electronic checklist system required for dispatch?

A

No, it is not required

A paper checklist or other approved backup checklist must be available on the flight deck.

1597
Q

What is the primary function of the checklist display switch on the display select panel?

A

Opens the electronic checklist

The display select panel allows the flight crew to access various checklists.

1598
Q

How does the flight crew operate the electronic checklist?

A

Using cursor control devices (CCDs)

CCDs are used along with MFD selection as described in the System Description section.

1599
Q

What are the three types of checklists that can be displayed?

A
  • Normal
  • Non-normal for an EICAS message (annunciated)
  • Non-normal for a condition without an EICAS message (unannounced)

These categories help in managing different operational scenarios.

1600
Q

What happens after each normal checklist is completed?

A

Pushing the checklist display switch twice or selecting the normal key shows the next normal checklist in sequence

This allows for a systematic flow of checklists during flight operations.

1601
Q

How are some checklist steps checked off as complete?

A

Some must be checked off by the flight crew; others are automatically checked off

Automatic checks occur based on sensed flight deck control positions, airplane system status, or EICAS messages.

1602
Q

What indicates that a checklist can have more than one page?

A

Page keys show on the right side of the page

This feature is essential for longer checklists that require multiple pages.

1603
Q

What does ‘CONTINUED’ indicate at the bottom of a checklist page?

A

It indicates that there are more pages to the checklist

This helps the crew understand that they need to navigate to the next page.

1604
Q

What does the checklist complete indicator signify?

A

All line items are either complete, inactive, or overridden

The indicator appears at the bottom of all checklist pages when criteria are met.

1605
Q

What can the flight crew do if they choose not to complete a line item?

A

Override the line item with the line item override key

The text changes color to cyan when overridden, signaling non-completion.

1606
Q

What occurs when a checklist is completed and there are no additional checklists in the non-normal queue?

A

The cursor automatically moves to the normal checklist key

This facilitates a seamless transition to the next normal checklist.

1607
Q

True or False: Only one checklist can be displayed at a time.

A

True

This ensures that the flight crew can focus on one checklist without confusion.

1608
Q

What is the primary function of the checklist display switch on the display select panel?

A

Opens the electronic checklist

The display select panel allows the flight crew to access various checklists.

1609
Q

How does the flight crew operate the electronic checklist?

A

Using cursor control devices (CCDs)

CCDs are used along with MFD selection as described in the System Description section.

1610
Q

What are the three types of checklists that can be displayed?

A
  • Normal
  • Non-normal for an EICAS message (annunciated)
  • Non-normal for a condition without an EICAS message (unannounced)

These categories help in managing different operational scenarios.

1611
Q

What happens after each normal checklist is completed?

A

Pushing the checklist display switch twice or selecting the normal key shows the next normal checklist in sequence

This allows for a systematic flow of checklists during flight operations.

1612
Q

How are some checklist steps checked off as complete?

A

Some must be checked off by the flight crew; others are automatically checked off

Automatic checks occur based on sensed flight deck control positions, airplane system status, or EICAS messages.

1613
Q

What indicates that a checklist can have more than one page?

A

Page keys show on the right side of the page

This feature is essential for longer checklists that require multiple pages.

1614
Q

What does ‘CONTINUED’ indicate at the bottom of a checklist page?

A

It indicates that there are more pages to the checklist

This helps the crew understand that they need to navigate to the next page.

1615
Q

What does the checklist complete indicator signify?

A

All line items are either complete, inactive, or overridden

The indicator appears at the bottom of all checklist pages when criteria are met.

1616
Q

What can the flight crew do if they choose not to complete a line item?

A

Override the line item with the line item override key

The text changes color to cyan when overridden, signaling non-completion.

1617
Q

What occurs when a checklist is completed and there are no additional checklists in the non-normal queue?

A

The cursor automatically moves to the normal checklist key

This facilitates a seamless transition to the next normal checklist.

1618
Q

True or False: Only one checklist can be displayed at a time.

A

True

This ensures that the flight crew can focus on one checklist without confusion.

1619
Q

What does the checklist complete indicator show?

A

It shows when all line items are either complete, inactive, or overridden, and every page has been shown.

1620
Q

How can a flight crew override a line item?

A

By using the line item override key at the bottom of the page.

1621
Q

What happens to the text when a line item is overridden?

A

The text changes color to cyan and the current line item box moves down to the next incomplete line item.

1622
Q

What is the effect of overriding a checklist?

A

The text of the entire checklist changes color to cyan, and the checklist overridden indicator shows at the bottom of all pages.

1623
Q

List the types of line items in a checklist

A
  • free text
  • action item
  • operational note
  • conditional
  • inhibit checklist
1624
Q

What color indicates incomplete line items?

A

White text.

1625
Q

What color indicates complete line items?

A

Green text with a complete indicator (a green check mark).

1626
Q

What color indicates overridden and inactive line items?

A

Cyan text.

1627
Q

What happens when the checklist is opened?

A

The current line item box moves to the first incomplete line item.

1628
Q

What are action items in a checklist?

A

Steps that require a flight crew action.

1629
Q

What are the two types of action items?

A
  • closed loop
  • open loop
1630
Q

What do closed loop action items do?

A

They continuously monitor the position of a flight deck switch, lever, or selector.

1631
Q

What happens to the action item color when the control is in the required position?

A

The action item color changes to green.

1632
Q

What indicates that a closed loop action item is complete?

A

A complete indicator shows to the left of the action item.

1633
Q

What does the checklist complete indicator show?

A

It shows when all line items are either complete, inactive, or overridden, and every page has been shown.

1634
Q

How can a flight crew override a line item?

A

By using the line item override key at the bottom of the page.

1635
Q

What happens to the text when a line item is overridden?

A

The text changes color to cyan and the current line item box moves down to the next incomplete line item.

1636
Q

What is the effect of overriding a checklist?

A

The text of the entire checklist changes color to cyan, and the checklist overridden indicator shows at the bottom of all pages.

1637
Q

List the types of line items in a checklist

A
  • free text
  • action item
  • operational note
  • conditional
  • inhibit checklist
1638
Q

What color indicates incomplete line items?

A

White text.

1639
Q

What color indicates complete line items?

A

Green text with a complete indicator (a green check mark).

1640
Q

What color indicates overridden and inactive line items?

A

Cyan text.

1641
Q

What happens when the checklist is opened?

A

The current line item box moves to the first incomplete line item.

1642
Q

What are action items in a checklist?

A

Steps that require a flight crew action.

1643
Q

What are the two types of action items?

A
  • closed loop
  • open loop
1644
Q

What do closed loop action items do?

A

They continuously monitor the position of a flight deck switch, lever, or selector.

1645
Q

What happens to the action item color when the control is in the required position?

A

The action item color changes to green.

1646
Q

What indicates that a closed loop action item is complete?

A

A complete indicator shows to the left of the action item.

1647
Q

What are open loop action items?

A

Open loop action items require the flight crew to manually confirm completion with the CCD and do not monitor control position or system state.

Open loop action items have an open loop indicator, a gray box to the left of the line item.

1648
Q

How do open loop action items visually indicate their status?

A

They have an open loop indicator, a gray box to the left of the line item.

When the cursor is within the current line item box or the open loop indicator, the action item color changes from white to green upon confirmation.

1649
Q

What are operational notes used for?

A

Operational notes are for the ongoing consequences of a non-normal condition, such as inoperative equipment or operational limitations.

The flight crew should read all operational notes, but the current line item box does not stop on an operational note because no immediate action is required.

1650
Q

What color is the text for operational notes?

A

White, unless inactive or overridden.

Active operational notes are stored on the operational notes page for easy access.

1651
Q

How can flight crews access the operational notes page?

A

By using the operational notes key at the bottom of the checklist page.

Active operational notes have a checklist reference with the title of the checklist from which they came.

1652
Q

What determines the status of an operational note?

A

The status of the operational note is based on the status of the EICAS message for the checklist with the note.

If the EICAS message blanks, unneeded notes can also blank from the notes page.

1653
Q

What are conditional line items in a checklist?

A

Conditional line items control the path through a complex checklist, stepping through or skipping line items based on a condition.

There are two types of conditional line items: open loop and closed loop.

1654
Q

What happens when a flight crew selects YES on an open loop conditional line item?

A

The line item indented below the conditional line item becomes active, and the current line item box moves to the first incomplete line item.

This allows the checklist to progress based on the crew’s input.

1655
Q

What happens when a flight crew selects NO on an open loop conditional line item?

A

The line items indented below become inactive and change color to cyan, and the current line item box skips the inactive items.

Inactive operational notes are also removed from the operational notes page.

1656
Q

What are the two types of conditional line items?

A

Open loop and closed loop.

Each type has different methods for managing the checklist flow.

1657
Q

Fill in the blank: Open loop conditional line items have choices labeled ______ and ______.

A

YES, NO

1658
Q

True or False: Inactive deferred line items have no effect on the checklist.

A

True

1659
Q

What happens to inactive operational notes?

A

Removed from the operational notes page.

1660
Q

What effect do inactive deferred line items have on checklists?

A

Removed from their normal checklist.

1661
Q

What are the options available for the flight crew after making a selection?

A

The YES - NO choices remain available.

1662
Q

What occurs when a flight crew selects YES on an open loop conditional line item within an exclusive set?

A

All other items are automatically set to NO.

1663
Q

True or False: If all but one item in a mutually exclusive set is selected NO, the last item is automatically set to YES.

A

False.

1664
Q

How does a closed loop conditional line item determine its selection?

A

Automatically based on monitored flight deck control, EICAS message, or airplane system state.

1665
Q

What color does a conditional line item change to if the condition is true?

A

Green.

1666
Q

What happens to the line items indented below a closed loop conditional line item if the condition is false?

A

Become inactive and change color to cyan.

1667
Q

What is the purpose of an inhibit checklist line item?

A

To remove unneeded non-normal checklists from the checklist queue.

1668
Q

Give an example of a primary EICAS alert message and its consequential message.

A

AUTO SPEEDBRAKE due to HYD PRESS SYS C condition.

1669
Q

What is indicated when an inhibit checklist line item is active?

A

The message for the primary condition shows.

1670
Q

Fill in the blank: An inhibit checklist line item shows as ‘Do not accomplish the following _______.

A

[checklist].

1671
Q

What happens to the checklist icon of a consequential EICAS message when inhibited?

A

The checklist icon is removed.

1672
Q

What is included in the primary checklist if a consequential checklist has necessary steps for the primary failure condition?

A

Steps, notes, and information needed.

1673
Q

What happens to the operational notes from a consequential checklist when inhibited?

A

Removed from the operational notes page.

1674
Q

What does the flight crew do concerning consequential EICAS alert messages?

A

Should do the checklist for the primary message.

1675
Q

What is the effect of an inhibit checklist line item on deferred line items?

A

Removed from the normal checklists.

1676
Q

What are deferred line items?

A

Items that are part of a non-normal checklist, but must be done later in the flight, usually during approach.

Deferred line items are automatically added to the end of a normal checklist when a non-normal checklist is opened.

1677
Q

When is a non-normal checklist with deferred items considered complete?

A

When all line items before the deferred line items are complete.

The checklist complete except deferred items indicator shows at the bottom of the page.

1678
Q

What happens if a non-normal condition occurs after the normal checklist is completed?

A

The non-normal checklist is complete when all line items, including the deferred line items, are complete.

1679
Q

What is the purpose of timers in checklists?

A

Timers help the flight crew keep track of time delays that are part of checklists.

1680
Q

Where is the timer displayed on the checklist page?

A

In the upper right hand corner of the checklist page.

1681
Q

What type of timers are used in the checklists?

A

Countdown timers.

1682
Q

When does a timer on a line item start?

A

When the line item just before it is complete.

1683
Q

What happens to the timer color when the timer is done?

A

It changes to amber.

1684
Q

What does the current line item box do when a timer is running?

A

It does not move to the next incomplete line item until the line item with the timer is complete and the timer is done.

1685
Q

Is the flight crew required to read additional information shown at the end of some non-normal checklists?

A

No.

1686
Q

What is precautionary text?

A

Critical information shown above a line item that the flight crew should read before doing the line item action.

1687
Q

How does the flight crew usually select checklists?

A

Using the checklist display switch on the display select panel and the normal and non-normal keys.

1688
Q

What key is used to exit the menu page to access normal and non-normal checklist keys?

A

Exit menu key.

1689
Q

Fill in the blank: Timers run in the background, allowing the flight crew to leave the checklist to accomplish other tasks and then return to the checklist. Timers are ______ when they are running.

A

white

1690
Q

True or False: The checklist menu operation can only be performed using physical keys.

A

False.

1691
Q

What are the two main types of menus in the Electronic Checklist (ECL)?

A

Normal Menu and Non-Normal Menu

Normal checklists are presented in sequence for a normal flight, while non-normal checklists are organized by airplane system.

1692
Q

How are non-normal checklists organized?

A

By airplane system with submenus

If a system has too many checklists, additional submenus group them by name.

1693
Q

What does the resets page display?

A

Checklist database part number, revision information, and manual resets

Manual resets include RESET NORMAL, RESET NON-NORMAL, and RESET ALL.

1694
Q

What is the purpose of the RESET NORMAL, RESET NON-NORMAL, and RESET ALL functions?

A

Intended for ground use only

Using these in flight can reset completed non-normal checklists and cause loss of operational notes.

1695
Q

What does the dual database feature allow?

A

Two ECL databases to be available

The flight crew can select either database on the RESETS menu when the airplane is on the ground and both engines are off.

1696
Q

What indicates the active database in the dual database feature?

A

A green diamond

The database selection keys are inhibited in flight.

1697
Q

What happens when the active ECL database is changed?

A

All checklists are reset

This action occurs when the database is switched.

1698
Q

What factors determine checklist priority?

A

Air/ground logic, fuel control switch, start selector position, EICAS message level

These factors influence which checklists are displayed first when the checklist display switch is pushed.

1699
Q

On the ground, what is the priority order for checklists when both fuel control switches are in CUTOFF?

A
  1. EICAS warning messages 2. NORMAL checklists

This order applies when both engine start selectors are in NORM.

1700
Q

What are the two main types of menus in the Electronic Checklist (ECL)?

A

Normal Menu and Non-Normal Menu

Normal checklists are presented in sequence for a normal flight, while non-normal checklists are organized by airplane system.

1701
Q

How are non-normal checklists organized?

A

By airplane system with submenus

If a system has too many checklists, additional submenus group them by name.

1702
Q

What does the resets page display?

A

Checklist database part number, revision information, and manual resets

Manual resets include RESET NORMAL, RESET NON-NORMAL, and RESET ALL.

1703
Q

What is the purpose of the RESET NORMAL, RESET NON-NORMAL, and RESET ALL functions?

A

Intended for ground use only

Using these in flight can reset completed non-normal checklists and cause loss of operational notes.

1704
Q

What does the dual database feature allow?

A

Two ECL databases to be available

The flight crew can select either database on the RESETS menu when the airplane is on the ground and both engines are off.

1705
Q

What indicates the active database in the dual database feature?

A

A green diamond

The database selection keys are inhibited in flight.

1706
Q

What happens when the active ECL database is changed?

A

All checklists are reset

This action occurs when the database is switched.

1707
Q

What factors determine checklist priority?

A

Air/ground logic, fuel control switch, start selector position, EICAS message level

These factors influence which checklists are displayed first when the checklist display switch is pushed.

1708
Q

On the ground, what is the priority order for checklists when both fuel control switches are in CUTOFF?

A
  1. EICAS warning messages 2. NORMAL checklists

This order applies when both engine start selectors are in NORM.

1709
Q

What is the priority for checklists when on the ground with fuel control switches in RUN?

A

• Checklists for any EICAS alert messages that have icons
• Incomplete unannunciated checklists
• NORMAL checklists

EICAS stands for Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System, which provides alerts to the flight crew.

1710
Q

How are normal electronic checklists used by the flight crew?

A

The flight crew does the normal procedures from memory, then they read the checklist to confirm the actions.

Normal checklists serve as a verification mechanism for the crew.

1711
Q

List the sequence of normal checklists.

A

• PREFLIGHT
• BEFORE START
• BEFORE TAXI
• BEFORE TAKEOFF
• AFTER TAKEOFF
• DESCENT
• APPROACH
• LANDING
• SHUTDOWN
• SECURE

This sequence helps ensure all necessary procedures are followed in order.

1712
Q

What happens when a completed normal checklist is opened from the menu?

A

It is reset.

This allows the flight crew to start the checklist process anew.

1713
Q

True or False: Normal checklists can only be accessed in a specific order.

A

False

The flight crew can open any normal checklist from the normal menu at any time.

1714
Q

What is the priority for checklists when on the ground with fuel control switches in RUN?

A

• Checklists for any EICAS alert messages that have icons
• Incomplete unannunciated checklists
• NORMAL checklists

EICAS stands for Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System, which provides alerts to the flight crew.

1715
Q

How are normal electronic checklists used by the flight crew?

A

The flight crew does the normal procedures from memory, then they read the checklist to confirm the actions.

Normal checklists serve as a verification mechanism for the crew.

1716
Q

List the sequence of normal checklists.

A

• PREFLIGHT
• BEFORE START
• BEFORE TAXI
• BEFORE TAKEOFF
• AFTER TAKEOFF
• DESCENT
• APPROACH
• LANDING
• SHUTDOWN
• SECURE

This sequence helps ensure all necessary procedures are followed in order.

1717
Q

What happens when a completed normal checklist is opened from the menu?

A

It is reset.

This allows the flight crew to start the checklist process anew.

1718
Q

True or False: Normal checklists can only be accessed in a specific order.

A

False

The flight crew can open any normal checklist from the normal menu at any time.

1719
Q

What indicates that a normal checklist is complete?

A

Checklist complete indicator (white text on a green background) shows at the bottom of the checklist page

1720
Q

What does the checklist overridden indicator look like?

A

White text on a cyan background shows at the bottom of the checklist page

1721
Q

What EICAS message alerts the crew about an incomplete normal checklist?

A

CHKL INCOMPLETE NORM

1722
Q

What color does the normal checklist key change to when one or more normal checklists are incomplete?

A

Amber

1723
Q

What are the critical flight phases that trigger incomplete normal checklist alerts?

A

Before taxi phase, before takeoff phase, approach phase, landing phase

1724
Q

When does the before taxi phase occur?

A

Occurs when the airplane is moved under its own power

1725
Q

When does the before takeoff phase occur?

A

Occurs when the airplane is on the FMC takeoff runway and aligned for takeoff

1726
Q

When does the approach phase occur?

A

Occurs when the airplane descends through the FMC transition altitude, and the flap handle is not in UP

1727
Q

When does the landing phase occur?

A

Occurs when the airplane descends below 500 feet above the FMC landing altitude

1728
Q

What happens to the CHKL INCOMPLETE NORM message when the normal checklist is complete or overridden?

A

The message shows until the normal checklist is complete or overridden

1729
Q

How are non-normal checklists used?

A

Used the same way as paper checklists and done by read-and-do

1730
Q

What should the flight crew do if a checklist has memory steps?

A

The flight crew does those steps before opening the checklist

1731
Q

How does the flight crew usually open annunciated non-normal checklists?

A

By pushing the checklist display switch

1732
Q

What determines which non-normal checklist shows automatically?

A

EICAS messages

1733
Q

What does it mean if an EICAS alert message has an icon?

A

The checklist for that message is incomplete or has not been opened

1734
Q

What happens if an EICAS alert message has no icon?

A

The checklist is complete, there is no checklist for the message, or another checklist inhibits the icon

1735
Q

What does pushing the checklist display switch do when an EICAS alert message with an icon shows?

A

Shows the checklist for that message

1736
Q

What happens if there are more than ten checklists in the non-normal checklist queue?

A

The queue has more than one page

1737
Q

What is the purpose of the checklist queue in the B787?

A

To display non-normal checklists in the same order as messages show on EICAS.

1738
Q

How does an EICAS alert message affect the checklist queue?

A

When an EICAS alert message shows, its checklist automatically goes into the queue.

1739
Q

What happens to the checklist queue when a checklist is completed?

A

The checklist is removed from the queue.

1740
Q

What occurs when a checklist is inhibited by another active checklist?

A

The inhibited checklist is removed from the queue.

1741
Q

How does the flight crew access checklists from the queue?

A

Using the CCD to select a checklist from the queue.

1742
Q

What happens to the non-normal checklist key when a checklist is open?

A

It returns to the queue if there are other non-normal checklists in the queue.

1743
Q

True or False: The checklist queue automatically updates with new EICAS messages.

A

False.

1744
Q

What are unannunciated checklists?

A

Checklists for conditions that do not have EICAS messages.

1745
Q

How can unannunciated checklists be accessed?

A

Only from menus.

1746
Q

What is the first submenu item on the non-normal menu?

A

UNANNUNCIATED CHECKLISTS.

1747
Q

What happens to an unannunciated checklist when it is opened?

A

It remains in the checklist queue until it is complete.

1748
Q

What must the flight crew do if they choose not to complete an unannunciated checklist?

A

The checklist must be overridden.

1749
Q

What indicates that a checklist is complete?

A

Checklist complete indicator (white text on a green background).

1750
Q

What does the checklist complete except deferred items indicator signify?

A

All line items in a checklist are complete or inactive, except for deferred items.

1751
Q

What does the checklist overridden indicator show?

A

Checklist overridden indicator (white text on a cyan background).

1752
Q

What color does the non-normal checklist key change to if a checklist is opened and not completed?

A

Amber.

1753
Q

What does the EICAS advisory message CHKL NON-NORMAL indicate?

A

There is a non-normal checklist in the queue, its EICAS message is blank, and ECL is not open.

1754
Q

What action must the flight crew take when the CHKL NON-NORMAL message is displayed?

A

Open ECL and complete the checklist.

1755
Q

What condition usually causes the hidden checklist alerting?

A

Completing checklist memory items that cause the EICAS message to blank.

1756
Q

Fill in the blank: When an unannunciated checklist is partially completed, the _______ is closed.

A

ECL.

1757
Q

What is the purpose of the checklist queue in the B787?

A

To display non-normal checklists in the same order as messages show on EICAS.

1758
Q

How does an EICAS alert message affect the checklist queue?

A

When an EICAS alert message shows, its checklist automatically goes into the queue.

1759
Q

What happens to the checklist queue when a checklist is completed?

A

The checklist is removed from the queue.

1760
Q

What occurs when a checklist is inhibited by another active checklist?

A

The inhibited checklist is removed from the queue.

1761
Q

How does the flight crew access checklists from the queue?

A

Using the CCD to select a checklist from the queue.

1762
Q

What happens to the non-normal checklist key when a checklist is open?

A

It returns to the queue if there are other non-normal checklists in the queue.

1763
Q

True or False: The checklist queue automatically updates with new EICAS messages.

A

False.

1764
Q

What are unannunciated checklists?

A

Checklists for conditions that do not have EICAS messages.

1765
Q

How can unannunciated checklists be accessed?

A

Only from menus.

1766
Q

What is the first submenu item on the non-normal menu?

A

UNANNUNCIATED CHECKLISTS.

1767
Q

What happens to an unannunciated checklist when it is opened?

A

It remains in the checklist queue until it is complete.

1768
Q

What must the flight crew do if they choose not to complete an unannunciated checklist?

A

The checklist must be overridden.

1769
Q

What indicates that a checklist is complete?

A

Checklist complete indicator (white text on a green background).

1770
Q

What does the checklist complete except deferred items indicator signify?

A

All line items in a checklist are complete or inactive, except for deferred items.

1771
Q

What does the checklist overridden indicator show?

A

Checklist overridden indicator (white text on a cyan background).

1772
Q

What color does the non-normal checklist key change to if a checklist is opened and not completed?

A

Amber.

1773
Q

What does the EICAS advisory message CHKL NON-NORMAL indicate?

A

There is a non-normal checklist in the queue, its EICAS message is blank, and ECL is not open.

1774
Q

What action must the flight crew take when the CHKL NON-NORMAL message is displayed?

A

Open ECL and complete the checklist.

1775
Q

What condition usually causes the hidden checklist alerting?

A

Completing checklist memory items that cause the EICAS message to blank.

1776
Q

Fill in the blank: When an unannunciated checklist is partially completed, the _______ is closed.

A

ECL.

1777
Q

What is a hidden non-normal checklist condition?

A

Occurs when checklist memory items are completed, causing the EICAS message to blank, but a checklist is still in the queue

This can also occur when an unannunciated checklist is partially completed and the ECL is closed.

1778
Q

What does the checklist icon indicate when it shows with the CHKL NON-NORMAL message?

A

Alerts the flight crew to open the checklist, but there is no non-normal checklist for this BICAS message

This indicates the need to check a checklist that may not be visible.

1779
Q

What are latched non-normal checklists?

A

Checklists that stay in effect for the rest of the flight, even if the associated EICAS message blanks

Used for conditions like FIRE ENG, where effects last until the flight is completed.

1780
Q

How does a checklist become latched?

A

When the checklist icon shows with the EICAS message or when the checklist is opened from the menu without the message

All unannunciated checklists are latched, while only some annunciated checklists are.

1781
Q

What happens when a checklist is reset?

A

All action items and conditionals become incomplete, and the current line item box moves to the first incomplete line item

This allows the flight crew to start the checklist over.

1782
Q

What conditions lead to automatic resets of normal checklists?

A
  1. Go-around
  2. Touch-and-go
  3. Normal menu selection

These conditions trigger resets for checklists beginning with the AFTER TAKEOFF checklist.

1783
Q

What is the function of the RESET NORMAL key?

A

Resets all normal checklists, allowing the flight sequence to begin again

This is a manual reset option available to the flight crew.

1784
Q

What is an individual checklist reset?

A

Resets the current checklist so it can be started again

This is done using the checklist reset key at the bottom of a checklist page.

1785
Q

True or False: Latched checklists can have their effects canceled during the flight.

A

False

Latched checklists remain in effect for the entire flight.

1786
Q

Fill in the blank: Automatic checklist resets occur for conditions such as _______.

A

go-around, touch-and-go, normal menu selection

These conditions automatically reset all normal checklists starting with AFTER TAKEOFF.

1787
Q

What does the RESET NON-NORMAL key do?

A

Resets all non-normal checklists and shows icons on any active EICAS messages with previously completed checklists

Use in flight is not recommended.

1788
Q

What is the function of the individual checklist reset key?

A

Resets the current checklist allowing it to be started again

Located at the bottom of a checklist page.

1789
Q

What does the RESET ALL key do?

A

Resets all normal and non-normal checklists, beginning the flight sequence again for normal checklists

Use in flight is not recommended.

1790
Q

What are the two types of override functions?

A

Item override and checklist override

Each serves different purposes during checklist management.

1791
Q

When does the flight crew use item override?

A

When they choose not to complete an action item despite it being done

Allows the checklist to be marked complete.

1792
Q

What happens when an item is overridden?

A

The color of the item changes to cyan

Applies to both closed loop and open loop action items.

1793
Q

Which action items cannot be overridden?

A

Conditional line items cannot be overridden

Action items indented below a conditional line item can be overridden.

1794
Q

What does checklist override do?

A

Overrides the current checklist and changes all line items to cyan

Also removes operational notes for non-normal checklists.

1795
Q

What is indicated when a checklist is overridden?

A

A checklist overridden indicator shows at the bottom of the page

This helps the crew track which checklists have been modified.

1796
Q

What happens to deferred line items when a non-normal checklist is overridden?

A

Deferred line items are removed from their normal checklists

This maintains clarity in the checklist management process.

1797
Q

Fill in the blank: The flight crew can override the current checklist using the _______.

A

[checklist override key]

1798
Q

True or False: The use of the RESET ALL function in flight is recommended.

A

False

It is not recommended to use this function during flight.

1799
Q

What message appears on the MFD if the electronic checklist system is inoperative?

A

CHECKLIST NOT AVAILABLE

This indicates that the checklist display switch has been pushed but the system is not operational.

1800
Q

What message is displayed on the MFD if the electronic checklist system has been disabled by maintenance?

A

CHECKLIST DISABLED

This message indicates that maintenance has intentionally disabled the electronic checklist system.

1801
Q

What happens to checklist icons when the electronic checklist system is inoperative or disabled?

A

Checklist icons do not show with any EICAS messages.

This implies that the system’s functionality is limited when it is not operational.

1802
Q

What is the primary purpose of the Electronic Flight Bag (EFB)?

A

Assist flight crew with routine tasks, enhance security, and reduce reliance on paper documents.

The EFB is designed to streamline operations and improve efficiency in the cockpit.

1803
Q

Where are the EFB display units located in the aircraft?

A

In the left and right side panels.

These units operate independently but can share information.

1804
Q

What types of user interactions are primarily used with the EFB display units?

A

Manipulating bezel keys or using the touch screen.

Pilots can also use a cursor control device or an optional keyboard.

1805
Q

How can the suite of applications available on the EFB be modified?

A

By the airline, which can revise application names and define the order of applications.

Customization allows airlines to tailor the EFB to their operations.

1806
Q

What is the main interface between the flight crew and the EFB?

A

The display unit.

It incorporates a touch screen and multiple keys for user interaction.

1807
Q

How many line select keys are located on the display unit?

A

16 vertically located line select keys.

These keys are arranged 8 on both sides for navigation.

1808
Q

Fill in the blank: The EFB can display information from the _______ unit.

A

off-side

This feature allows for better information sharing between display units.

1809
Q

True or False: The EFB is intended to provide a complete description of each function within its applications.

A

False

The EFB documentation assumes users understand basic operations.

1810
Q

What types of applications can be installed on the EFB?

A

Third party applications may also be installed.

This expands the functionality of the EFB beyond standard offerings.

1811
Q

What is the first step in initializing a flight on the B787?

A

The flight is initialized during the CDU/EFB Preflight Procedure

1812
Q

What information is collected from the airplane systems during flight initialization?

A
  • flight deck date and time
  • GPS latitude, longitude, date, and time
  • true and magnetic heading
  • origin and destination airports
  • flight number
  • airplane tail number
  • several performance data points
  • departure runway
  • outside air temperature
  • altimeter setting
  • gross weight (if zero fuel weight entered)
1813
Q

What happens to applications during flight initialization?

A

All applications are reset to the start-up default settings

1814
Q

How do you select to initialize the flight from the EFB?

A

Select INITIALIZE FLIGHT from the MAIN MENU page

1815
Q

What indicates that certain application soft keys are unavailable during initialization?

A

Certain application soft keys turn cyan

1816
Q

What must be done before initializing a new flight if the INITIALIZE FLIGHT soft key is not available?

A

The current flight must be closed

1817
Q

What action should be taken at the end of the flight regarding the EFB?

A

Select CLOSE FLIGHT from the MAIN MENU page

1818
Q

What does closing a flight do to the EFB application data?

A

It effectively deletes all flight-specific information from memory

1819
Q

What is the effect of a complete power down of the EFB?

A

It accomplishes a similar function for non-persistent application data

1820
Q

Fill in the blank: To initialize a flight, select _______ from the MAIN MENU page.

A

[INITIALIZE FLIGHT]

1821
Q

True or False: The flight initialization process retains all information from the previous flight crew.

A

False

1822
Q

What is the first step in initializing a flight on the B787?

A

The flight is initialized during the CDU/EFB Preflight Procedure

1823
Q

What information is collected from the airplane systems during flight initialization?

A
  • flight deck date and time
  • GPS latitude, longitude, date, and time
  • true and magnetic heading
  • origin and destination airports
  • flight number
  • airplane tail number
  • several performance data points
  • departure runway
  • outside air temperature
  • altimeter setting
  • gross weight (if zero fuel weight entered)
1824
Q

What happens to applications during flight initialization?

A

All applications are reset to the start-up default settings

1825
Q

How do you select to initialize the flight from the EFB?

A

Select INITIALIZE FLIGHT from the MAIN MENU page

1826
Q

What indicates that certain application soft keys are unavailable during initialization?

A

Certain application soft keys turn cyan

1827
Q

What must be done before initializing a new flight if the INITIALIZE FLIGHT soft key is not available?

A

The current flight must be closed

1828
Q

What action should be taken at the end of the flight regarding the EFB?

A

Select CLOSE FLIGHT from the MAIN MENU page

1829
Q

What does closing a flight do to the EFB application data?

A

It effectively deletes all flight-specific information from memory

1830
Q

What is the effect of a complete power down of the EFB?

A

It accomplishes a similar function for non-persistent application data

1831
Q

Fill in the blank: To initialize a flight, select _______ from the MAIN MENU page.

A

[INITIALIZE FLIGHT]

1832
Q

True or False: The flight initialization process retains all information from the previous flight crew.

A

False

1833
Q

What does the video surveillance application on the EFB provide?

A

Immediate real-time video surveillance of the area outside the flight deck entrance

Expanded video surveillance is available for other parts of the airplane if installed.

1834
Q

How do you start the video surveillance application on the EFB?

A

Select VIDEO from the EFB MAIN MENU page

1835
Q

What does the VIDEO SURVEILLANCE page display?

A

The default view set by the administrator when the application is started

1836
Q

What happens when the flight deck IFE/PASS SEATS power switch is turned OFF?

A

Disables the video surveillance cameras

1837
Q

How many video images are displayed on the Video Surveillance page?

A

Four video images

1838
Q

What is the primary image on the Video Surveillance page?

A

An enlarged duplicate view of the currently selected thumbnail image

1839
Q

What indicates that the current thumbnail and primary image are selected and operating?

A

Both are bordered in green

1840
Q

How can you select a different thumbnail to display in the primary image area?

A

Touch the thumbnail view on the screen or use the cursor device to highlight and select the thumbnail

1841
Q

What does the FREEZE soft key do?

A

Stops the video and displays a still image

1842
Q

What visual change occurs when the FREEZE function is activated?

A

The image border changes from green to cyan

1843
Q

What happens when the UNFREEZE soft key is selected?

A

Returns to live video

1844
Q

What additional options become available when selecting the SHOW MENU soft key?

A

Options for changing the display

1845
Q

What does the BRIGHT + soft key do?

A

Increases the brightness of the image

1846
Q

What does the BRIGHT - soft key do?

A

Decreases the brightness of the image

1847
Q

What does the HIDE MENU soft key do?

A

Returns to the thumbnail Video Surveillance page

1848
Q

Fill in the blank: Selecting the _____ soft key stops the video and displays a still image.

A

FREEZE

1849
Q

True or False: The primary image and the currently selected thumbnail image are always different.

A

False