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787 > CH4 AUTOMATIC FLIGHT > Flashcards

CH4 AUTOMATIC FLIGHT Flashcards

1
Q

What is the function of the Autopilot (A/P) Engage Switches?

A

Engages the autopilot when pushed

The switches are inhibited on the ground with flaps out of up

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2
Q

What happens when the flight director switches are both OFF?

A

The autopilot engages in heading hold (HDG HOLD) or track hold (TRK HOLD) as roll mode, or attitude hold (ATT) if bank angle > 5°; vertical speed (V/S) or flight path angle (FPA) as pitch mode

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3
Q

When does the Autopilot Engaged Light illuminate?

A

When all operating autopilots are engaged

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4
Q

What does the left flight director switch control?

A

Activates flight director steering indications on the left PFD and HUD

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5
Q

What does the right flight director switch control?

A

Activates flight director steering indications on the right PFD and HUD

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6
Q

What does the first flight director switch do when positioned ON on the ground?

A

Arms the flight director in takeoff go-around (TO/GA) roll and pitch modes

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7
Q

What mode does the autopilot engage when both flight director switches are OFF in flight?

A

Heading hold (HDG HOLD) or track hold (TRK HOLD) as roll mode, or attitude hold (ATT) if bank angle > 5°; vertical speed (V/S) or flight path angle (FPA) as pitch mode

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8
Q

What does positioning the second flight director switch ON do in flight?

A

Displays flight direction steering indications on the second PFD and HUD

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9
Q

What is the role of the first flight director switch in flight when the autopilot is engaged?

A

Activates the flight director in the currently selected autopilot mode(s)

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10
Q

Fill in the blank: The Autopilot is inhibited on the ground with the flaps out of _______.

A

up

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11
Q

What happens when the flight director is turned OFF?

A

The flight director steering indications do not display unless a TO/GA switch is pushed when airspeed is greater than 80 knots and flaps are out of up

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12
Q

What does pulling down the Autopilot (A/P) DISENGAGE Bar do?

A

Disengages all autopilots and displays the EICAS warning message AUTOPILOT DISC

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13
Q

What warning is sounded when the Autopilot (A/P) DISENGAGE Bar is pulled down?

A

An aural warning is sounded

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14
Q

What visual indicators are activated when the Autopilot (A/P) DISENGAGE Bar is pulled down?

A

Illuminates the master warning lights and displays EICAS advisory message NO AUTOLAND

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15
Q

What is disabled when the Autopilot (A/P) DISENGAGE Bar is pulled down?

A

Bank angle protection is disabled

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16
Q

What happens to the amber and black stripes when the Autopilot (A/P) DISENGAGE Bar is pulled down?

A

Exposes the amber and black stripes

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17
Q

What does lifting up the Autopilot (A/P) DISENGAGE Bar do?

A

Enables autopilot engagement and bank angle protection

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18
Q

What visual indicators are hidden when the Autopilot (A/P) DISENGAGE Bar is lifted up?

A

Hides the amber and black stripes

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19
Q

What does the left autothrottle arm switch control?

A

The left engine autothrottle

The right autothrottle arm switch controls the right engine autothrottle.

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20
Q

What does the ‘OFF’ position of the autothrottle arm switch do?

A

Disconnects the selected autothrottle and prevents selected autothrottle activation

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21
Q

What happens when the Climb/Continuous (CLB/CON) Thrust Switch is pushed with two engines operating?

A

Changes the engine thrust limit to the FMC selected climb thrust

If only one engine is operating, it changes the thrust limit to maximum continuous (CON).

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22
Q

When is the Climb/Continuous (CLB/CON) Thrust Switch inoperative?

A

On the ground and below 400 feet during takeoff

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23
Q

What does pushing the Autothrottle (A/T) Engage Switch do?

A

Activates the appropriate autothrottle mode for the selected AFDS pitch mode above 400 feet

If no pitch mode is selected, it activates in speed (SPD) mode.

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24
Q

What does the illuminated (white) Autothrottle Engaged Light indicate?

A

An autothrottle mode is activated

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25
Q

What does the ‘L’ and ‘R’ indicate on the autothrottle arm switches?

A

Arms the selected autothrottle for mode activation

The selected autothrottle activates automatically when an AFDS mode (VNAV, FLCH, or TO/GA) is selected.

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26
Q

Fill in the blank: The autothrottle arm switch controls the _______ engine autothrottle.

A

[left or right]

Each switch corresponds to its respective engine.

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27
Q

True or False: The autothrottle can be activated below 400 feet during takeoff.

A

False

The autothrottle is inoperative below this altitude.

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28
Q

What does the IAS/MACH reference switch do?

A

Alternately changes the IAS/MACH window between IAS and MACH displays

Mach must be 0.4 or greater to switch from IAS to Mach. It is inoperative when the IAS/MACH window is blank.

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29
Q

When is the IAS/MACH window blank?

A

When the FMC controls the speed

It also displays specific speeds when changing from TO/GA to V/S, FPA, or ALT.

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30
Q

What speed displays when changing from TO/GA to V/S with flaps extended?

A

Flap placard speed minus 5 knots

The other display options include 250 knots (flaps up) or a speed value entered in the IAS/MACH window.

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31
Q

What is the display range for IAS/MACH?

A

100 - 399 KIAS and 400 - 950 Mach

The selected speed displays as the PFD selected speed and as the range to target speed dot (green) on the VSD.

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32
Q

What does the IAS/MACH window display when power is first applied?

A

Upper line displays 200 knots and lower line is blank

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33
Q

At what Mach does the system automatically change from IAS to MACH during climb?

A

840 Mach

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34
Q

At what KIAS does the system automatically change from MACH to IAS during descent?

A

310 KIAS

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35
Q

What action is taken with the IAS/MACH selector?

A

Rotate to select speed

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36
Q

What does the IAS/MACH Selector do?

A

Sets the speed on the upper line of the IAS/MACH window as the selected speed on both the PFD and HUD

The IAS/MACH Selector is inoperative when the IAS/MACH window is blank.

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37
Q

What happens when VNAV is active and the IAS/MACH window is closed?

A

The FMC computed target speed is active and displays on both the PFD and HUD

The IAS/MACH window can be opened or closed alternately with VNAV active.

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38
Q

What is the function of the Uplink Transfer (XFR) Switch?

A

Transfers the IAS or Mach value from the lower line to the upper line

If the upper line was blank/closed, it opens to the uplinked ATC value.

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39
Q

How is the ATC uplinked speed clearance always enabled?

A

By pushing the datalink accept (ACPT) switch, which displays the clearance IAS or Mach value in the lower line of the window

If the upper line was blank/closed, it remains unchanged.

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40
Q

What does pushing the datalink cancel (CANC) switch do?

A

Removes the clearance from the lower line

This action occurs if the upper line was blank/closed.

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41
Q

What is indicated by uplinked clearances?

A

They are preceded by the letters ‘UL’

This signifies that the clearance has been uplinked from ATC.

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42
Q

What happens with conditional clearances when the accept (ACPT) switch is pushed?

A

The clearance IAS or Mach value displays in the lower line only after the condition contained in the clearance is met

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43
Q

Fill in the blank: The IAS/MACH window is _______ when it is blank.

A

[inoperative]

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44
Q

True or False: The IAS/MACH Selector can be used to set the desired speed when the window is closed.

A

False

The desired speed can only be set when the IAS/MACH window is open and FMC speed-intervention is active.

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45
Q

What are the two modes of the IAS/MACH Selector when VNAV is active?

A

Open and closed

Each mode affects how speed is displayed and managed on the PFD and HUD.

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46
Q

What occurs to the lower line after the Uplink Transfer (XFR) Switch is activated?

A

Lower line blanks after the transfer

This indicates that the value has been moved to the upper line.

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47
Q

What does the Lateral Navigation (LNAV) Switch do when pushed?

A

Arms, selects, or disarms LNAV as the roll mode

LNAV is inoperative when the active roll mode is either LOC or FAC and the active pitch mode is G/S or G/P.

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48
Q

What does LNAV display when armed?

A

Displays LNAV as armed mode on PFD (in white) and HUD roll flight mode annunciator

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49
Q

Under what conditions does LNAV activate?

A

When the airplane is above 50 feet radio altitude and:
* within 2.5 NM of the active leg
* on an intercept heading to the active leg

When not within 2.5 NM of the active leg and on an intercept heading, it remains armed until approaching the active leg.

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50
Q

What does LNAV display when it is active?

A

Displays LNAV in green on the PFD and HUD roll flight mode annunciations

Indicates active engagement of LNAV.

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51
Q

What happens if LNAV is selected when the airplane is not on a heading to intercept the active leg?

A

Displays FMC INTERCEPT HDG EICAS advisory message

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52
Q

What does the CDU help window display when LNAV is selected with no active FMC route available?

A

Displays NO ACTIVE ROUTE

Indicates that LNAV cannot engage without a route.

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53
Q

When does LNAV maintain the current heading?

A

When:
* passing the last active route waypoint
* passing the last waypoint prior to a route discontinuity
* passing the last route offset waypoint
* activating the inactive route or airway intercept not within LNAV engagement criteria

LNAV disengagement occurs under specific conditions.

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54
Q

When does LNAV automatically activate during a go-around?

A

At 50 feet radio altitude with flight director only or 200 feet radio altitude with autopilot engaged

Requires a valid missed approach path to activate.

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55
Q

What happens if no missed approach path is available during a go-around?

A

The roll bar blanks, the flight director guidance cue on the HUD blanks, and LNAV stays shown in the FMA

Indicates that LNAV is not engaged due to lack of guidance.

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56
Q

How can LNAV be deactivated?

A

By:
* engaging any other roll mode
* disengaging the autopilot
* turning both flight directors off

This includes actions like selecting heading hold or track hold.

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57
Q

What actions deactivate LNAV aside from engaging other roll modes?

A

By selecting:
* heading hold (HDG HOLD)
* track hold (TRK HOLD)
* heading select (HDG SEL)
* track select (TRK SEL)

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58
Q

What deactivates LNAV?

A

LNAV is deactivated by:
* Selecting heading hold (HDG HOLD) or track hold (TRK HOLD)
* Selecting heading select (HDG SEL) or track select (TRK SEL)
* LOC or FAC capture
* Dual or triple FMC failure

LNAV may be reselected if one FMC remains functional.

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59
Q

How is LNAV disarmed?

A

LNAV is disarmed by:
* Pushing the LNAV switch a second time
* Arming LOC/FAC or APP

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60
Q

What does an illuminated LNAV light indicate?

A

An illuminated (white) LNAV light indicates that the LNAV mode is armed or active.

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61
Q

What does the VNAV switch do when pushed?

A

The VNAV switch:
* Arms, selects, or disarms VNAV as the pitch mode
* Is inoperative when the active roll mode is LOC or FAC and the active pitch mode is G/S or G/P

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62
Q

When does VNAV activate?

A

VNAV activates 400 feet above field elevation.

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63
Q

What are the active pitch modes in VNAV?

A

Active pitch modes in VNAV are:
* VNAV SPD
* VNAV PTH
* VNAV ALT

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64
Q

What does VNAV SPD do?

A

In VNAV SPD pitch mode, the AFDS commands pitch to hold target airspeed.

The autothrottle operates in THR REF, THR, IDLE, or HOLD mode as required.

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65
Q

What does VNAV PTH do?

A

In VNAV PTH pitch mode, the AFDS commands pitch to maintain FMC target altitude or the VNAV path.

This mode ensures the aircraft follows the planned vertical profile.

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66
Q

What happens in VNAV ALT pitch mode?

A

In VNAV ALT pitch mode, the AFDS commands pitch to maintain the MCP selected altitude under specific conditions.

This mode is active when altitude management is necessary during climb or descent.

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67
Q

What is the function of the autothrottle in VNAV modes?

A

The autothrottle operates to maintain speed based on the selected VNAV mode:
* VNAV SPD - holds target airspeed
* VNAV PTH - maintains speed
* VNAV ALT - maintains altitude

This ensures efficient flight operations.

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68
Q

True or False: VNAV is always active when selected.

A

False

VNAV may be inoperative under certain conditions, affecting its activation.

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69
Q

What does the AFDS command in VNAV ALT pitch mode when the MCP selected altitude is lower than the VNAV commanded altitude during climb?

A

The AFDS commands pitch to maintain the MCP selected altitude

The VNAV ALT pitch mode operates to ensure altitude stability during climbs and descents.

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70
Q

What happens when VNAV commands a descent with the MCP altitude window above the current airplane altitude?

A

The autopilot maintains the altitude at which VNAV was selected

This ensures that the aircraft does not descend below a predetermined altitude during VNAV operations.

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71
Q

In what scenario does selecting the missed approach altitude not interfere with the VNAV descent?

A

When on an instrument approach using VNAV

This allows pilots to manage altitude changes without disrupting VNAV commands.

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72
Q

What does the autopilot maintain when VNAV commands a climb with the MCP altitude window below the current airplane altitude?

A

The autopilot maintains the altitude at which VNAV is selected

This prevents unintended altitude changes during climb phases.

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73
Q

What mode does the autothrottle operate in when VNAV ALT pitch mode is active?

A

Speed (SPD) mode

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74
Q

What are the autothrottle operating modes when VNAV PTH pitch mode is active during climb or cruise?

A

Speed (SPD) mode

This allows for efficient climb and cruise performance.

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75
Q

What autothrottle modes are available for descent in VNAV PTH pitch mode?

A

IDLE, HOLD, or speed (SPD) mode

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76
Q

Is VNAV pitch guidance available with one engine inoperative?

A

Yes

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77
Q

What actions deactivate VNAV?

A

Selecting TO/GA, FLCH SPD, V/S, FPA, ALT, G/S or G/P pitch mode, dual FMC failure, or all three FMCs fail

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78
Q

How can VNAV be disarmed?

A

By pushing the VNAV switch a second time or arming APP

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79
Q

What does an illuminated VNAV light indicate?

A

The VNAV mode is armed or active

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80
Q

What does the FLCH Switch select?

A

FLCH SPD pitch mode

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81
Q

When is the FLCH Switch inoperative?

A

When the active roll mode is either LOC or FAC and the active pitch mode is either G/S or G/P

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82
Q

What displays on the PFD and HUD when FLCH SPD is selected?

A

Pitch flight mode annunciation as the pitch mode

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83
Q

What happens when the IAS/MACH window is blank?

A

It opens to the FMC target speed, if valid; otherwise, it opens to the current speed

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84
Q

What does the IAS/MACH window display when it is open?

A

Command speed

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85
Q

What does AFDS pitch hold?

A

MCP selected speed

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86
Q

What happens when the MCP selected altitude is captured?

A

Pitch flight mode annunciation changes to ALT

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87
Q

What mode does A/T operate in during descent?

A

THR

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88
Q

What is displayed during descent when thrust is retarded to idle?

A

HOLD

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89
Q

What happens when MCP selected altitude is captured during a descent?

A

A/T mode changes to SPD

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90
Q

For climbs between 1,000 feet and 12,000 feet of altitude change, what does the A/T do?

A

Advances the thrust levers to as high as the current thrust limit to provide an approximately 2 minute climb

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91
Q

For descents between 2,000 feet and 16,000 feet of altitude change, what does the A/T do?

A

Retards the thrust levers to as low as idle to provide an approximately 2 minute descent

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92
Q

What does the Flight Level Change Light indicate when illuminated (white)?

A

The flight level change mode is active

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93
Q

What does the Heading/Track (HDG/TRK) Reference Switch do?

A

Alternately changes the upper line of the heading/track window, PFD, HUD, and ND selected heading/track references between heading and track

Also changes the PFD and HUD roll flight mode annunciations when the HDG or TRK mode is active.

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94
Q

What is displayed in the Heading/Track Window?

A

Upper line displays selected heading or track; lower line displays uplinked ATC heading or track target

The selected heading or track displays on the PFD, HUD, and ND.

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95
Q

What happens when approach is armed regarding the MCP window?

A

The heading/track in the MCP window automatically changes to the approach course at LOC or FAC capture.

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96
Q

What does the upper line display when power is first applied?

A

Displays 360° and the lower line is blank.

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97
Q

When is the ATC uplink function enabled?

A

When the upper window and uplinked clearances are both heading values or both track values.

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98
Q

What occurs when the datalink accept (ACPT) switch is pushed?

A

Displays the clearance heading or track value in the lower line of the window for immediate clearances.

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99
Q

What does the transfer (XFR) switch do?

A

Transfers the value from the lower line to the upper line.

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100
Q

What does pushing the datalink cancel (CANC) switch do?

A

Removes the clearance from the lower line.

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101
Q

What is displayed for conditional clearances after pushing the accept (ACPT) switch?

A

The new heading or track value automatically in the lower line only after the clearance condition is met.

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102
Q

What precedes uplinked clearances?

A

The letters ‘UL’.

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103
Q

What does the Uplink Transfer (XFR) Switch do?

A

Transfers the value from the lower line to the upper line; lower line blanks after the transfer.

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104
Q

What does the BANK LIMIT Selector set?

A

Sets the AFDS commanded bank limit when in the heading select (HDG SEL) or track select (TRK SEL) roll mode.

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105
Q

What are the possible settings for the BANK LIMIT Selector?

A
  • AUTO - varies between 15° - 25°, depending on TAS
  • 10°
  • 15°
  • 20°
  • 25°
  • 30°

The selected value is the maximum, regardless of airspeed.

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106
Q

What does the Heading/Track Selector do?

A

Sets heading or track in the heading/track window and on the PFDs, HUDs, and NDs

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107
Q

What happens when the Heading/Track Selector is turned with HDG SEL or TRK SEL active?

A

The airplane will turn in the direction of knob rotation to achieve the selected heading or track

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108
Q

What does the Heading/Track Select (SEL) Switch do when pushed?

A

Selects heading select (HDG SEL) or track select (TRK SEL) as the roll mode

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109
Q

When is the Heading/Track Select (SEL) Switch inoperative?

A

When the active roll mode is either LOC or FAC and the active pitch mode is either G/S or G/P

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110
Q

What does the AFDS do when HDG SEL or TRK SEL is active?

A

Turns the airplane in the direction of least heading change to achieve the selected heading or track

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111
Q

What does the Heading/Track Hold (HOLD) Switch do when pushed?

A

Selects heading hold (HDG HOLD) or track hold (TRK HOLD) as the roll mode

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112
Q

What does the Heading/Track Hold Light indicate?

A

Shows the current active roll mode of HDG HOLD or TRK HOLD on the PFD and HUD

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113
Q

What is the function of the bank limit selector?

A

Limits the bank when the AFDS is turning the airplane to achieve the selected heading or track

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114
Q

Fill in the blank: The _______ displays HDG SEL or TRK SEL on the PFD and HUD roll flight mode annunciator.

A

[Heading/Track Select (SEL) Switch]

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115
Q

True or False: The Heading/Track Hold (HOLD) Switch is operational when the active roll mode is LOC.

A

False

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116
Q

What does the illuminated (white) heading/track HOLD light indicate?

A

The heading/track HOLD mode is active.

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117
Q

What controls are found on the Mode Control Panel (MCP)?

A
  • Autopilot Flight Director Heading
  • Track
  • Bank Angle Controls
  • Vertical Speed (V/S) Controls
  • Flight Path Angle (FPA) Controls
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118
Q

What is the function of the V/S - FPA Reference Switch?

A

Alternately changes the vertical speed/flight path angle window and PFD references between vertical speed and flight path angle.

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119
Q

What does the Vertical Speed/Flight Path Angle (V/S - FPA) Window display?

A

Displays the selected vertical speed in 100 fpm increments or the selected flight path angle in 0.1 degree increments.

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120
Q

Fill in the blank: The _______ mode annunciation changes if the V/S or FPA mode is active.

A

[PFD / HUD pitch flight]

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121
Q

True or False: The Mode Control Panel includes controls for both vertical speed and bank angle.

A

True

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122
Q

What does the V/S - FPA switch display on the PFD and HUD?

A

Displays V/S or FPA and pitch flight mode annunciation

It also shows a dashed line on the VSD indicating selected vertical speed as a target angle when V/S mode is selected.

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123
Q

What does the V/S - FPA light indicate when illuminated (white)?

A

The vertical speed/flight path angle mode is active.

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124
Q

What does AFDS command when V/S or FPA is selected?

A

Commands pitch to maintain the vertical speed or flight path angle displayed in the vertical speed/flight path angle window.

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125
Q

What happens when the selected altitude is reached in V/S or FPA mode?

A

The pitch mode changes to ALT.

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126
Q

What does the current vertical speed or flight path angle display in?

A

Displays in the vertical speed/flight path angle window.

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127
Q

What is the behavior of the autothrottle when V/S or FPA is selected while in FLCH or VNAV?

A

The autothrottle activates in speed (SPD) mode when armed.

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128
Q

What does the illuminated (white) indication on the Mode Control Panel (MCP) signify?

A

The vertical speed/flight path angle mode is active.

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129
Q

What does the V/S - FPA Selector do?

A

Sets the vertical speed or flight path angle in the vertical speed/flight path angle window and on the PFDs.

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130
Q

What does the ALTITUDE control on the autopilot do?

A

Displays the selected altitude and uplinked ATC altitude target.

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131
Q

What information is displayed in the altitude window on the Mode Control Panel?

A

Upper line displays the selected altitude; lower line displays an uplinked ATC altitude target.

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132
Q

What is the altitude range supported by the altitude controls?

A

0 to 50,000 feet.

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133
Q

What does the selected altitude indicate on the PFD and HUD?

A

Displays on the altitude tapes and the vertical situation display (VSD).

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134
Q

Fill in the blank: The vertical speed/flight path angle mode can be controlled using the _______.

A

[V/S - FPA Selector]

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135
Q

True or False: The altitude alerting and level off reference is based on the displayed altitude.

A

True

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136
Q

What happens to the upper line of the altitude display when power is first applied?

A

Displays 10,000 feet and the lower line is blank

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137
Q

What is transmitted to ATC when a Eurocontrol compliant transponder is installed?

A

Displayed altitude

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138
Q

What are the increment options for the Altitude Increment Selector (outer)?

A
  • AUTO
  • 1000
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139
Q

In AUTO mode, how does the altitude selector change?

A

Changes in 100 foot increments

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140
Q

What does the altitude selector display as it passes through the BARO minimum?

A

Displays the selected BARO minimum

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141
Q

What happens when the altitude selector is rotated rapidly?

A

The displayed altitude changes at two to four times the normal rate

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142
Q

In 1000 mode, how does the altitude selector change?

A

Changes in 1,000 foot increments

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143
Q

What is the function of the Altitude Selector (inner) when rotated?

A

Sets the altitude in the altitude window

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144
Q

What happens when the Altitude Selector (inner) is pushed during climb or descent with altitude constraints?

A

Deletes the next waypoint constraint

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145
Q

What occurs when the altitude window is set above the FMC cruise altitude during climb?

A

The cruise altitude changes to the altitude window value

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146
Q

During cruise, what happens with the altitude window set above or below FMC cruise altitude?

A

The FMC cruise altitude resets to the altitude window altitude

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147
Q

What does the altitude selector control in the B787?

A

Sets the altitude in the altitude window and on the PFD, HUD, and VSD altitude indication displays

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148
Q

What happens when the altitude selector is pushed during climb or descent with altitude constraints?

A

Deletes the next waypoint constraint between the airplane altitude and the altitude window

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149
Q

What occurs when the altitude window is set above the FMC cruise altitude during climb?

A

The cruise altitude is changed to the altitude window value

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150
Q

What action does the airplane take when in VNAV PTH or VNAV ALT pitch mode with the altitude window set?

A

Begins a climb or descent toward the altitude window altitude

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151
Q

What feature initiates when within 50 NM of the top-of-descent point with the altitude window set below cruise altitude?

A

Descend now (DES NOW) feature

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152
Q

What does pushing the Altitude HOLD switch do?

A

Selects altitude (ALT) as the pitch mode

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153
Q

When is the Altitude HOLD switch inoperative?

A

When the active roll mode is either LOC or FAC and the active pitch mode is either G/S or G/P

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154
Q

What indication is displayed when the Altitude Hold Light is illuminated?

A

The altitude hold mode is active

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155
Q

What does pushing the Uplink Transfer (XFR) switch do?

A

Transfers the value from the lower line to the upper line

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156
Q

What happens to the lower line after transferring with the Uplink Transfer switch?

A

The lower line blanks after the transfer

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157
Q

What is the effect of pushing the altitude selector during cruise with the altitude window set above or below FMC cruise altitude?

A

The FMC cruise altitude resets to the altitude window altitude

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158
Q

How does the accept (ACPT) switch function for conditional clearances?

A

Displays the new altitude value in the lower line after the clearance condition is met

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159
Q

What is the default status of the ATC uplink function for altitude?

A

Always enabled

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160
Q

Fill in the blank: Uplinked clearances are preceded by the letters _______.

A

UL

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161
Q

What does the LOC/FAC switch do?

A

Arms, disarms, or captures back course (B/CRS), final approach course (FAC), or localizer (LOC) as the roll mode

It displays B/CRS, FAC, or LOC in white (armed) on the PFD and in green on the HUD roll flight mode annunciation before localizer or course capture.

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162
Q

What does a white display indicate on the PFD for the LOC/FAC mode?

A

The localizer or final approach course mode is armed

It shows as white before capture and turns green after capture.

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163
Q

What is indicated when the LOC/FAC mode displays in green on the PFD?

A

The localizer or final approach course is active

It is also shown in green on the HUD roll flight mode annunciation after localizer or course capture.

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164
Q

What is the capture point for the LOC/FAC mode based on?

A

Range and intercept angle

Capture can occur when an intercept track angle is within 120° of the localizer or final approach course.

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165
Q

How can the LOC/FAC mode be disarmed before capture?

A

By pushing the LOC/FAC switch a second time or selecting LNAV

Both actions will deactivate the armed state.

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166
Q

List ways to deactivate the LOC/FAC mode after capture.

A
  • Selecting a roll mode other than LNAV
  • Pushing a TO/GA switch
  • Pushing the APP switch
  • Disengaging the autopilot and turning both flight director switches off
  • Engaging an autopilot when in flight director only

Each of these actions will deactivate the localizer or final approach course mode.

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167
Q

What does it mean if the localizer / final approach course light is illuminated white?

A

The localizer or final approach course mode is armed or active

This indicates that the system is prepared to capture the approach.

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168
Q

What does the Approach (APP) switch do?

A

Arms or captures roll mode (LOC, FAC, B/CRS) and pitch mode (G/S, G/P) for the selected approach in the FMC

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169
Q

What is displayed when roll and pitch modes are armed on the PFD and HUD?

A

Selected roll and pitch modes as armed on the PFD and HUD flight mode annunciations

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170
Q

What color indicates engaged roll and pitch modes on the PFD and HUD?

A

Green

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171
Q

What angle must the intercept track be within for roll mode to capture?

A

120° of localizer or final approach course

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172
Q

What angle must the intercept track be within for pitch mode to capture?

A

80° of localizer or final approach course

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173
Q

How can the approach mode be disarmed?

A

By disengaging the autopilot and turning both Flight Director switches OFF

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174
Q

What happens when both roll mode and pitch mode are armed?

A

The approach mode can be disarmed by selecting APP, LOC, LNAV, or VNAV

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175
Q

Under what condition does the approach mode deselect when above 1,500 feet radio altitude?

A

By pushing APP

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176
Q

What occurs when roll mode is captured and pitch mode is armed?

A

The approach mode can be deselected by selecting heading select (HDG/TRK SEL) or heading hold (HDG/TRK HOLD)

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177
Q

What emphasizes roll or pitch mode changes when first engaged?

A

A green box drawn around the mode for 10 seconds

This feature aids in quickly identifying changes to flight modes.

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178
Q

What visual indication is given when a flight mode fault is detected?

A

A horizontal line displays through the affected ACTIVE pitch or roll mode

AMBER PFD
GREEN HUD

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179
Q

What is displayed on the PFD and HUD if failures cause the autoland system to degrade?

A

NO AUTOLAND

This occurs if the system changes from a multi-channel engage status (LAND 3 or LAND 2) to a single channel status during an autoland.

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180
Q

How long is the mode change emphasized when there is a degradation in the autoland system?

A

10 seconds

The mode change is indicated by a box, amber on the PFD and green on the HUD.

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181
Q

What displays on the PFD and HUD if multi-channel approach is selected but not annunciated by 300 feet AGL?

A

NO AUTOLAND

Under these conditions, flare and rollout modes are not armed.

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182
Q

What are the active autothrottle modes displayed in green?

A
  • HOLD
  • IDLE
  • SPD
  • THR
  • THR REF

If only one autothrottle is connected and armed, the mode annunciation is preceded by ‘L-‘ or ‘R-‘.

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183
Q

Fill in the blank: The autothrottle mode annunciation is augmented by a ‘L-‘ or ‘R-‘ when _______.

A

only one autothrottle is connected and armed

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184
Q

What color indicates ‘NO AUTOLAND’ on the PFD?

A

Amber

This color alert signifies that the autoland capability is not available.

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185
Q

What does the Autopilot Disconnect Switch do?

A

Disconnects the autopilot

This switch allows the pilot to manually control the aircraft.

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186
Q

What happens when the Autopilot Disconnect Switch is first pushed?

A

• disengages the autopilot
• the master warning lights illuminate
• displays the EICAS warning message AUTOPILOT DISC
• sounds an aural warning

The autopilot disengagement also resets warning indicators if it occurs

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187
Q

What is displayed on the EICAS after the first push of the Autopilot Disconnect Switch?

A

The warning message AUTOPILOT DISC

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188
Q

What happens during the second push of the Autopilot Disconnect Switch?

A

Resets:
* the master warning lights
* EICAS warning message
* the aural warning

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189
Q

True or False: The Autopilot Disconnect Switch can only be pushed once to disengage the autopilot.

A

False

The switch can be pushed multiple times for different functions.

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190
Q

What happens when either Autothrottle Disconnect Switch is pushed?

A

Disconnects the autothrottle, illuminates the master caution lights, displays EICAS caution message AUTOTHROTTLE DISC

When the autothrottle automatically disconnects, it resets the master caution lights and EICAS message.

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191
Q

What occurs with a second push of the Autothrottle Disconnect Switch?

A

Resets the master caution lights and EICAS message; autothrottle remains armed

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192
Q

What is the function of the Takeoff/Go-around (TO/GA) Switches on the ground?

A

Activates autothrottle in THR REF mode below 50 knots with flaps out of up; inhibits autothrottle operation until reaching 400 feet altitude if not pushed below 50 knots

Pushing either switch above 80 knots disarms LNAV and VNAV.

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193
Q

What happens when the TO/GA Switch is pushed after lift-off?

A

Removes takeoff and climb derates, activates autothrottle in THR REF mode, disarms AFDS modes, and selects TO/GA roll mode between 50 feet and 400 feet

ABOVE 400’ SELECTS TOGA ROLL
AND PITCH MODES

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194
Q

Fill in the blank: The Autothrottle Disconnect Switch illuminates the _______ lights when activated.

A

master caution

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195
Q

True or False: The autothrottle operation is always active below 50 knots.

A

False

Autothrottle operation is inhibited until reaching 400 feet altitude if the TO/GA switch is not pushed below 50 knots.

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196
Q

What does pushing the TO/GA Switch at or below 50 knots do?

A

Activates autothrottle in THR REF mode at thrust limit selected on THRUST LIMIT page

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197
Q

What does the EICAS caution message AUTOTHROTTLE DISC indicate?

A

Autothrottle has been disconnected

This message is crucial for pilots to be aware of autothrottle status.

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198
Q

What happens when the TO/GA switch is pushed after lift-off with takeoff thrust limit displayed?

A

Removes takeoff and climb derates and assumed temperature thrust reduction, activates autothrottle in THR REF mode, disarms AFDS modes, selects TO/GA roll mode between 50 feet and 400 feet, selects TO/GA roll and pitch modes above 400 feet

THR REF mode refers to Thrust Reference mode, which is a specific configuration for thrust management.

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199
Q

What does the TO/GA switch do when pushed on approach with flaps out of up?

A

Activates autothrottle in THR mode with GA thrust limit displayed, disarms AFDS modes, selects TO/GA roll and pitch modes, arms or activates LNAV if an LNAV path is available

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200
Q

When are the TO/GA switches inhibited during landing?

A

After touchdown or when below 2 feet radio altitude for 3 seconds or more

201
Q

What condition allows the TO/GA switches to be enabled again after being inhibited?

A

Above 5 feet radio altitude

202
Q

What is activated with a second push of the TO/GA switch during a go-around with flaps out of up and LNAV armed?

A

Activates autothrottles in THR REF using GA reference thrust

203
Q

What happens with a second push of the TO/GA switch during a go-around with flaps out of up and HDG SEL active?

A

Activates autothrottles in THR REF using GA reference thrust, selects TO/GA roll and pitch modes

204
Q

What does the automatic flight control system consist of?

A

The autopilot flight director system (AFDS) and the autothrottle system (A/T)

The AFDS and A/T are controlled by the mode control panel (MCP) and the flight management computer (FMC).

205
Q

What is the function of the mode control panel (MCP)?

A

Provides control of the autopilot, flight director, altitude alert, and autothrottle systems

The MCP is used to select and activate AFDS modes and establish altitudes, speeds, and climb/descent profiles.

206
Q

What are the components of the Autopilot Flight Director System (AFDS)?

A

Three autoflight computing systems and the MCP

The AFDS does not have direct control of the flight control surfaces.

207
Q

How does the autopilot interact with flight control surfaces?

A

Controls the elevators, ailerons, flaperons, and spoilers through the fly-by-wire flight control system

Autopilot rudder commands are added only during an autopilot approach and landing.

208
Q

What role do Primary Flight Computers (PFCs) play in the autopilot system?

A

Generate flight control surface commands based on autopilot commands

209
Q

What happens to the pilot controls when the autopilot engages?

A

Pilot controls are back driven to provide visual and tactile indications of automatic commands

The PFCs send backdrive commands to control the backdrive actuators.

210
Q

What is the purpose of the switches on the MCP?

A

Select automatic flight control and flight director modes

A light on the switch illuminates to indicate the mode is armed or active.

211
Q

List the modes that activate with a single push on the MCP.

A
  • Altitude hold (ALT)
  • Flight level change (FLCH SPD)
  • Flight path angle (FPA)
  • Heading hold (HDG HOLD)
  • Heading select (HDG SEL)
  • Track hold (TRK HOLD)
  • Track select (TRK SEL)
  • Vertical speed (V/S)
212
Q

What modes can be activated with a single push in the Autopilot Flight Director System (AFDS)?

A
  • glidepath (G/P) via APP switch
  • glideslope (G/S) via APP switch
  • lateral navigation (LNAV)
  • localizer / final approach course (LOC/FAC)
  • vertical navigation (VNAV)
  • back course (B/CRS) via LOC/FAC or APP switch
213
Q

Which modes can be deselected by selecting another mode?

A

All modes except G/S and G/P

214
Q

How can all modes be deselected in the AFDS?

A

By disengaging the autopilot and turning both flight directors off.

215
Q

What actions can deactivate localizer and glideslope modes after capture?

A
  • Disengaging the autopilot and turning both flight directors off
  • Selecting the go around mode
  • Reselecting APP if above 1,500 feet radio altitude
216
Q

How can VNAV, LNAV, LOC, FAC, G/S, and G/P modes be disarmed?

A

By pushing the mode switch a second time (except when LNAV is automatically armed on go-around).

217
Q

What desired target values can be selected on the MCP?

A
  • airspeed
  • altitude
  • flight path angle
  • heading
  • Mach
  • track
  • vertical speed
218
Q

Which parameters can be preselected prior to autopilot and/or flight director activation?

A

All except vertical speed and flight path angle.

219
Q

How is the autopilot engaged?

A

By pushing either of the two MCP autopilot engage switches.

220
Q

What are the normal methods for disengaging the autopilot?

A
  • Control wheel autopilot disconnect switch
  • MCP autopilot disengage bar
221
Q

What can override the autopilot disengagement?

A
  • Control column
  • Control wheel
  • Rudder pedals (only with LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated)
222
Q

What happens when an override force is applied to the control column, control wheel, or rudder pedals?

A

The autopilot disengages.

223
Q

True or False: All modes in the AFDS can be deselected by simply selecting another mode.

A

False

224
Q

Fill in the blank: The _______ mode can be activated via the APP switch.

A

[glideslope (G/S)]

225
Q

What happens when an override force is applied to the control column, control wheel, or rudder pedals with LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated?

A

The autopilot disengages and control transitions to manual inputs from the flight crew.

226
Q

What EICAS warning message displays if the autopilot is manually or automatically disengaged?

A

AUTOPILOT DISC

227
Q

Can the autopilot be re-engaged after a disengagement, and if so, how?

A

Yes, by pushing the autopilot engage switch.

228
Q

What can the autopilot system detect regarding its mode?

A

Degradation of a specific autopilot mode and uncommanded changes to the altitude selected on the MCP.

229
Q

What happens when an engaged autopilot mode degrades?

A

The autopilot remains engaged in an attitude stabilizing mode based on inertial data.

230
Q

How is autopilot mode degradation indicated on the PFD and HUD?

A

By a line through the affected flight mode annunciation (amber line) and removal of the flight director bar.

231
Q

What message indicates the autopilot is operating in a degraded mode?

A

AUTOPILOT

232
Q

What occurs when degradation is no longer present?

A

The annunciations clear, the autopilot resumes using the mode, and a green box displays for 10 seconds.

233
Q

What happens to the AUTOPILOT message during an uncommanded MCP altitude change?

A

It clears when the pilot moves the MCP altitude selector.

234
Q

What status is indicated when the airplane is between 1,500 and 200 feet RA with ROLLOUT and FLARE armed?

A

NO AUTOLAND

235
Q

What happens if the flight crew does not respond to a pitch or roll mode degradation above 500 feet RA after 10 seconds?

A

The autopilot automatically disconnects.

236
Q

What message shows when the autopilot disconnects due to mode degradation?

A

AUTOPILOT DISC

237
Q

What mode is available for a go-around above 200 feet RA?

A

TO/GA mode

238
Q

What indications are provided below 500 feet RA for mode degradation?

A

FMA strikethrough, AUTOPILOT message, NO AUTOLAND message.

239
Q

What happens when a specific flight director mode degrades?

A

The flight director provides an attitude stabilizing command based on inertial data.

240
Q

What does the AFDS monitor for in relation to ILS signals?

A

Significant ILS signal interference due to service vehicles or aircraft.

241
Q

What does the autopilot do if localizer or glideslope signal interference is detected?

A

Disregards the ILS signal and remains engaged in an attitude stabilizing mode.

242
Q

How long can the AFDS use inertial data to resolve ILS signal errors?

A

Up to 20 seconds.

243
Q

What is a common characteristic of most ILS signal interferences?

A

They last only a short period of time.

244
Q

What occurs if ILS signal interference persists?

A

The annunciations described in Autopilot and Flight Director Mode Degradations are provided.

245
Q

What does the AFDS limit the descent angle to during glideslope signal interference?

A

3.25 degrees

246
Q

For how long does the AFDS use inertial data to resolve glideslope signal errors?

A

Up to 15 seconds

This is part of the glideslope attitude stabilizing mode.

247
Q

What does the AFDS do during localizer signal interference?

A

Uses inertial data for up to 20 seconds

This allows the localizer signal error to resolve.

248
Q

What are the two types of approaches that can experience lateral or vertical mode degradation?

A
  • ILS approach
  • GLS approach
  • IAN approach
249
Q

What indications occur if the AFDS detects a pitch or roll mode failure?

A
  • A line shows through the pitch or roll FMA
  • AUTOPILOT message shows
  • Flight director pitch or roll bar biases out of view
  • HUD guidance cue is biased out of view
250
Q

What happens when the autopilot is engaged and an ILS/GLS approach is above 1,500 feet?

A

NO AUTOLAND message shows

251
Q

Under what condition does the autopilot automatically disconnect?

A
  • Pilot does not push TO/GA for a go-around within 10 seconds
  • Airplane is above 500 feet AGL
252
Q

True or False: Low speed and stall protections are operational when the autopilot disconnects in an underspeed condition.

A

True

253
Q

Fill in the blank: The autopilot does not disconnect if the airplane is in an _______ condition.

A

underspeed

254
Q

What does the AUTOPILOT DISC message indicate?

A

It indicates a disconnection of the autopilot system

255
Q

What are the indicators for autopilot disconnection?

A
  • AUTOPILOT DISC message
  • Master warning light
  • Wailer
256
Q

When do the NO AUTOLAND message and NO AUTOLAND ASA clear?

A

They clear if the autopilot is disconnected or the TO/GA switches are pushed

NO AUTOLAND SHOWN DUE TO LATERAL OR VERTICAL NAV SIGNAL INTEGRITY NOT NECESSARILY FAILURE OF AIRPLANE AUTOLAND SYS

257
Q

Under what conditions do flight director steering indications display?

A
  • When the related flight director switch is ON
  • When the related flight director switch is OFF and a TO/GA switch is pushed, with airspeed greater than 80 knots and flaps out of up

The flight director display can be removed by cycling the respective FD SW OFF THEN ON

258
Q

What happens when there is a flight director mode failure?

A

The respective steering bar disappears

This applies to both pitch and roll modes.

259
Q

What causes the pitch flight director bar to disappear?

A
  • Flight director mode failure
  • Active stall and overspeed protection functions
260
Q

What does FLT DIR indicate in the AFDS status annunciation?

A

Flight director is ON and autopilots are not engaged

261
Q

What does LAND 2 signify in the AFDS status annunciation?

A

Level of redundancy is such that a single fault cannot cause a significant deviation from the flight path (fail passive)

262
Q

What does LAND 3 indicate in the AFDS status annunciation?

A

Autopilot system level of redundancy is such that a single fault cannot prevent automatic landing (fail operational)

263
Q

What does NO AUTOLAND mean in the AFDS status annunciation?

A

AFDS is unable to make an automatic landing

264
Q

What displays for any fault that limits the capability of the automatic landing system?

A

An EICAS message

265
Q

When are aural alerts for EICAS messages inhibited?

A

Until after touchdown
NOT AFFECTING SAFETY OF FLT

266
Q

Under what conditions are changes in autoland status inhibited below 200 feet AGL?

A

When doing an ILS or GLS autoland, and LAND 2 or LAND 3 shows on the PFD

267
Q

What happens if the crew does not disconnect the autopilot above 100 feet AGL during an approach using IAN?

A

The NO AUTOLAND message will show at 100 feet AGL

268
Q

What are the flight mode annunciations displayed above the PFD?

A
  • Autothrottle
  • Roll
  • Pitch
269
Q

How are active or captured modes displayed in the flight mode annunciator?

A

In large green letters at the top of the boxes

270
Q

How are armed modes displayed in the flight mode annunciator?

A

In smaller white letters at the bottom of the boxes

271
Q

What are the autothrottle annunciations?

A
  • THR - Autothrottle applies thrust to maintain the climb/descent rate
  • THR REF - Thrust set to the reference thrust limit displayed on EICAS
272
Q

What does IDLE indicate in the Autopilot Flight Director System (AFDS)?

A

Displays while the autothrottle moves thrust levers to idle; followed by HOLD mode.

273
Q

What is the purpose of HOLD mode in AFDS?

A

Thrust lever autothrottle servos are inhibited. The pilot can set thrust levers manually.

274
Q

What does SPD mode do in the AFDS?

A

Autothrottle maintains the command speed set using the MCP IAS/MACH selector or by the FMC.

275
Q

What happens when only one autothrottle is connected and armed?

A

The autothrottle mode annunciation is augmented by a ‘L-‘ or ‘R-‘ preceding the mode.

276
Q

What does LNAV (armed) indicate?

A

LNAV is armed to activate when parameters are met.

277
Q

When does LNAV become active?

A

When above 50 feet and in position to turn onto the active route leg.

278
Q

What is the activation condition for LNAV during a go-around?

A

Becomes active at 50 feet radio altitude with flight director only or 200 feet with autopilot engaged.

279
Q

How can LNAV be deactivated?

A

By selecting any other roll mode or by disengaging the autopilot and turning both flight directors off.

280
Q

What does HDG SEL (active) signify?

A

Airplane turns to or maintains the heading set in the MCP heading/track window.

281
Q

What is the function of HDG HOLD (active)?

A

AFDS holds present heading; holds the heading reached after rolling wings level.

282
Q

What does TRK SEL (active) do?

A

Airplane turns to or maintains the track set in the MCP heading/track window.

283
Q

What is TRK HOLD (active) in AFDS?

A

AFDS holds present track; holds the track reached after rolling wings level.

284
Q

What does ATT (active) mode do when the autopilot is first engaged?

A

Holds a bank angle between 5° and 30° and does not roll to wings level.

285
Q

What happens to the AFDS when the bank angle is less than 5°?

A

The AFDS returns to wings level (HDG HOLD or TRK HOLD).

286
Q

What occurs when the bank angle exceeds 30° in ATT mode?

A

The AFDS returns to 30° of bank.

287
Q

What does LOC (armed) indicate in the AFDS?

A

AFDS captures localizer when within range and within 120° of localizer course

288
Q

What is indicated by LOC (active) in the AFDS?

A

AFDS follows the localizer course

289
Q

What does FAC (armed) mean in the AFDS?

A

AFDS captures the IAN final approach course

290
Q

What is the function of FAC (active) in the AFDS?

A

AFDS tracks the IAN final approach course along the inbound bearing

291
Q

What does B/CRS (armed) signify in the AFDS?

A

AFDS captures the localizer final approach back course

292
Q

What does B/CRS (active) indicate in the AFDS?

A

AFDS tracks the localizer final approach course along the inbound back course bearing

293
Q

Under what conditions does TO/GA activate on the ground?

A

By positioning either flight director switch ON when both flight directors are OFF or by pushing either TO/GA switch with airspeed greater than 80 KIAS

294
Q

When does TO/GA roll guidance become active?

A

At lift-off

This guidance helps maintain the existing ground track during takeoff.

295
Q

When is TO/GA armed in flight?

A

When flaps are out of up or glideslope is captured

There is no flight mode annunciation for TO/GA armed.

296
Q

How is TO/GA activated in flight?

A

By pushing a TO/GA switch

297
Q

What does HUD TO/GA provide during takeoff?

A

Lateral guidance for takeoff roll and rejected takeoff using ILS or GLS signals

298
Q

What is required for HUD Takeoff to be active?

A

ILS or GLS to be auto tuned

299
Q

When does HUD guidance become active?

A

When the airplane approaches the runway center line and airplane heading is within 45 DEG of runway heading

300
Q

True or False: The lateral flight director bar on the PFD is certified for use during a HUD takeoff.

A

False

Although the flight director bar moves with guidance commands, it is not certified for HUD takeoff.

301
Q

What caution is advised regarding HUD TO/GA takeoff based on an offset localizer course?

A

It may provide guidance cues not aligned with the runway centerline and should not be used

302
Q

What happens when HUD TO/GA is selected and the localizer signal is blocked?

A

EICAS advisory message NO AUTOLAND displays until a clear localizer signal is received

303
Q

What does the HUD symbology do when TO/GA mode is selected?

A

Changes to full mode symbology and the HUD symbology control switch is inhibited

304
Q

What is the ROLLOUT (armed) condition?

A

Displayed below 1500 feet radio altitude and activates at touchdown with weight on the wheels

305
Q

What does ROLLOUT (active) do after touchdown?

A

AFDS uses rudder and nosewheel steering to steer the airplane on the localizer centerline

306
Q

What are the TO/GA pitch guidance conditions on the ground?

A

Annunciates by positioning either flight director switch ON when both flight directors are OFF or by pushing either TO/GA switch with airspeed greater than 80 knots

INITIAL PITCH 8 DEG

307
Q

What is the initial pitch guidance provided by TO/GA after lift-off?

A

Commands a pitch attitude to maintain V2 plus 15 knots or airspeed at rotation plus 15 knots, whichever is greater

308
Q

What happens if the current airspeed remains above the target speed for 5 seconds?

A

The target airspeed is reset to the lesser of current airspeed or V2 plus 25 knots

309
Q

What does the AFDS use for V2 speed?

A

The speed set in the IAS/MACH window

310
Q

When is TO/GA armed in flight?

A

When flaps are out of up or glideslope is captured

311
Q

What is the commanded speed when a go-around is initiated?

A

The MCP IAS/MACH window or current airspeed, whichever is higher, to a maximum of IAS/MACH window speed plus 25 knots

312
Q

What does GA display as on the primary EICAS engine display?

A

Thrust limit

313
Q

How is VNAV armed?

A

By pushing the VNAV switch

314
Q

What does VNAV SPD (active) do?

A

Maintains the FMC speed displayed on the PFD and HUD

It allows manual speed selection using the MCP IAS/MACH selector.

315
Q

What happens when VNAV PTH (active) is engaged?

A

Maintains FMC altitude or descent path with pitch commands

If the airplane is within two minutes of top of descent, a message prompts altitude adjustment.

316
Q

What is VNAV ALT (active) mode used for?

A

Maintains altitude when there is a conflict between VNAV profile and MCP altitude

The airplane levels off in this mode.

317
Q

What can be selected for an early descent?

A

FLCH, V/S, or FPA

These modes allow the airplane to descend below the VNAV descent path.

318
Q

What does V/S (active) mode do?

A

Maintains the rate of climb or descent set in the VS/FPA window

This mode is activated by pushing the MCP VS/FPA switch.

319
Q

What is the purpose of FPA (active) mode?

A

Maintains the flight path angle set in the VS/FPA window

It is also activated by pushing the MCP VS/FPA switch.

320
Q

What does FLCH SPD (active) mode do?

A

Maintains IAS/MACH window airspeed or Mach

It is activated by pushing the MCP FLCH switch.

321
Q

How is altitude hold mode activated?

A

By pushing the MCP altitude HOLD switch or capturing selected altitude from a climb or descent

322
Q

How is the ALT mode activated in the AFDS?

A

By either:
* pushing the MCP altitude HOLD switch
* capturing the selected altitude from a V/S, FPA, or FLCH climb or descent

323
Q

What does G/S mode do in the AFDS?

A

Follows the ILS or GLS glideslope

324
Q

What is the purpose of the G/P mode in the AFDS?

A

Follows the FMC glidepath

325
Q

What does the FLARE mode indicate when armed?

A

Displays below 1500 feet RA during autoland

326
Q

What happens during autoland when the FLARE mode is active?

A

Flare activates between 60 and 40 feet radio altitude and deactivates at touchdown

The nosewheel is smoothly lowered to the runway.

327
Q

What is the primary function of the autothrottle system?

A

Provides thrust control from takeoff through landing.

328
Q

How is autothrottle operation controlled?

A

From the MCP and CDUs

329
Q

What does VNAV activate in relation to the autothrottle?

A

Selects autothrottle modes and target thrust values.

330
Q

What are the three states of the autothrottle system?

A

OFF, ARMED, or active.

331
Q

Under what condition is the autothrottle considered OFF?

A

When the A/T arm switches are OFF.

332
Q

What indicates that the autothrottle is ARMED?

A

A/T switches are ON and the autothrottle mode is blank.

333
Q

What are the active autothrottle modes?

A
  • IDLE
  • HOLD
  • THR
  • THR REF
  • SPD.
334
Q

Can the autothrottle operate with flight directors OFF?

A

Yes, it can be operated with flight directors OFF and the autopilot not engaged.

335
Q

What happens to the autothrottle when both flight directors are turned off?

A

Transitions to SPD mode, maintaining the IAS/MACH window speed.

336
Q

What occurs during a manual landing when the active autothrottle mode is SPD?

A

Thrust reduces to IDLE at 25 feet RA and the autothrottle mode transitions to IDLE.

337
Q

What is the primary function of the autothrottle system?

A

To provide stall protection when armed and not active

338
Q

Under what conditions does the autothrottle automatically activate?

A

When speed is less than an FMC calculated value for one second, thrust is below reference thrust limit, and altitude conditions are met

Altitude conditions: 400 feet above field elevation on takeoff or above 100 feet RA on approach

339
Q

What happens when the current pitch mode is ALT, V/S, or VNAV during autothrottle activation?

A

Autothrottle engages into SPD mode, maintaining minimum manoeuvring speed or IAS/MACH window speed, whichever is greater

340
Q

What mode does the autothrottle activate in during a climb in VNAV SPD with the autothrottle armed and not active?

A

THR REF mode

341
Q

What is the thrust behavior of the autothrottle during a climb in FLCH SPD?

A

Advances thrust toward the reference thrust limit in THR mode

342
Q

What occurs during a descent in VNAV SPD with the autothrottle armed and not active?

A

If speed decreases into the amber band, autothrottle activates in THR mode and advances thrust toward CLB thrust limit

343
Q

What does the autothrottle do if the pitch mode is FLCH SPD and the autothrottle is in HOLD mode during speed decrease?

A

Changes from HOLD to THR mode and sets thrust toward CLB thrust limit

344
Q

What happens if the pitch mode is TO/GA during takeoff and the autothrottle is in HOLD mode with low thrust?

A

A/T mode changes from HOLD to THR REF and advances thrust toward selected TO thrust reference

345
Q

What does the EICAS advisory message AUTOTHROTTLE L or R indicate?

A

Respective autothrottle servo failure

346
Q

What is indicated by the PFD autothrottle flight mode annunciation L or R?

A

Only the left or right autothrottle is active in speed mode

347
Q

Fill in the blank: The autothrottle will maintain _______ during SPD mode activation.

A

Minimum manoeuvring speed

348
Q

True or False: The autothrottle can activate without being armed.

A

False

349
Q

List the pitch modes that can lead to autothrottle activation.

A
  • ALT
  • V/S
  • FPA
  • VNAV ALT
  • VNAV PTH
  • VNAV SPD
  • FLCH SPD
  • G/S
  • G/P
  • TO/GA
350
Q

What does the autothrottle system do?

A

Moves either or both thrust levers to provide speed or thrust control, depending on the active mode.

351
Q

Can thrust levers be manually positioned while the autothrottle is active?

A

Yes, thrust levers can be manually positioned without disconnecting the autothrottle.

352
Q

What happens to the autothrottle system after manual positioning of thrust levers?

A

The autothrottle system repositions thrust levers to comply with the active mode.

353
Q

In which mode does the autothrottle system not reposition thrust levers?

A

HOLD mode.

354
Q

Under what conditions can the autothrottle enter HOLD mode?

A

If the pilot overrides thrust levers, or during descent after the thrust levers retard to IDLE or reach the target thrust level.

355
Q

What occurs when the autothrottle is in HOLD mode?

A

Thrust lever servos are inhibited, and the autothrottle does not control thrust or speed.

356
Q

How can the autothrottle system be manually disconnected?

A

By pushing either autothrottle disconnect switch or positioning both A/T ARM switches to OFF.

357
Q

What happens when one or both A/T ARM switches are positioned to OFF?

A

Prevents activation of all autothrottle modes for the affected autothrottle.

358
Q

When does autothrottle disconnect occur automatically?

A

If a fault is detected, reverse thrust lever is raised, thrust levers are overridden during landing, or both engines are shut down.

359
Q

What caution message is displayed when the autothrottle is disconnected?

A

AUTOTHROTTLE DISC.

360
Q

What happens if the autothrottle disconnect occurs due to reverse thrust?

A

The EICAS caution message and aural alert are inhibited.

361
Q

What should a pilot do if the AUTOTHROTTLE DISC caution message shows?

A

Control thrust manually or re-engage the autothrottle.

362
Q

True or False: The autothrottle disconnects if an RA disagreement occurs below 1,500 feet.

A

True.

363
Q

What happens if an RA disagreement occurs during takeoff with one radio altimeter inoperative?

A

The autothrottle disconnects after takeoff at 400 feet.

AFTER 1500’ CAN BE REENGAGED

364
Q

Fill in the blank: The caution message AUTOTHROTTLE DISC displays when the autothrottle is _______.

A

disconnected.

365
Q

What is inhibited if the autothrottle disconnect occurs automatically due to reverse thrust?

A

The EICAS caution message and aural alert.

366
Q

What happens during preflight when the first flight director switch is positioned ON?

A

Activation of TO/GA roll and pitch mode occurs

367
Q

What does the PFD and HUD display indicate when TO/GA is activated?

A

FLT DIR as AFDS status and TO/GA as pitch and roll flight mode annunciations

368
Q

What is the pitch command set to during takeoff?

A

Approximately 8° up

369
Q

What is the roll command during takeoff?

A

Wings level

370
Q

What occurs when the speed is less than 50 knots and the TO/GA switch is pushed?

A

Activates the autothrottle in thrust reference (THR REF)

371
Q

What happens to the thrust levers when the autothrottle is activated?

A

Advances thrust levers to the selected reference thrust limit

372
Q

When can the autothrottle not be activated if it is not active by 50 knots?

A

Until above 400 feet

373
Q

What does the autothrottle annunciation change to at 80 knots?

A

HOLD

374
Q

What happens when the TO/GA switch is pushed with speed greater than 80 knots?

A

Disarms LNAV and VNAV

375
Q

What is the pitch command target speed at lift-off?

A

V2 + 15 knots or airspeed at rotation plus 15 knots, whichever is greater

376
Q

What happens if current airspeed remains above target speed for 5 seconds at lift-off?

A

Target airspeed is reset to current airspeed (limited to a maximum of V2 + 25 knots)

377
Q

What is the pitch command target speed at lift-off if an engine failure occurs on the ground?

A

V2 or airspeed at lift-off, whichever is greater

378
Q

What does the roll command maintain during takeoff?

A

Ground track

379
Q

What is the pitch command target speed after lift-off if an engine failure occurs?

A
  • V2, if airspeed is below V2
  • Existing speed if airspeed is between V2 and V2 + 15
380
Q

What is the pitch command target speed after engine failure during takeoff if airspeed is below V2?

A

V2

381
Q

What happens to the pitch command target speed if the airspeed is between V2 and V2 + 15?

A

Existing speed

382
Q

What is the pitch command target speed if the airspeed is above V2 + 15?

A

V2 + 15

383
Q

What occurs when the TO/GA switch is pushed after takeoff?

A

Removes takeoff and climb derates and assumed temperature thrust reduction

384
Q

What happens to the autothrottle (A/T) system when the TO/GA switch is activated?

A

A/T in HOLD, A/T activates in THR REF

385
Q

At what altitude does LNAV activate if armed?

A

50 feet radio altitude

386
Q

What occurs at 400 feet above field elevation during takeoff?

A

VNAV activates when armed

387
Q

What does the pitch command at acceleration height or altitude capture below acceleration height indicate?

A

Speed to 5 knots below takeoff flap placard speed

388
Q

What are the functions of engine out acceleration and climb capability?

A

Airplane thrust to weight ratio

389
Q

What happens if VNAV is not engaged at engine out acceleration height?

A

TO/GA pitch mode transitions from airspeed control to pitch control

This transition is necessary to manage the airplane’s energy effectively.

390
Q

What is the commanded speed during flap retraction with one engine inoperative?

A

May cycle between airspeed control and pitch control

391
Q

What does the pitch command when flaps are up indicate?

A

Acceleration to VNAV climb speed

392
Q

What determines the VNAV climb speed?

A

The greater of flaps up manoeuvre speed or speed transition associated with origin airport

393
Q

What happens at the thrust reduction point?

A

FMC changes reference thrust limit to armed climb limit (CLB, CLB 1, or CLB 2)

394
Q

What mode is terminated by selecting any other pitch and roll mode or by activation of LNAV/VNAV?

A

TO/GA mode

395
Q

What does the HUD takeoff system provide during takeoff roll and rejected takeoff?

A

Lateral guidance on the HUD

396
Q

What must be selected in the FMC to enable HUD TAKEOFF guidance?

A

HUD TAKEOFF departure

397
Q

When does the guidance for the HUD takeoff become active?

A

Once the airplane approaches the runway center line and heading is within 45° of runway heading

398
Q

What appears on the HUD when the airplane is centered on the runway during takeoff?

A

Ground roll reference symbol and localizer deviation pointer

399
Q

True or False: The lateral flight director bar on the PFD is certified for use during a HUD takeoff.

A

False

400
Q

What should not be used if a HUD TO/GA takeoff is based on an offset localizer course?

A

Guidance cues not aligned with the runway centerline

401
Q

What advisory message may show if HUD TO/GA is selected and the localizer signal is blocked?

A

NO AUTOLAND

402
Q

Fill in the blank: The automatic flight takeoff profile includes _______ for thrust reference.

A

THR REF

403
Q

What is the active FMA roll mode during a HUD takeoff?

A

HUD TO/GA

404
Q

What is the role of the THR REF setting?

A

Reference thrust setting for takeoff

THR REF activates the thrust required for optimal takeoff performance.

405
Q

Fill in the blank: The _______ is activated at 50 feet RA during the automatic flight takeoff profile.

A

LNAV

RA stands for Radio Altitude, which is a critical measurement for aircraft during takeoff.

406
Q

What happens when the TO/GA switch is pushed?

A

Activates thrust to go-around mode

TO/GA stands for Takeoff/Go-Around, which provides maximum thrust for takeoff or a go-around maneuver.

407
Q

True or False: VNAV can be armed before reaching the takeoff phase.

A

True

Arming VNAV before takeoff allows for automatic management of the vertical profile once airborne.

408
Q

What does the HOLD mode do during the flight operations?

A

Maintains current flight parameters

409
Q

What does the AFDS provide guidance for during approach and landing?

A

Instrument Landing System (ILS), GBAS Landing System (GLS), and Integrated Approach Navigation (IAN)

410
Q

How are ILS approaches flown?

A

In the G/S and LOC modes using approach path deviation data from localizer and glideslope transmitters

411
Q

How are GLS approaches flown?

A

In the G/S and LOC modes using approach path deviation data from the Ground-Based Augmentation System (GBAS)

Similar to ILS but utilizes different data sources

412
Q

What happens when the APP switch is pushed?

A

It arms the pitch and roll modes after an approach procedure selection is made in the FMC

Glideslope/glidepath capture is inhibited until localizer capture.

413
Q

What is the purpose of the LOC/FAC switch?

A

It arms the AFDS to capture and maintain an approach lateral flight path using an ILS localizer beam or lateral path provided by the FMC

414
Q

What pitch modes can be used for descent on the localizer or final approach course?

A
  • VNAV
  • V/S
  • FLCH
  • FPA
415
Q

What is the maximum intercept angle for the LOC or FAC mode to capture?

A

120°

Exceeding this angle prevents the mode from capturing the approach.

416
Q

What command speed is used with landing flaps for wind and gust protection?

A

VREF+5 knots

This speed provides sufficient protection when the autothrottle is active.

417
Q

How does the autothrottle adjust thrust when airspeed decreases below command speed?

A

It adjusts thrust quickly

418
Q

True or False: The autothrottle decreases thrust quickly when airspeed is more than command speed.

A

False

The autothrottle decreases thrust slowly when airspeed exceeds command speed.

419
Q

What may happen to thrust during turbulence when the autothrottle is active?

A

Thrust may be somewhat higher than necessary to maintain command speed

This can result in an average speed higher than command speed.

420
Q

What does Integrated Approach Navigation (IAN) allow?

A

The use of consistent procedures for all types of instrument approaches

421
Q

How can any approach with a defined glidepath angle be flown?

A

Using procedures, indications, and alerts similar to those used for an ILS approach

422
Q

Where can the published glidepath angle be found?

A

On the RTE LEGS page

423
Q

What type of guidance does IAN always use for vertical path?

A

FMC computed glidepath (G/P)

424
Q

What can provide lateral guidance in IAN procedures?

A

FMC or localizer

425
Q

What does the IAN Final Approach Course (FAC) provide?

A

Guidance to the runway if the MAP is located on the runway approach end

426
Q

What is the angle of the IAN G/P constructed from?

A

Altitude constraint at the MAP

427
Q

What switch is required to arm the roll and pitch modes in IAN?

A

The APP switch on the MCP

428
Q

What modes are used for lateral guidance in various approach types?

A
  • B/CRS
  • GPS
  • IGS
  • ILS
  • LDA
  • LOC
  • NDB
  • RNAV
  • SDF
  • VFR
  • VOR
429
Q

What must the pilot do when using IAN for landing?

A

Disengage the autopilot and complete the landing manually

A NO AUTOLAND alert appears on the PFD and HUD if the autopilot remains engaged below 100 feet RA.

430
Q

What is runway alignment in the context of IAN?

A

A submode of the approach mode

It compensates for crosswinds and single engine approaches.

431
Q

At what altitude does runway alignment occur for crosswinds requiring more than 10° of crab angle?

A

500 feet AGL

A sideslip of 5° is established to reduce the crab angle.

432
Q

What is the minimum crab angle at touchdown for crosswinds requiring more than 10° of crab angle?

A

5°

This configuration is maintained until touchdown.

433
Q

For crosswinds requiring a crab angle between 5° and 10°, when does the second alignment occur?

A

200 feet AGL

This alignment increases the sideslip to further reduce the touchdown crab angle.

434
Q

What happens if an engine fails prior to the approach?

A

The AFDS introduces a sideslip at 1,300 feet AGL

This establishes a wings level configuration.

435
Q

If an engine fails during the approach below 1,300 feet, what configuration is established?

A

Wings level configuration

This occurs when the engine failure is detected.

436
Q

True or False: IAN deviation scales and annunciations are displayed on the ISFD.

A

False

They are displayed on the HUD but not on the ISFD.

437
Q

For crosswinds requiring a crab angle of less than 5°, when does alignment occur?

A

200 feet AGL

A sideslip is introduced to align the airplane with the runway.

438
Q

In the event of crosswinds from the side opposite the failed engine, what does the AFDS do?

A

No wings level sideslip is commanded since the airplane is already banked into the wind.

439
Q

What is the purpose of the flare mode?

A

To bring the airplane to a smooth automatic landing touchdown.

440
Q

Is the flare mode intended for single autopilot or flight director only operation?

A

No, it is not intended for single autopilot or flight director only operation.

441
Q

When is the flare armed?

A

When LAND 3 or LAND 2 is annunciated on the PFDs and HUDs.

442
Q

What happens below 350 feet radio altitude in the flare mode?

A

The inboard spoilers are biased up incrementally.

443
Q

What occurs if the autopilot is disengaged during the flare mode?

A

The spoiler bias is removed and a slight forward column control force may be required to maintain trim.

444
Q

At what altitude do the autopilots start the flare maneuver?

A

At approximately 50 feet radio altitude.

445
Q

What replaces the pitch flight mode annunciation during the flare?

A

FLARE replaces the pitch flight mode annunciation.

446
Q

What happens if a TO/GA go-around is initiated with biased spoilers?

A

The spoiler bias is removed.

447
Q

During the flare, what happens to the flight director roll and pitch bars?

A

They retract from view.

448
Q

What does the autothrottle do between 25 and 50 feet radio altitude?

A

Begins retarding thrust levers to idle.

449
Q

What changes in the PFD and HUD autothrottle annunciation during the flare?

A

Changes from SPD to IDLE.

450
Q

What happens at touchdown in the flare mode?

A

The FLARE annunciation no longer displays, and the nose wheel is lowered to the runway.

451
Q

What provides localizer centerline rollout guidance?

A

Rollout.

452
Q

When does rollout arm?

A

When LAND 3 or LAND 2 annunciates.

453
Q

When does rollout activate?

A

At touchdown with weight on the wheels.

454
Q

What replaces the roll mode annunciation during rollout?

A

ROLLOUT replaces the roll mode annunciation.

455
Q

What does the autopilot control during rollout?

A

Rudder and nose wheel steering to track the localizer centerline.

456
Q

What remains active during rollout until autothrottle disconnects?

A

Autothrottle IDLE mode.

457
Q

At what radio altitude do thrust levers retard to idle during the landing phase?

A

25-50 feet

458
Q

When does rollout guidance continue?

A

Until the autopilots are disengaged.

459
Q

What conditions must be met for the NO AUTOLAND and LAND 2 annunciation to be inhibited?

A

Below 200 feet radio altitude

This indicates specific operational limits for autoland capabilities.

460
Q

What is indicated by the LAND 3 callout during the landing approach?

A

Autoland capability

LAND 3 indicates the highest level of autoland performance.

461
Q

Fill in the blank: The _______ mode is selected during an automatic approach.

A

APP

APP mode is essential for capturing both the localizer and glide slope.

462
Q

What must be done at 100 feet radio altitude during an approach?

A

Disengage Autopilot

463
Q

What may remain connected during landing even if Autopilot is disengaged?

A

Autothrottle

464
Q

When is TO/GA armed?

A

When flaps are out of up or glideslope/glidepath is captured

TO/GA refers to Takeoff/Go-Around mode

465
Q

What locks the reference thrust limit in GA mode?

A

When flaps are in landing position or glideslope/glidepath is captured

466
Q

What occurs when VNAV is activated with flaps out of up but not in landing position?

A

Reference thrust limit changes to CRZ

467
Q

What happens when the TO/GA switch is pushed?

A

Activates a go-around

The mode remains active even if the airplane touches down

468
Q

When are the TO/GA switches inhibited?

A

After touchdown or when below 2 feet radio altitude for 3 seconds or more

469
Q

What re-enables the TO/GA switches after landing?

A

Above 5 feet radio altitude

470
Q

What occurs with the first push of either TO/GA switch?

A

Activates roll and pitch in TO/GA and autothrottle in thrust (THR)

Establishes a minimum climb rate of 2,000 FPM

471
Q

What happens to the target airspeed after 5 seconds of maintaining current airspeed above the target?

A

Target airspeed is reset to current airspeed (maximum of TAS/MACH window speed plus 25 knots)

472
Q

When does LNAV automatically arm and activate?

A

Above 50 feet radio altitude when autopilot is not engaged or above 200 feet radio altitude when autopilot is engaged

473
Q

What happens during a go-around from a LAND 2 or LAND 3 approach regarding autopilot?

A

Automatic LNAV activation causes disengagement of autopilot rudder control

474
Q

Does LNAV engage automatically if the flight crew manually changes the flight plan before selecting TO/GA?

A

No

475
Q

What occurs with the second push of either TO/GA switch?

A

Autothrottle activates in thrust reference (THR REF) at full go-around thrust

476
Q

What happens with the second push of either TO/GA switch?

A

Autothrottle activates in thrust reference (THR REF) at full go around thrust.

477
Q

What remains active following a second TO/GA push when an LNAV path is available?

A

LNAV remains active.

478
Q

What occurs at the set altitude during TO/GA level-off?

A

AFDS pitch mode changes to altitude hold (ALT).

479
Q

What happens if altitude is captured or if V/S or FPA is active during TO/GA level-off?

A

MCP speed is automatically set to:
* flap placard speed minus 5 knots
* 250 knots if flaps are up
* a speed value entered in the IAS/MACH window after TO/GA was pushed.

480
Q

What remains the active roll mode during TO/GA?

A

TO/GA remains the active roll mode until LNAV automatically activates or another roll mode is selected.

481
Q

What are the conditions for TO/GA mode termination above 400 feet radio altitude?

A

Select a different roll or pitch mode.

482
Q

What must be done for TO/GA mode termination below 400 feet radio altitude?

A

Disengage autopilot and turn off both flight directors, or automatic LNAV activation.

483
Q

What activates after flap retraction when VNAV or FLCH is pushed?

A

VNAV activates.

484
Q

Fill in the blank: With the second push of either TO/GA switch, _______ activates in thrust reference at full go around thrust.

A

[Autothrottle]

485
Q

True or False: LNAV automatically activates after the first TO/GA push.

A

False.

DEPENDS ON ALT
50’ NO AP
200’ AP

486
Q

What happens above 200 feet RA during a go-around?

A

LNAV activates

This is part of the automatic flight operations.

487
Q

What is the action to take when the TO/GA switch is pushed?

A

LNAV arms

This is part of the transition to go-around procedures.

488
Q

What is the windshear recovery guidance based on?

A

Normal go-around pitch and roll modes

This is crucial for safe recovery during windshear conditions.

489
Q

Fill in the blank: The target airspeed during windshear recovery is the _______.

A

IAS/MACH window airspeed or current airspeed

490
Q

What command is given when the TO/GA switch is pushed during windshear recovery?

A

A pitch-up of 15° or slightly below the pitch limit, whichever is lower

491
Q

What does the AFDS transition to as the rate of climb increases?

A

From pitch to airspeed control

492
Q

What happens if current airspeed remains above the selected speed for 5 seconds?

A

The selected airspeed is reset to current airspeed, up to IAS/MACH window speed plus 25 knots

493
Q

What protection does the autopilot and autothrottle systems provide?

A

Prevention of stall and overspeed

494
Q

When is overspeed protection available?

A

With flaps up for all flight modes except G/S

495
Q

In which modes is flight envelope protection available when flaps are not up?

A

Only in FLCH and TO/GA

496
Q

What EICAS caution message is displayed if the autopilot has begun flight envelope protection?

A

AUTOPILOT

497
Q

What does the autopilot limit the bank angle to when engaged?

A

30°

498
Q

Fill in the blank: The AFDS provides windshear recovery guidance by means of the normal go-around pitch and roll modes, with go-around armed, pushing a TO/GA switch commands a pitch-up of _______.

A

15° or slightly below the pitch limit

499
Q

True or False: Flight envelope protection is available in all flight modes regardless of flap position.

A

False

FLAPS UP ALL MODES EXCEPT GS
FLAPS OUT OF UP ONLY FOR FLCH AND TOGA

787 (31 decks)

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