Farm animals 5 Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the abortion profile of tritrichomoniasis in cattle (proportion, timing, recurrence)

A
  • Sporadic abortions
  • First half of gestation
  • Animal gains immunity, but likely not life long so may recur
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2
Q

Describe the pathology and clinical signs seen with Tritrichomonas abortion in cattle

A
  • Placenta: retained, milkd placentitis, haemorrhagic cotyledons, thickened intercotyledonary areas covered with flocculent exudates
  • No specific lesions in foetus
  • Dam: few clinical signs, may show mild discharge and poor pregnancy rates
  • No signs in bull
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3
Q

Give the samples required and method for diagnosis of tritrichomoniasis in cattle

A
  • Placenta, foetus, vaginal/uterine discharge

- Diagnosis: detection of organism in abomasal contents, placental fluids and uterine discharges

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4
Q

Outline the prevention of Tritrichomonas foetus in cattle

A

Vaccine available but only effective in cows, does not prevent infection of bulls

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5
Q

How is Neospora caninum transmitted in cattle?

A

Ingestion of oocyst contaminated feed/water (dog faeces)

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6
Q

Describe the abortion profile of Neospora abortion in cattle (proportion, timing, recurrence)

A
  • High proportion in first gestation and when infection enters a naiive herd, up to 30% in first outbreak, 5-10% enzootic
  • Abortion can occur at any stag but most comon 5-6 months
  • Recurrence decreases with parity but always possible
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7
Q

Describe the pathology and clinical signs seen with Neospora abortion in cattle

A
  • Placenta: no specific gross lesions
  • In dogs and dams generally subclinical infection other than abortion
  • Foetus: may be autolysed
  • Microscopic pathology: focal encephalitis with necrosis and non-suppurative inflammation, hepatitis in foetus
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8
Q

Give the samples required and method for diagnosis of neosporosis in cattle

A
  • Placenta,foetus (brain, heart, liver, body fluids), serum samples from dam
  • Diagnosis: detection of antigen in brain histology samples, immunohistochemistry on tissue samples, detection of Abs via PCR or ELISA
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9
Q

Outline the treatment and prevention of neosporosis abortion in cattle

A
  • Treat clinically affected dogs with clindamycin or TMPS, prevent access for feedstuffs
  • Do not keep heifer calves born to seropositive cows (may be PI)
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10
Q

How is BVDV transmitted?

A

Vertical transmission and horizontal

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11
Q

Outline the abortion profile of BVDV (proportion, timing, recurrence)

A
  • Usually low proportion
  • Abortion up to 4 months gestation
  • Uncommon recurrence - immunity develops
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12
Q

Describe the pathology seen with abortion resulting from BVDV

A
  • Placenta often retained, no specific lesions
  • Foetus no specific lesions, autolysed, mummified
  • Dam likely no signs, may be PI, sometimes may be small, stunted, oddly haired, poor condition
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13
Q

Give the samples required and method for diagnosis of BVDV as a cause of abortion

A
  • Placenta, foetus (preferably spleen), dam and herdmate serum
  • Diagnosis: viral isolation, immunologic staining, PCR, detection of precolostral antibodies in aborted calves
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14
Q

Outline the control of BVDV

A
  • Vaccine before breeding
  • Cull PIs
  • Screen new animals
  • Closed herd
  • Buy in from free
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15
Q

Outline the transmission of BHV-1 causing abortion in cattle

A
  • Carriers

- Via WBC to placenta

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16
Q

Outline the abortion profile of BHV-1 (proportion, timing, recurrence)

A
  • 5-60% in non-vaccinated herds
  • Abortion at any stage but most common from 4 months to term
  • Immunity develops so recurrence uncommon
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17
Q

Describe the pathologic lesions seen with abortion due to BHV1

A
  • In majority of cases no gross lesions
  • Placenta: necrotising vasculitis
  • Foetus: autolysed, foci of necrosis in the liver
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18
Q

Give the samples and methods required for the diagnosis of BHV1 as a cause of abortion

A
  • Placenta, foetus, serum samples from dam

- Diagnosis: immunohistochemistry in samples from kidney and adrenal glands, blood serology PCR

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19
Q

Outline the control of BHV1

A
  • Vaccination (intranasal)
  • Can be used in pregnant cattle
  • For eradication use serological surveillance, cull reactors and careful biosecurity
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20
Q

How is bluetongue virus transmitted?

A

Culicoides midges or semen from viraemic bulls

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21
Q

Describe the abortion profile that results from bluetongue virus (proportion, timing, recurrence)

A
  • Usually low proportion of herd affected
  • Variable timing
  • Unlikely to recur
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22
Q

Describe the pathology seen with abortion resulting from bluetongue

A
  • Non-specific, foetus autolysed

- Dam shows transient fever followed by hyperaemia, erosions of buccal and lingual mucosa, hypersalivation

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23
Q

Give the samples and methods required for diagnosis of bluetongue as a cause of abortion

A
  • Placenta, foetus, serum samples from the dam

- Diagnosis by virus isolation

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24
Q

Outline the control of bluetongue virus

A
  • Control of midges

- Vaccination of susceptible animals using one serotypes, then another 1 month later

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25
Q

How is Schmallenberg transmitted?

A

Culicoides midges

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26
Q

Describe the abortion profile resulting from Schmallenberg infection (proportion, timing, recurrence)

A
  • Can be large number, up to 75% of cattle have been exposed
  • Between 60-180 days most susceptible to foetal deformity, may be born live or dead at term
  • Previous infection does not prevent repeat infections
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27
Q

Describe the pathology seen with abortion resulting from Schmallenberg

A
  • Adults: pyrexia, reduced milk yield, inappetance, loss of BCS, diarrhoea
  • Foetus: brain and spinal cord abnormalities with secondary problems of muscles and skeleton
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28
Q

Give the samples and methods required for diagnosis of Schmallenberd virus as a cause of abortion

A
  • Placenta and foetus
  • Detection of viral nucleic acid in foetal tissues (brain, placenta, meconium, hair swabs)
  • Or detection of virus specific antibodies in foetal heart blood (aborted foetuses) or in serum collected prior to ingestion of colostrum
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29
Q

Outline the control of Schmallenberg virus

A
  • Vaccine available but not generally used

- Possible aid of insecticide, but not good for large scale control

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30
Q

Outline the requirements for sampling when investigating abortion in cattle

A
  • Ideally entire foetus and placenta
  • Evaluate appearance before sampling
  • Rinse placenta gently with water if contaminated with straw etc.
  • Do not place any other samples in bag with placenta tissues
  • 2 samples of liver, kidney, spleen (fresh and fixed)
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31
Q

List the fresh samples that may be required in the investigation of abortion in cattle

A
  • Placenta
  • Stomach contents
  • Spleen
  • Hind brain
  • Kidney
  • Ocular fluid
  • Abomasal fluid
  • Thoracic fluid
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32
Q

List the fixed samples that may be required in the investigation of abortion in cattle

A
  • Placenta
  • Brain
  • Lung
  • Trachea
  • Thyroid
  • Kidney
  • Heart
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33
Q

What is the collection of ocular fluid samples in an abortion case particular important for?

A

Look for nitrates - sign of poor quality silage (more common in last few years)
No signs in dam but will cause abortion

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34
Q

What are the 5 main causes of abortion in cattle?

A
  • Neospora
  • Lepto
  • BVD
  • IBR (BHV1)
  • Salmonella
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35
Q

How is Salmonella transmitted in cattle?

A

Spread from carrier animals, GI flora of many animals esp. newly introduced, also rodents and wild birds

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36
Q

Describe the abortion profile of Salmonellosis in cattle (proportion, timing, recurrence)

A
  • Usually sporadic but can take form of abortion storm
  • Can occur at any stage
  • Recurrence possible
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37
Q

Describe the pathology seen with abortion resulting from Salmonella in cattle

A
  • Cows: clinically ill, septicaemia, enteritis, pyrexia, diarrhoea, dullness, anorexia
  • Placenta and foetus autolysed and emphysematous
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38
Q

Give the samples and method for the diagnosis of abortion resulting from Salmonella in cattle

A
  • Placenta and foetus

- Diagnosis: isolation from the abomasal contents and other tissues

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39
Q

Outline the control and treatment of salmonellosis abortion in cattle

A
  • Prevention: good hygiene, cleaning and disinfection, quarantine new stock, vaccinate against S dublin, control birds and rodents
  • Treatment: antibiotics (e.g. ampicillin, TMPS) and fluid therapy
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40
Q

Give reasons why a diagnosis is not reached in the majority of abortion cases in cattle

A
  • Non-infectious cause
  • Limited on-farm investigations
  • Limited farm history and data
  • Sample quality and quantity
  • Laboratory test limitations (number and quality)
  • Diagnostic criteria and sampling bias
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41
Q

What foetal abnormality occurs in both Bluetongue and BVD abortions?

A

Hydrancephaly

42
Q

What is the average milk production per cow per year in the UK?

A

~7500 litres/year

43
Q

Which pieces of legislation are particularly important for vets working with the diary industry?

A
  • Milk and Dairies (General) regulations (1959)

- Dairy Products (hygiene) Regulations 1995

44
Q

List the important steps involved in milk processing

A
  • Filtration
  • Clarification (separation of foreign particles by centrifugation, removal of leukocytes and epithelial cells)
  • Homogenisation (milk forced through a tiny aperture under very high pressure to break up fat globules and enable a more stable dispersion of butter fat)
  • Pasteurisation
  • UHT
  • Sterilisation
45
Q

Compare HTST pasteurisation and holding pasteurisation

A
  • HTST: flash pastuerisation, heat to 71.7ºC for 15 seconds followed by immediate cooling
  • Holding method: milk heated to 62-66ºC and held there for 30 mins (common method for colostrum on farm)
46
Q

How can the efficacy of pasteurisation be checked in milk?

A

Check for alkaline phosphatase activity - should be ALP negative after pasteurisation

47
Q

Discuss the importance of milk pasteurisation

A
  • Little effect on nutritional value (small (~20%) reduction in vit C, and thiamine and vit B12 (~10%))
  • Reduced cream line
  • Pathogens removed e.g. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  • But Mycobacterium avium paratuberculosis (Johnes) may survive pastuerisatoin
48
Q

Discuss the consumption of raw milk

A
  • Significant health risks (salmonella, coliforms, Listeria, TB)
  • Effect on processing e.g. yoghurt/cheese production
49
Q

Explain how the risks relating to milk processing can be mitigated

A
  • Check bacterial quality of milk
  • Keep raw milk separate from areas where processed product is handled
  • LImit waiting time in silos and thorough cleaning between batches
  • Check milk with ALP test after pasteurisation, cleaning and disinfection of machinery between batches
  • Ensure equipment is working properly
  • Ensure rapid cooling to <10ºC
  • Clean holding tanks thoroughly
  • Store product containers hygienically
50
Q

Give examples of best practices to prevent medicine residues in milk

A
  • Do not put milk of treated cows into bulk tank

- Clear marking of cows treated with antibiotics

51
Q

Give examples of antibiotic residue tests used in milk

A
  • Delvotest (colour change shows negative)

- ELISA tests e.g. Betastar, Charm, IDEXX Snap (v. narrow spectrum of testing)

52
Q

Compare Total Bacterial counts and Bactoscan counts for milk

A
  • TBC: live bacteria and is a count of colonies growing on a plate
  • Bactoscan: viable and non-viable bacteria, as well as those that would not grow with TBC method (often higher reading)
53
Q

Give examples of sources of bacteria in milk

A
  • From the udder of infected cows
  • From the environment (esp.faecal, but also water and bedding)
  • From milking machine
  • Failure of refigeration
54
Q

Explain how the milking machine can act as a source of bacteria in milk

A
  • Poor wash up routine
  • Circulation cleaning
  • Temperature of wash water
  • Cleaning the bulk tank itself
  • Using non-potable water for cleaning the machine
55
Q

Outline your approach to a high Bactoscan result in a dairy herd

A
  • Initially consider cow cleanliness, teat preparation, milking machine wash up, mastitis detection (often already considered by farmer)
  • Analyse available data and patterns (sporadic or consistently high?)
  • Consider potential points of breakdown: pre or post-farm gate?
  • Take a sample: Bulk tank bacteriology, quantitative and qualitative bacteriology
  • Determine source based on results
56
Q

Outline the qualitative bacteriology carried out from bulk milk tank bacteriology when investigating a high Bactoscan

A
  • What bacteria present
  • Care not to over-interpret, may be many sources of some pathogens
  • Method: techniques (agars) selective for certain pathogens
  • Blood agar: most organisms
  • MacConkey: coliform selective
  • Edwards: Streptococcus selective
  • Sabouraud: yeast and mould selective
  • Bair Parker: Staphylococcus (but poor selectivity)
  • Mueller Hinton: sensitivity testing
  • Anaerobic culture, Mycoplasma culture and detection
57
Q

Outline the quantitative bacteriology carried out from bulk milk tank bacteriology when investigating a high Bactoscan

A
  • No. of organisms present, and how many at different temps
  • Milk agar: TBC, thermoduric cound, Psychotrophic count
  • Violet red bile agar: coliform count
  • Incubate at different temps for certain times for different pathogens
  • TBV, coliforms, thermodurics: 48h at 37ºC
  • Psychotrophs 6 days at 2-8ºC
  • Perform counts, take mean of 2 plates
  • Aim to count at dilution that gives 30-300 colonies/plate
58
Q

What source of contamination would the following findings in a Bactoscan investigation be suggestive of?
Spikes in counts, mostly Streptococcus

A

Udder of infected cows most likely source

59
Q

What source of contamination would the following findings in a Bactoscan investigation be suggestive of?
Coliforms, mostly Enterobacteriaceae, or psychotrophs present

A

Environment most likely source

60
Q

What source of contamination would the identification of high numbers of thermoduric bacteria in the investigation of a high a Bactoscan be suggestive of?

A

Milking machine likely source

61
Q

What source of contamination would the identification of high numbers of psychotrophic bacteria in the investigation of a high a Bactoscan be suggestive of?

A

Failure of refrigeration likely source

62
Q

During what period will mastitis be cured?

A

During the dry period - antibiotics and drying off are curative

63
Q

What are the 2 main routes for new mastitis infections?

A
  • From the environment

- From infected cows

64
Q

Outline the aspects that need managing in mastitis infections that originate from the environment can be prevented

A
  • Reduce stocking rates, back fencing, manage gateways, common loafing areas, fly control etc. if outside
  • If inside: loafing space, ventilation, water quality, water storage, bedding quality, bedding storage, scraping frequency, lying areas
65
Q

Outline the prevention of new mastitis infections originated from infected cows

A
  • Often focussed on treatment and/or cullin, but over-reliance on antibiotics is unsustainable
  • Limit/stop spread in parlour
66
Q

Outline the method for the administration of intra-mammary therapy for cows

A
  • Aseptic technique
  • Strip quarters completely
  • Wash and dry teats if grossly dirty
  • Dip with rapid acting disinfectant, leave 20-30 seconds
  • Wipe with dry individual paper towel
  • Scrub teat end with cotton wool soaked in surgical spirit
  • Partial insertion of intramammary tube nozzle, infuse
  • Post infusion disinfection
67
Q

Explain why the treatment of clinical mastitis during lactation may be difficult

A
  • Pathogen often unknown
  • Vast majority of clinical cases not treated by vet
  • Incorrect antibiotic chosen/incorrect or no identification of pathogen, not treated for long enough
68
Q

Explain why the pathogen causing mastitis is often unknown

A
  • Often not aseptic sampling technique

- Often no sampling

69
Q

Explain why treatment during the dry period is more likely to be effective in the treatment of mastitis

A
  • Product will last longer, more product can be used (no milk withdrawal period problems)
  • Dry udder more hostile to pathogens than lactating udder
70
Q

Give examples of lactating cow intra-mammary antibiotics that are commonly used and discuss

A
  • Dosing strategy and cow factors more important than choice of product
  • Penicillins (for G+ve, Staph, Streps)
  • Aminoglycosides e.g. Streptonycin, neomycin
71
Q

List the key elements in the treatment of clinical mastitis

A
  • Rapid identification
  • Cow and farm factors need to be addressed
  • Antibiotics are worthwhile
  • Actual choice of antibiotic is secondary
  • Sensitivity testing not usually required (little resistance)
  • Route of antibiotic should be intra-mammary
  • Duration of treatment important (minimmum 3 days, best 5-8 days for cure)
72
Q

Outline the grades of mastitis

A
  • Grade 1: milk changes only
  • Grade 2: milk changes and swollen udder
  • Grade 3: milk changes, swollen udder, sick cow
73
Q

Outline the farm and cow factors that affect the chance of curing a clinical mastitis

A
  • Cow: cow SCC, parity, no. of quarters affected

- Farm: bulk milk SCC, prevalence of infection

74
Q

Outline your approach (and give reasoning) to the treatment of clinical mastitis in a high cell count herd

A
  • Contagious more likely
  • G+ve pathogens mainly e.g. S aureus, Enterococcus spp, S uberis
  • Intramammary therapy 2x daily 4-5 days using penicillin (good vs g+ves)
  • Aim to monitor cure rates
75
Q

Outline your approach (and give reasoning) to the treatment of clinical mastitis in a low cell count herd

A
  • Environmental pathogens more likely
  • G+ves and G-ves e.g. S uberus, E coli, other coliforms (Klebsiella)
  • Intra-mammary therapy with broad spec e.g. penicillin + aminoglycoside (strep, neomycin) as need to cover for G-ves
  • NSAIDs for severe cases (more severe symptoms with G-ve infections)
76
Q

Outline your approach to reports of ineffective mastitis tubes from farmers when treating clinical mastitis

A

Consider all of the following:

  • A few problem cows or herd?
  • Speed of detection
  • Length of treatment course (min. 3 days, consider extending to 5 days)
  • Pathogens (bacteriology for new cases)
  • Which cows are treated? Chronic cases have poor cure rates
77
Q

Discuss the treatment of Streptococcus agalactiae causing mastitis

A
  • Obligate udder pathogen
  • Susceptible to antibiotics
  • Treat whole herd at one time to eradicate, may not be required
  • Variety of protocols, but usually short acting penicillin tubes
  • Ensure all cows receive dry cow therapy
78
Q

Discuss the treatment of severe E coli mastitis (toxic mastitis)

A
  • Endotoxaemia
  • Antibiotics limited use (toxins causing illness, bacteria mostly gone)
  • Require intensive treatment and management with fluid therapy and NSAIDs
79
Q

Discuss the value in treating subclinical mastitis during lactation using antibiotics

A
  • Often poor cure rates (only 36% chance of cure)
  • Do not have clinical signs, but may become clinical
  • Is contagious mastitis an issue in this herd? Risk of spread to other cows
  • Best to wait until dry cow therapy at end of lactation if possible
80
Q

Outline the treatment of cows with subclinical mastitis during lactation

A
  • Identify affected quarters
  • Extended (7-8day) course of intramammary tubes
  • OR dry off quarter, esp. if persistent problem in that quarter
  • Cull if very chronic infection
81
Q

What factors may be involved in the decision making regarding selective dry cow therapy?

A
  • Cell count of the herd
  • Bacteriology
  • Individual somatic cell count and clinical mastitis history
82
Q

In which cows is it safe to use teat sealant alone when drying off?

A

If the last 3 consecutive milk recordings have been <200,000 cells/ml (i.e. unifected/recovered)

83
Q

Which cows are classed as infected at drying off?

A
  • > 200,000cells/ml in one or more of last 3 recordings

- and/or clinical mastitis in last 3 months

84
Q

Outline the treatment of infected cows at drying off

A
  • Need to cure infection

- Antibiotic with G+ve efficacy (e.g. cephelonium [Cepravin] 1st gen cephalosporin) and internal teat sealant

85
Q

Briefly describe the mechanism of internal teat sealants for dry cow therapy

A
  • Bismuth subnitrate in paraffin base
  • Persist for >100 days
  • No inherent antimicrobial activity
  • Infused and left in teat cistern preventing bacteria getting in
86
Q

Discuss Corynebacterium spp.’s importance in mastitis

A
  • Esp. C bovis
  • Most prevalent mastitis pathogen
  • Highly contagious
  • Causes moderate elevation in SCC
  • Every 1% increase in prevalence = 1000 increase in BMSCC
  • Some strains cause clinical mastitis
  • Very susceptible to antibiotics
  • High prevalence may be marker of poor post milking teat disinfection
87
Q

Discuss the importance of coagulase negative Staphylococcus spp. in mastitis

A
  • Lots of different species e.g. hyicus,epidermis, haemolyticus
  • Environmental
  • May be important in heifers
  • Importance equivocal
  • More marked increased in SCC vs C bovis
  • Can colonise streak canal
  • Large numbers self-cure
  • Can cause clinical mastitis
  • Can cause reiinfection post treatment
  • V important in Israel and Scandinavia
88
Q

Discuss the role of minor mastitis pathogens

A
  • Diagnosis from bacteriology may not be causal
  • Often failure to culture a causal major pathogen e.g. E coli
  • Staph unlikely to be causal, unless heifers
89
Q

How is summer mastitis transmitted?

A

Sheep head fly Hydrotea irritans

90
Q

What pathogens are typically implicated in summer mastitis?

A
  • Trueperella pyogenes
  • Peptococcus indolicus
  • Streptococcus dysgalactiae
91
Q

Discuss the prevalence of summer mastitis

A
  • Relatively uncommon now
  • Can occur in winter
  • More common in the North
  • More common in areas where flies are more active e.g. near water sources
92
Q

Outline the clinical signs of summer mastitis

A
  • Hot, hard, massive swollen painful quarter
  • Characteristic foul smell
  • Caseous material
  • Cow often lame
  • Often undetected
  • Can lead to abortion
93
Q

What is the prognosis for summer mastitis?

A

Poor - quarter often lost, will save the cow but not the udder

94
Q

Outline the treatment of summer mastitis

A
  • Drainage of uddder by removing teat/cutting vertically
  • Intramammary antibiotics useless
  • Systemic penicillin or derivatives
  • Regular stripping
  • Generally lose affected quarter
95
Q

Outline the methods for prevention of summer mastitis

A
  • Fly avoidance (specific pastures)
  • Fly control (spray, pour ons etc.)
  • Dry cow therapy (repeat infusions)
  • Teat sealants (internal and external)
  • Stockholm tar, micropore tape etc.
96
Q

List your differentials for a down cow soon after calving

A
  • Hypocalcaemia
  • Nerve paralysis
  • Haemorrhage
  • Toxic mastitis
97
Q

What are the following clinical signs indicative of and what would this suggest in a cow down soon after calving?

Dehydration, injected MM, increased resp and HR, loose faeces

A

Toxaemia - highly suggestive of toxic mastitis esp. if also has hot, swollen quarter with water secretion

98
Q

Compare the clinical signs of toxaemia and hypocalcaemia in a cow

A
  • Not as depressed or dehydrated
  • Variable mental status with hypoCa
  • Dry MM
  • Hard faeces
  • +/- swan neck position
  • May be making attempts to stand
  • HypoCa: weak tachycardic HR, dry muzzle, cold extremities
  • May get bloat with hypoCa
99
Q

What would the following clinical signs be indicative of in a cow down shortly after calving?
Bright, but unable to stand, increased HR and RR, few other clinical signs obvious

A

Trauma e.g. fracture, neurological - HR and RR increased due to pain, may get flaccid paralysis, often better indication based on history

100
Q

Outline the interventions in a case of toxic mastitis in order of performing these

A
  • Fluid therapy: IVFT into jugular, hypertonic saline 4-5mls/kg over 4-5 mins, oral fluids at same time (warm water), use 10G catheter and wide bore giving set
  • NSAIDS: meloxicam, flunixin, ketoprofen licensed, flunixin best anti-endotoxic properties
  • Supportive care: clean bedding, place alone, food and water within reach, oxytocin for milk let down, strip udder, IV calcium