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REPRO2 > Farm animals 2 > Flashcards

Farm animals 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the sitting examination of the genitalia for the breeding soundness examination of a ram

A
  • Must sit squarely to fully extreude penis
  • Examine inner thighs for flush
  • Check for vasectomy scars
  • Examine prepuce for injuries, ulcers, deformities
  • Examine glands and vermiform appendage for injuries, ulcers etc. and to prove penis can be fully extended
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2
Q

Explain the role of chorioptic mange in infertility of rams

A
  • May cause inflammation of the scrotum

- Increases local temperature, causes damage to sperm

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3
Q

What is required for an infertility investigation of a ram?

A
  • Full breeding soundness examination
  • Semen evaluation
  • Ultrasound examination
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4
Q

What certification would be appropriate for the following findings in an infertility examination of a ram?

  • General physical exam: normal
  • External genitalia normal and scrotal circumference acceptable
  • Good semen sample produced
A

Ram can be used with confidence

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5
Q

What certification would be appropriate for the following findings in an infertility examination of a ram?

  • General physical exam: abnormal but minor/curable
  • External genitalia abnormal but minor/curable
  • No/poor semen sample produced
A

Not able to decide at this examination

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6
Q

What certification would be appropriate for the following findings in an infertility examination of a ram?

  • General physical exam: abnormal and not suitable for breeding
  • External genitalia abnormal
  • Poor semen sample produced
A

Ram is not suitable for breeding

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7
Q

Discuss the value of a semen sample for infertility investigation of a ram

A
  • Single sample not always representative of the state of the ram
  • Do not condemn ram based on semen sampling alone, some do not want to give sample
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8
Q

What is the potential outcome for a ram that is deemed not perfect but still fertile?

A
  • Can’t afford to cull all of these, but not suited o high pressure situations
  • May be ok with low ewe numbers, or in mating groups
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9
Q

What scenarios are appropriate for a ram deemed perfect at fertility examination?

A

Good for high pressure situations so can be used for single sire mating, or with large numbers/synchronised ewes

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10
Q

Which rams are predisposed to urolithiasis?

A

Mainly fattening wethers or young rams

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11
Q

Describe the development of urolithiasis in rams

A
  • Precipitation of insoluble salts of Mg, NH4 and phosphates

- Form sludge with protein in urinary tract

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12
Q

Outline the clinical signs of urolithiasis in rams

A
  • Abdominal pain and anorexia
  • teeth grinding, bleating
  • Stranguria/anuria
  • Crystals around preputial orifice
  • Swollen prepuce
  • Wide based stance, HL back, frequent stretching
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13
Q

Where does urolithiasis most commonly occur in rams?

A

Either at ischial arch or vermiform appendage

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14
Q

What is a potential consequence of urolithiasis in rams?

A
  • Bladder rarely ruptures, but urine leaks out into peritoneum
  • Hydronephrosis of right kidney
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15
Q

Outline the risk factors for urolithiasis in rams

A
  • High concentrate feeding (high P availability e.g. feeding on ewe cake)
  • Low forage intake
  • High P or Mg in diet
  • ow ratio of Ca:P (increases P absorption)
  • Low water intake
  • Texels predisposed
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16
Q

Outline the treatment options for urolithiasis in rams

A
  • Encourage lots of drinking
  • Muscle relaxants
  • Retrograde catheterisation
  • Excision of vermiform appendage
  • Surgery rarely useful as salvage
  • Consider NH4Cl/NaCl in feed (encourage drinking)
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17
Q

Discuss the preventionof urolithiasis in rams

A
  • Feed less concentrate, more forage
  • Ensure adequate water intake
  • Feed low P, low Mg
  • Ensure ratio of Ca:P at least 2:1, preferably 3:1
  • Include 1.5% salt in diet to increase water intake (total Na content 6g/kg DM)
  • Include 1.5% NH4Cl in diet to acidify urine
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18
Q

What is balanoposthitis in the ram also known as?

A

Pizzle rot, sheath rot, ulcerative balanitis, ulcerative posthitis

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19
Q

Describe the cause balanoposthitis in rams

A
  • Corynebacterium renale, and high dietary protein

- C renale produces urease which hydrolyses urea to ammonia

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20
Q

Which group of rams are predisposed to balanoposthitis and why?

A

Wethers - penis less developed, more likely to urinate into prepuce, fed on high protein

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21
Q

Describe the clinical signs of balanoposthitis

A
  • Small necrotic ulcers at sheath margin initially
  • Painful, swollen sheath
  • Strong smell of ammonia
  • Sheep recumebnt and inappetant
  • Increased risk of fly strike
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22
Q

Outline the treatment and control of balanoposthitis in rams

A
  • Reduce protein in diet
  • reduce feed intake, increase water intake
  • Acidify urine using NH4Cl per os
  • Give topical antiseptc and systemic antibiotics
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23
Q

Describe the relationship between balanoposthitis and vulvovaginitis in sheep

A
  • Reports of vulvovaginitis in ewes associated with Myoplasma
  • Balanitis of unknown aetiology (deep ulcer on glans penis) associated with vulvitis (ulcers and oedema) in ewes after mating
  • Little effect on fertility
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24
Q

What non-hormonal method may be used to synchronise and advance breeding season of ewes?

A

The ram effect - introduce rams just before natural breeding season

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25
Q

How can the synchonicity resulting from the ram effect be improved?

A

Treat with progesterone before, or at time of introduction of rams

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26
Q

What commercially available pharmaceutical options are available for advancing the breeding season of ewes?

A
  • Progestagen based methods alone e.g. sponges
  • Progestagen based methods with follicle stimulating treatment e.g. PMSG/eCG
  • Melatonin implants
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27
Q

Discuss the advantages of melatonin implants for the induction and synchronisation of oestrus in ewes

A
  • Low labour pressure
  • Reduces spread of oestrus
  • Low pressure on rams
  • Triggers natural hormonal events giving multiple fertile cycles
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28
Q

Discuss the disadvantages of melatonin implants for the induction and synchronisation of oestrus in ewes

A
  • No ovulation synchronisation or induction
  • No effect on prolificacy
  • Cannot be used for fixed time AI
  • Cost
  • Need to plan well in advance
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29
Q

Discuss the advantages of progesterone sponges alone for the induction and synchronisation of oestrus and ovulation in ewes

A
  • Only moderate increase in labour pressure
  • Oestrus and ovulation synchronised
  • Will advance breeding season
  • Potential to improve porlificacy
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30
Q

Discuss the disadvantages of progesterone sponges alone for the induction and synchronisation of oestrus and ovulation in ewes

A
  • High pressure on rams
  • If used off season, may have lower prolificacy
  • Cannot be used for fixed time insemination
  • Cost
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31
Q

Discuss the advantages of progesterone sponges + PMSG injection for the induction and synchronisation of oestrus and ovulation in ewes

A
  • Synchronise and induce ovulation
  • Basal or enhanced prolificacy
  • Can be used for fixed time insemination
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32
Q

Discuss the disadvantages of progesterone sponges + PMSG injection for the induction and synchronisation of oestrus and ovulation in ewes

A
  • High labour intensiveness
  • High pressure on rams
  • Potential for too many multiples if over estimate PMSG dose
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33
Q

Discuss the use of Ovsynch in sheep

A
  • Off license in UK
  • Usually disappointing results
  • No efficacy out of seasons, poor oestrus expression in sheep, labour intensive
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34
Q

What are the challenges faced when aiming to breed sheep early before/in the season?

A
  • No previous luteal phase so no P priming
  • Possible lower ovulation rate
  • Ram’s fertility not yet at its peak
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35
Q

Briefly outline the method of using melatonin implants in sheep

A
  • Rams in flock injected with 3 melatonin implants at base of ear
  • Separate rams from ewes
  • 7 days later, ewes in flock treated with single implant at base of ear
  • Rams introduced to ewe 40 days after melatonin implantation in females
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36
Q

How long are progestagen sponges generally inserted in ewes for?

A

12-14 days, 14 days if used during breeding season

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37
Q

What should the ram:ewe ratio be following induction of oestruc and ovulation with progestagen sponges and eCG?

A
  • In season 1:10

- Out of season 1:5

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38
Q

Following abortion in sheep, what material should be sent for analysis?

A
  • Ideally foetus + placenta
    Otherwise:
  • Section of placenta incl. more than 1 cotyledon, with large margins of intercotyledonary membranes
  • Foetal fluid from thorax or abdomen
  • Foetal stomach contents collected aseptically
  • Fresh spleen
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39
Q

What flock information is required as part of the history when investigating abortions in a sheep flock

A
  • No. of ewes, type of flock
  • Expected lambing dates
  • Ewes housed for lambing? If so, when
  • Diet and how much
  • Closed or open flock? Where if buy in
  • Previous abortions
  • Vaccinations
  • Ultrasound scanning data if available
  • Recent handling or transportation of ewes
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40
Q

What abortion specific information is required as part of the history when investigating abortions in a sheep flock?

A
  • Number of abortions
  • Dates of abortions so far
  • Clinical status of aborted ewes
  • Age of ewes aborting
  • Ewes homebred or bought in
  • Appearance of aborted lambs
  • Isolation of aborted ewes from ewes yet to lamb?
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41
Q

Outline the steps that should be taken following abortion in sheep

A
  • Isolate aborted ewe, dispose of abortion products and bedding, disinfect pen/area
  • Initiate antibiotic therapy if ill ewe, or RFM
  • Do not foster lambs onto aborted ewe
  • Mark ewes for maangemetn purposes
  • Submit material for investigation
  • Emphasise to farmer need for hygiene and zoonotic risk
42
Q

What are the 3 most significant causes of abortion in sheep in the UK?

A
  • Enzootic abortion of ewes (Chalmydophila)
  • Toxoplasmosis
  • Campylobacteriosis
43
Q

How is Chlamydophila infection spread in sheep?

A

Oral transmission

44
Q

Explain the pathophysiology of EAE

A
  • Organism invades placenta at 90days gestation → suppurative necrotising placentitis
45
Q

When do abortions with EAE typically occur?

A

Last 3 weeks of pregnancy

46
Q

Describe the clinical status of the ewe following abortion as a result of EAE

A

Vague malaise for 24 hours but not identifiably sick

47
Q

Describe the typical appearance of the placenta in an abortion resulting from EAE

A
  • Thickened areas between cotyledons

- Typical brownish exudate over surface

48
Q

How is EAE diagnosed?

A
  • Examination of fresh placenta
  • Ziehl-Neelsen staining showing red elementary bodies
  • Vaginal swabs/swabs from coat if obvious necrotic debris present
  • Histopath: inflammatory infiltrate, intracytoplasmic inclusions in chorionic epithelial cells-
49
Q

What test forms the basis of health accreditation schemes for EAE?

A

Serological testing

50
Q

Outline the control of EAE

A
  • 3 vaccines possible
  • 2 live: use in non-pregnant
  • 1 inactivated: use in face out outbreak, can be given to pregnent to reduce chance of abortion
  • Whole flock treatment of long acting oxytet 20mg/kg 3-6 weeks before lambing increase no. of viable lambs born to ewes with known infection
  • Mark, isolate affected, dispose of bedding
51
Q

What is the source of infection for toxoplasmosis in sheep?

A

Cats - shed oocysts then ingested on feed/in water by sheep

52
Q

Explain the pathogenesis of toxoplasmosis in sheep as a cause of abortion

A

Tachyzoites invade placenta → placentitis, pyrexia

53
Q

What are the potential consequences of infectionwith Toxoplasma gondii in sheep during pregnancy? What is the outcome dependent on?

A
  • Resorption
  • Barrenness
  • Mummification
  • Stillbirth
  • Abortion
  • Live lamb
  • Depends stage of gestation and infective dose
54
Q

Describe the typical appearance of the placenta in an abortion resulting from toxoplasmosis in sheep

A
  • Dark cotyledons, white speckles of necrosis
  • Sectioning cotyledons reveals gritty texture if necrotic foci have mineralised
  • Intercotyledonary areas grossly normal
55
Q

What foetal appearance is suggestive of abortion as a result of toxoplasmosis in sheep?

A

8-10cm mummified foetus, dark brown leathery appearance

56
Q

Describe the diagnosis of toxoplasmosis abortion in sheep

A
  • IFAT on fluid from foetal thorax/abdomen
  • Histopath of placenta: coagulative necrosis of cotyledons, mineralisation fo haematoxylin, eosin secretions
  • Neuropathology: non-suppurative meningoencephalitis
  • IHC possible on formalin fixed paraffin embedded tissue to demonstrate antigen even if autolysis
57
Q

Discuss the control of toxoplasmosis abortion in sheep

A
  • Prevent access to feed by cats
  • Vaccine (toxovax), lasts 18mo but natural infection boost immunity, give to non-pregnant ewes at least 3 weeks before tupping
  • In feed decoquinate 2mg/kg possible, but generally only fed in last 4-6 weeks so may not prevent infection
58
Q

How is campylobacteriosis spread in sheep?

A
  • Carrier sheep

- Contaminated feed and water

59
Q

When does abortion as a result of campylobacteriosis occur in sheep?

A

Last 6 weeks of gestation

60
Q

Describe the typical presentation for campylobacter abortion in sheep

A
  • Abortion storms up to 20%, last 6 weeks of gestatoin
  • Birth of live weak lambs possible
  • Occasionally mild diarrhoea in ewes before abortion
  • Usually occurs in waves every 4-5 years
61
Q

When does abortion typically occur in relation to infection with campylobacter species?

A

7-25 days after infection

62
Q

Which campylobacter species are implicated as causing abortion in sheep?

A

C foetus and C jejuni

63
Q

Outline the diagnosis of campylobacter as a cause of abortion in sheep?

A
  • Gram smears of placenta and foetal stomach to demonstrate Campylobacter species
  • IHC if smears not diagnostic (useful where autolysis, or scavenged tissues_
64
Q

Outline the prevention and control of campylobacteriosis abortion in sheep

A
  • Vaccines not available in UK
  • Isolate aborted ewes in outbreak, careful disposal of material and contaminated bedding vital
  • Remove susceptible animals from suspected areas, reduce stocking density
65
Q

Explain how abortion storms occur with Campylobacter

A
  • One sheep aborts due to Campy, highly infections 2-3 weeks later
  • Pregnant ewe picks this up, aborts in next 1-3 weeks
  • More and more sheep infected each time
66
Q

Give examples of Salmonella species that are important in abortion in sheep

A

S enterica subspp. Montevideo, Dublin, Derby, Diarisonae, Abortusovis, Typhimurium

67
Q

What is the source/route of infection for salmonellosis leading to abortion in sheep

A
  • Mechanical spread by wild birds possible
  • Abortion material heavily contaminated, bacteria excreted in faeces contaminated feed/water/pastures
  • If host specific serotype then carrier sheep
68
Q

Describe the clinical signs of salmonellosis abortion in sheep

A
  • Abortion storms
  • Aborted foetuses and placenta usually fresh with no lesions
  • Ewes that die of salmonellosis have acute metritis with RFM
  • Stillborn or dead within first week lambs have acute abomasitis and enteritis
69
Q

Compare the clinical appearance of different serotypes of salmonella causing abortion in sheep

A
  • Montevideo: little ill health
  • Typhimurium and dublin: enteric and systemic signs (anorexia, diarrhoea, sudden death due to septicaemia, illness in farm workers, farm dogs and other livestock)
  • Abortusovis rare in UK, occasional deaths in ewes and lambs up to 3 weeks old, at first infection up to 60% of flock abort
70
Q

Outline the diagnosis of salmonellosis abortion in sheep

A
  • Culture (MacConkey agar) in lab and smears
  • Can use enrichment agar
  • Serotyping to specify
71
Q

Outline the prevention and control of salmonellosis abortion in sheep

A
  • Cattle Dublin and Typhimurium vacc used off license in outbreak esp. if prolonged lambing period (2-3 injection 10 days apart)
  • Isolate affected animals
  • Antibiotics for septicaemic animals
  • anecdotal evidence that long acting oxytet 7 days apart may reduce incidence of disease in Montevideo outbreak
72
Q

What is the source of infection for Border disease in sheep?

A

Purchase of persistently infected replacements

73
Q

Describe the clinical signs seen with border disease abortion in sheep

A
  • Barren ewes
  • Still births
  • Abortions
  • PI lambs
  • PI lambs ill at 6-12 months
  • Outcome dependent on stage of gestation at infection
  • If non-pregnant usually inapparent infection
74
Q

Outline the consequences of pestivirus infection in early pregnancy in sheep (<60 days)

A
  • Foetal death → resorption, mummification, abortion or still birth
  • Some survive → hairy shaker (wool changes, tremors, domed skull, abnormal appendicular skeleton)
  • NB will not always show typical signs, may just have poor growth
75
Q

Outline the consequences of pestivirus infection in late pregnancy in sheep (>85 days)

A
  • Foetus immunocompetent
  • Some die → abortion/stillbirth
  • Most survive and have antibodies
76
Q

Outline the consequences of pestivirus infection in middle of pregnancy in sheep (60-85 days)

A
  • Outcome difficult to predict
  • Immune system developing
  • Can lead to immune mediated damage esp. in CNS
  • Usually strongly antibody positive
77
Q

Outline the diagnosis of border disease in sheep

A
  • PCR or virus isolation from foetal tissue e.g. spleen
  • Histopath esp. of brain
  • Procolostral heparin blood samples for antibodies and antigens (ELISA)
  • Serological testing of proportion of ewes (e.g. 10%) to assess presence of disease
78
Q

What is a typical antigen and antibody profile of dams of hairy shaker lambs?

A
  • Antibody negative

- Antigen positive - persistently infected

79
Q

Outline the prevention and control of border disease in sheep

A
  • Closed flock or test all replacements
  • Test rams for AI routinely
  • Do not co-graze or mix pregnant ewes with cattle
  • Cull all newborn PIs
  • If buy in PI, maintain in close contact (indoors) for 2 months before tupping to expose all naiive animals when not pregnant, and allow seroconversion
80
Q

Which Listeria species are associated with abortion in sheep?

A

Monocytogenes and ivanovii

81
Q

What is the source of infection for listeriosis abortion in sheep?

A

Soil, decaying vegetation, latent carrier

82
Q

Describe the typical presentation of listeriosis abortion in sheep

A
  • Several disease manifestations: septicaemia, encephalitis, abomasitis, typhlocolitis, abortion
  • Abortion at any stage of pregnancy, 7 days after infection
  • Aborting ewes rarely unwell
83
Q

Describe the typical appearance of aborted material as a result of listeriosis

A
  • Autolysed
  • Few lesions
  • Occasionally: tiny miliary yellow white foci seen in liver of aborted foetus, circular erosions in abomasum, enlargement of mesenteric LNs
84
Q

Outline the diagnosis of listeriosis abortion in sheep

A
  • Smears of foetal stomach contents

- Culture from placenta and foetal stomach contents

85
Q

Outline the prevention and control of listeriosis abortion in sheep

A
  • Treatment of in contact ewes in face out an outbreak to reduce losses
  • Identify likely source of infection, feed good silage, remove uneaten silage daily
86
Q

What is the causative pathogen of Q fever?

A

Coxiella burnetti

87
Q

What is the source of infection with Q fever?

A
  • Infected via oropharynx

- C burnetii forms spores that persist in environment, and can persist in ticks

88
Q

Describe the typical presentation for abortions resulting from C burnetii in sheep

A
  • Last week of pregnancy
  • Possible stillborn or live weak lambs
  • Causes infertility in cattle (unknown in sheep)
89
Q

Describe the typical appearance of the aborted material resulting from C burnetii in sheep

A
  • Indistinguishable from EAE
  • Thickened intercotyledonary areas
  • Exudate over surface
90
Q

Outline the diagnosis of C burnetii as a cause of abortion in sheep

A
  • Ziehl-Neelsen stained smears (red coccobacilli - intra and extracellular, similar to C abortus)
  • Serology or histopath to confirm
  • Complement fixation test possible
  • IHC on formalin fixed sections
  • PCR of milk, faeces, or vaginal swabs to detect antigen in some countries
91
Q

Outline the prevention and control of C burnetii as a cause of abortion in sheep

A
  • Susceptible to tetracyclines (treatment in outbreak may reduce abortions, but does not prevent shedding or reduce zoonotic risk)
  • Vaccine in France but no market for this in UK
92
Q

Define the maximum residue limit

A

The maximum concentration of a residue that is legally permitted or acceptable in or on a food, given as ug/kg of that food

93
Q

Define the Acceptable Daily intake

A

An estimate of the amount of substance, expressed on a bodyweight basis, that can be ingested daily over a lifetime without appreciable risk to the consumer

94
Q

List some important zoonotic pathogens that may be found in milk

A
  • Bovine TB
  • Campylobacter, Salmonella
  • Rat bite fever (streptobacillus moniliformis)
  • Zoonotic diptheria
  • Streptococcus pyogenes
  • E coli
  • Y enterocolitica
  • Staph aures
  • Brucellosis (not UK)
  • Pseudomonoas aeruoginosa
95
Q

Which species must not be housed with milking cows?

A

Pigs and poultry, breeding rams and Billies

96
Q

Briefly outline the steps in the circulation cleaning approach for a milking plant

A

Warm rinse → hot wash cycle → alkaline detergent → cold rinse

  • Drain pipes of residual milk
  • Rinse with 40˚C water
  • Wash using chlorinated alkaline detergent (break down fat + protein)
  • Hot water cycled through at 70˚C until exits system at same temp
  • Then circulate detergent solution at 60-70˚C for 5-8 mins
  • Occasionally replace with acid-based milkstone remover
  • Cold rinse +/- disinfectant e.g. sodium hypochlorite, enough to ensure hot wash solution out of plant
97
Q

Briefly outline the acid boiling wash cleaning protocol for milking plants

A

Water >96˚C, run to waste with dilute nitric or sulphanilic acid to prevent deposit build up

98
Q

Compare the 2 main methods of milking plant cleaning in the UK

A
  • Acid boiling wash (ABW) quicker, uses fewer chemicals vs circulation cleaning
  • ABW unpopular in UK due to cost of heating large amounts of water
99
Q

How much water is needed approximately per milking unit for an effective wash cycle?

A

15-20 litres

100
Q

Discuss milking routine hygiene with regards to mastitic cows

A
  • Ensure buckets, lines, separate clusters used for mastitic cows are clean as well as main cleaning
  • If mastitic cows are to be milked by same clusters as normal, place these at the end of the milking group

REPRO2 (31 decks)

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