Chap 5 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Well-being includes which of the following?
    a. Positive feelings
    b. Satisfaction
    c. Fulfillment
    d. Positive function in life
    e. All of the above
    f. A and C only
    g. B and D only
    h. None of the above
A

E

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following would be considered personality factors that are associated with well-being?
    a. Well-organized
    b. Outgoing
    c. Optimistic
    d. Self-esteem
    e. All of the above
    f. A and B only
    g. C and D only
    h. None of the above
A

G

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following are responsibilities of the athletic trainer at an industrial setting?
    a. Instructing body mechanics
    b. Instructing lifting techniques
    c. Educating safe work practices
    d. Educating fitness and healthy lifestyle habits
    e. All of the above
    f. A, B, and C only
    g. A, B, and D only
    h. A, C, and D only
    i. B, C, and D only
    j. None of the above
A

E

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4
Q
  1. Which employees are exempt from OSHA?
    a. Professional athletes
    b. Immediate family members of farmers
    c. Employees of non-profit companies
    d. Employees of religious organizations
    e. All of the above
    f. None of the above
A

B

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT an element included in the CDC recommended workplace health model?
    a. Consultation
    b. Planning and management
    c. Implementation
    d. Evaluation
A

A

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT included in biometric screening
    a. Height
    b. Weight
    c. Blood glucose
    d. Vision testing
A

D

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7
Q
  1. How often should workplace health screening occur?
    a. Once before employment begins
    b. Every 1–2 years
    c. Every 5 years
    d. Once when employment begins and once when employment ends
A

B

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8
Q
  1. Ground fault interrupters (GFIs) are used in a location that is:
    a. More than 6 feet from the ground
    b. More than 10 feet from an entry way
    c. Near a window
    d. Near a water source
A

D

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9
Q
  1. How long before activity should a preparticipation examination occur?
    a. 2 weeks
    b. 4 weeks
    c. 6 weeks
    d. 8 weeks
A

C

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10
Q
  1. How much should you inflate the cuff when assessing blood pressure?
    a. 150 mm Hg
    b. 180 mm Hg
    c. 200 mm Hg
    d. 220 mm Hg
A

C

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11
Q
  1. If a patient has stage 2 hypertension, what is your next step as an athletic trainer?
    a. Prohibit the patient from participating in activity
    b. Allow the patient to participant only while a health care professional is present
    c. Allow the patient to participant at a reduced capacity
    d. Refer the patient to a physician
A

D

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12
Q
  1. At what time of day is body temperature lowest?
    a. Morning
    b. Midday
    c. Evening
    d. Temperature does not fluctuate throughout the day
A

A

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13
Q
  1. What is the most common cause of sudden death in young athletes
    a. Congenital coronary artery anomalies
    b. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
    c. Aortic rupture
    d. Mitral valve prolapsed
A

B

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14
Q
  1. Involuntary cyclical movement of the eyes is known as what?
    a. Diplopia
    b. Hypermetropia
    c. Anisocoria
    d. Nystagmus
A

D

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15
Q
  1. True or False: Younger and older adults tend to report greater well-being.
A

true

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16
Q
  1. True or False: Health promotion is within the scope of practice of athletic trainers.
A

True

17
Q
  1. True or False: Administrative and work practice controls are the most effective strategy to reduce workplace ergonomic hazards.
A

False- engineering controls

18
Q
  1. True or False: The BOC facility principles requires athletic training facilities to be accessible for individuals with disabilities.
A

a. False—Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)

19
Q
  1. True or False: An Emergency action plan is needed for every facility or venue where employees work.
A

True

20
Q
  1. True or False: “Red Flag” is a term used in medicine to indicate an area of concern
A

true

21
Q
  1. True or False: Preparticipation exams are meant to be all encompassing.
A

False

22
Q
  1. True or False: If a patient’s PEF is between 50% and 79% of baseline assessment, the patient should be restricted from participation, undergo additional testing, and receive medical treatment.
A

True

23
Q
  1. True or False: Emmetropia is the medical term used for near-sightedness.
A

False

24
Q
  1. True or False: Skin fold measurement is the most accurate method of assessing body fat.
A

false

25
Q
  1. True or False: One hypermobility trait includes the ability to hyperextend the elbow 15 degrees
A

False

26
Q
  1. What are three determinants of well-being?
A
  • Good health
  • Positive social relationships
  • Access to basic needs such as shelter, food, and water.
27
Q
  1. What is OSHA and what is its purpose?
A
  • OSHA is the Occupational Safety and Health Administration. It was established in the 1970s to ensure workplace safety by enforcing the Occupational Safety and Health (OSH) Act. Under the OSH Act employees are entitled to a workplace that is free from known health and safety hazards.
28
Q
  1. What are four risk factors for cardiovascular disease?
A
  • Excess body weight, hyperglycemia, high blood pressure, substance use, poor diet, physical inactivity, and diabetes mellitus
29
Q
  1. What types of programs or services can employers offer to promote employee health? What benefits might these programs have for the individual and the organization?
A
  • Health education classes, access to fitness classes or facilities, policies that promote healthy behaviors, health insurance coverage for preventative screenings, and access to healthy food and drink options.
  • For individuals the programs may have a positive impact on their health behaviors, health risks, and health status. For organizations the programs may have a positive impact on the cost of health coverage for employees, productivity may increase and absenteeism may decrease, and the workplace culture may be improved which can lead to improved recruitment and retention of employees.
30
Q
  1. Please give an example for each type of workplace strategy to control workplace ergonomic hazards
A
  • An example of an engineering control is to lift and reposition heavy objects using a device instead of requiring the workers to manually conduct the maneuver.
  • An example of an administrative and work practice control is requiring that heavy objects are lifted by two people instead of allowing one person to conduct the maneuver.
  • An example of personal protective equipment would be to use padding to limit contact with surfaces that are sharp, vibrating, or hard.
31
Q
  1. How might a preparticipation physical exam change based on the age of the population you are examining?
A
  • With children ages 6–10, one focus should be on identifying previously undiagnosed congenital abnormalities. In children ages 11–15, the examination should center on maturation and establishing good health practices for safe participation. In ages 16–30, clinicians should assess injury history and include activity-specific examinations. For people ages 65 and older, the examination should be based on individual needs, including medications.
32
Q
  1. What are three personal factors that could limit a person’s flexibility?
A
  • Bony blocks, joint adhesions, muscle tightness, tight skin, muscle bulk, swelling, pain, adipose tissue, gender, limb dominance, age, race, and genetics all can affect flexibility.
33
Q
  1. What is the difference between strength and power?
A
  • Strength is the ability of a muscle or group of muscles to produce force in one maximal resistance effort
  • Power is the ability of a muscle to produce force in a given time
34
Q
  1. What are three questions that must be answered when deciding someone is cleared to participate in activity?
A
  • Will the condition increase the risk of injury to the individual or other participants?
  • Can participation be allowed if medication, rehabilitation, or protective bracing or padding is used? If so, can limited participation be allowed in the interim?
  • If clearance is denied for a particular activity, are there other activities in which the individual can participate safely?
35
Q
  1. Please explain five of the principles for a workplace ergonomic prevention plan.
A
  1. Work in neutral postures keeping normal spinal curvature.
  2. Reduce excessive force in order to avoid fatigue or injury. Improvements can be made such as adding wheels and handgrips to a cart and ensuring the floor is clean and free of obstacles.
  3. Keep everything in easy reach. Efforts should be taken to move items closer and avoid reaching. This keeps the spine in alignment and reduces unnecessary movements.
  4. Work at proper heights. Adjust workstations so that work occurs at elbow height and a neutral posture can be maintained. Heavier work should be done lower than elbow height while tasks that are visually intense should be done at a height higher than the elbow.
  5. Reduce excessive motions by using motorized tools or adjusting the layout of the workspace.
  6. Minimize fatigue and static load. Adjusting body positioning or eliminating the need to hold or brace an item can help to reduce static load.
  7. Minimize pressure points. Strategies should be put in place to cushion or adjust the tool or movement to allow for reduced contact.
  8. Provide clearance. Having enough clearance to move with a neutral spine and smooth natural gait will reduce the risk of injury.
  9. Move, exercise and stretch. An exercise program might include a warm-up before shifts begin, periodic stretching throughout the shift and a cool-down at the end of the shift.
  10. Maintain a comfortable environment. Examples include adjusting lighting, temperature and other environmental factors to keep the workspace comfortable.
  11. Make displays and controls understandable, such as adjusting the language or size of the font so that employees comprehend the information displayed.
  12. Improve work organization so the order and processes involved in a task occur in a logical order to reduce the risk of injury and maintain and comfortable work environment.