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CATA exam > Chap 31 > Flashcards

Chap 31 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Athletes with cerebral palsy most commonly experience:
    a. Musculoskeletal soft tissue injuries
    b. Fractures
    c. Concussions
    d. Pressure sores
A

A

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2
Q
  1. A lesion to the neural elements within the spinal canal is:
    a. Spina bifida
    b. A spinal cord injury
    c. Neurapraxia
    d. Spinal stenosis
A

B

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3
Q
  1. An example of a congenital spinal cord injury is:
    a. Neurapraxia
    b. Spinal stenosis
    c. Spina bifida
    d. Acute spinal lesion
A

C

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4
Q
  1. The most common cause of spinal cord injury is:
    a. Motor vehicle accident
    b. Gunshot wound
    c. Fall from a height greater than 10 feet
    d. Skiing accident
A

A

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5
Q
  1. No motor function in the lowest sacral segments would indicate which neurological level of injury classification?
    a. A (Complete)
    b. B (Sensory Incomplete)
    c. C (Motor Incomplete)
    d. E (Normal)
A

A

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6
Q
  1. Impairment of both motor and sensory function of the arms, trunk, legs, and pelvic organs caused by complete SCI within the cervical region results in:
    a. Incomplete spinal cord injury
    b. Thoracic paraplegia
    c. Lumbar paraplegia
    d. Tetraplegia
A

D

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7
Q
  1. Full motor and sensory function of the upper extremity and some of the torso would indicate:
    a. Incomplete spinal cord injury
    b. Thoracic paraplegia
    c. Lumbar paraplegia
    d. Cervical paraplegia
A

B

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8
Q
  1. Any infection beginning in the urinary system is called:
    a. Cystitis
    b. Urethritis
    c. Urinary tract infection
    d. Bacteriuria
A

C

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9
Q
  1. Pain during urination is called:
    a. Dysuria
    b. Maluria
    c. Polyuria
    d. Bacteriuria
A

A

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10
Q
  1. Cloudy, foul-smelling urine, fever shaking, chills, nausea, and vomiting, may indicate:
    a. Neurogenic bowel
    b. Upper motor neuron bowel syndrome
    c. Lower motor neuron bowel syndrome
    d. Acute pyelonephritis
A

D

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11
Q
  1. The inability to voluntarily control the external anal sphincter muscle and expel fecal matter following a spinal cord injury would indicate:
    a. Neurogenic bowel
    b. Upper motor neuron bowel syndrome
    c. Lower motor neuron bowel syndrome
    d. Acute pyelonephritis
A

B

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12
Q
  1. All of the following increase the risk for individuals with spinal cord injury to develop a blood clot except:
    a. Lack of muscle contraction
    b. Decreased blood flow
    c. Increased blood pressure
    d. The use of compressive stockings
A

C

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13
Q
  1. Secondary to a deep vein thrombosis, a patient may develop:
    a. Pneumonia
    b. A pulmonary embolism
    c. Pressure sore
    d. Autonomic dysreflexia
A

B

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14
Q
  1. A rare but dangerous condition in wheelchair athletes; commonly triggered by an obstructed bowel or bladder, which disturbs the regulation of blood pressure and heart rate is called:
    a. Spastic muscles
    b. Autonomic dysreflexia
    c. Upper motor neuron bowel syndrome
    d. Lower motor neuron bowel syndrome
A

B

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15
Q
  1. The most common trigger of autonomic dysreflexia is:
    a. Inflammation of the kidneys
    b. Irritation of the nerves
    c. Inflammation of the liver
    d. Irritation of the bladder or colon
A

D

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16
Q
  1. Potential outcomes of autonomic dysreflexia include all except:
    a. Intracranial hemorrhage
    b. Retinal detachment
    c. Dehydration
    d. Seizures
A

C

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17
Q
  1. Acute prolonged spasmodic episodes of muscle spasticity may be triggered by all of the following except:
    a. Superficial cutaneous stimulation
    b. Exposure to heat or cold
    c. Bladder distension
    d. Constipation
A

D

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18
Q
  1. Pain that is constant, lasting for months and even years in areas that have normal sensation, as well as non-innervated areas is considered:
    a. Neurogenic pain
    b. Chronic pain
    c. Musculoskeletal pain
    d. Visceral pain
A

B

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19
Q
  1. Pain that is burning, tingling, or stabbing arising from areas of the body that no longer have sensory innervation is considered:
    a. Neurogenic pain
    b. Chronic pain
    c. Musculoskeletal pain
    d. Visceral pain
A

A

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20
Q
  1. Separation of the adrenal medullae from normal innervation may affect all of the following except:
    a. Heart Rate
    b. Blood pressure
    c. Retinal attachment
    d. Blood vessel constriction
A

C

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21
Q
  1. Most adaptations from exercise for individuals with spinal cord injury include all of the following except:
    a. Increased strength
    b. Increased endurance
    c. Increased power
    d. Increased blood volume
A

D

22
Q
  1. Sympathetic decentralization can result in all of the following except:
    a. Reduced proprioception
    b. Venous pooling
    c. Hypotension
    d. Thermoregulatory issues
A

A

23
Q
  1. A common overuse injury sustained by athletes with spinal cord injury is:
    a. Osteochondritis dissecans of the talus
    b. Shoulder impingement
    c. A laceration
    d. A contusion
A

B

24
Q
  1. A nonprogressive lesion or malformation of the brain that interferes with normal brain development before, during, or immediately after birth is:
    a. Cerebral palsy
    b. Spina bifida
    c. Brain tumor
    d. Spinal cord injury
A

A

25
Q
  1. Suspected causes of cerebral palsy include all except:
    a. Infections during pregnancy
    b. Rh incompatibility during pregnancy
    c. Immunizations
    d. Complicated labor and delivery
A

C

26
Q
  1. Which type of cerebral palsy involves both legs and some involvement of the arms?
    a. Diplegia CP
    b. Quadriplegia CP
    c. Hemiplegia
    d. Spastic CP
A

A

27
Q
  1. This occurs when there is damage to the motor cortex of the brain and accounts for 70% to 80% of all CP:
    a. Spastic CP
    b. Athetosis
    c. Dyskinetic CP
    d. Ataxic CP
A

A

28
Q
  1. The type of CP resulting in damage to the basal ganglia of the brain is:
    a. Spastic CP
    b. Athetosis
    c. Dyskinetic CP
    d. Ataxic CP
A

C

29
Q
  1. Brief, abrupt, irregular, and unpredictable movements that may appear wild and violent is called:
    a. Dystonia
    b. Chorea
    c. Athetosis
    d. Scissoring
A

B

30
Q
  1. What is the type of cerebral palsy occurring when the centers within the cerebellum that control posture have been damaged?
    a. Spastic CP
    b. Athetosis
    c. Dyskinetic CP
    d. Ataxic CP
A

D

31
Q
  1. This classification system for cerebral palsy takes place in the individual’s own environment making a true functional assessment:
    a. The Gross Motor Function Classification System-Expanded & Revised
    b. The Manual Abilities Classification System
    c. The Communication Function Classification System
    d. None of the above
A

A

32
Q
  1. Which classification system would be most appropriate to evaluate the fine motor skills of a 4 year old?
    a. The Gross Motor Function Classification System-Expanded & Revised
    b. The Manual Abilities Classification System
    c. The Communication Function Classification System
    d. None of the above
A

B

33
Q
  1. When diagnosing and treating injuries sustained by individuals with cerebral palsy, the athletic trainer must often rely on which of the following?
    a. Mechanism of injury
    b. History
    c. Range of motion and manual muscle testing
    d. Visual observation
    e. All of the above
    f. A, B, C
    g. A, B, D
    h. A, C, D
    i. B, C, D
    j. None of the above
A

G

34
Q
  1. Common causes of surgical amputation include which of the following?
    a. Congenital amputations
    b. Vascular disease
    c. Trauma
    d. Cancer
    e. All of the above
    f. A, B, C
    g. A, B, D
    h. A, C, D
    i. B, C, D
    j. None of the above
A

I

35
Q
  1. The physiological effects of exercise training in individuals with an amputation is:
    a. Very limited due to impaired range of motion
    b. Highly effective for improving the cardiovascular system
    c. Highly effective for improving muscular strength
    d. Very individualized depending on the location and cause of the amputation
A

D

36
Q
  1. Congenital amputations occur in approximately 1 out of every ______ newborns.
A

a. 2,000

37
Q
  1. _________ percent of cerebral palsy cases occur before birth?
A

a. 85

38
Q
  1. A pressure sore affecting the dermis and underlying tissue would be categorized as stage _________
A

a. 3

39
Q
  1. The skin begins to breakdown after _______ minutes of constant pressure, with the first sign being redness.
A

a. 15

40
Q
  1. Following a spinal cord injury, ________ % of individuals will develop muscle spasticity.
A

a. 80

41
Q
  1. Cerebral palsy damages areas of the brain that control _______
A

a. muscle tone

42
Q
  1. Alternating episodes of hypotonus and extreme motion is called ________
A

a. athetosis

43
Q
  1. True or False: Onset of neurogenic pain years after the initial spinal cord injury should not cause alarm
A

F

44
Q
  1. True or False: Motor dysfunction causing muscle atrophy, cardiovascular deconditioning, and osteoporosis can make it more difficult to diagnose and treat injuries that occur in a sensory-compromised area.
A

T

45
Q
  1. True or False: Individuals with cerebral palsy will often have lower heart rates, blood pressure, and blood lactate levels than AB individuals at equal work rates.
A

F

46
Q
  1. True or False: There is a greater risk of sustaining overuse injuries due to altered biomechanics of individuals with amputations.
A

T

47
Q
  1. True or False: Athletes with upper extremity amputations have a lower incidence of shoulder, cervical, and thoracic conditions.
A

F

48
Q
  1. True or False: Injury rehabilitation considerations are similar to AB individuals with the exception of the increased incidence of scar tissue at the distal end of the amputated limb.
A

T

49
Q
  1. True or False: Tetraplegics with incomplete SCI are less likely to present with autonomic dysreflexia than tetraplegics with complete SCI.
A

T

50
Q
  1. Please explain the two categories of spinal cord injuries.
A

a. SCI is classified into two categories: complete and incomplete. Individuals who have sustained a complete SCI have no sensory or motor function below the level where the injury occurred. Individuals who have sustained an incomplete SCI have partial sensory and motor function below the level where the injury occurred.

51
Q
  1. What are pressure sores and why are they a concern after sustaining a spinal injury?
A

a. Lesions are caused by constant pressure applied over a period time, most often in areas of boney prominences. The skin is able to withstand pressure for short periods of time before the tissue begins to break down. Because of the sensory deficits experienced by individuals with SCI, the brain does not receive the pressure or pain impulses, nor can the individual redistribute the weight in order to relieve the pressure on the affected area. The rate of blood flow is decreased as well, and as a result, the healing process is impaired.

CATA exam (33 decks)

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