Chap 14 Flashcards

1
Q

. In designing an individualized therapeutic exercise program, the first step is to
a. assess the present level of function and dysfunction.
b. develop a treatment plan.
c. develop short- and long-term goals.
d. formulate a list of patient problems.

A

A

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2
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered a long-term goal?
a. Bilateral equal range of motion
b. Control of inflammation
c. Relaxation training
d. Maintenance of cardiovascular fitness

A

B

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3
Q
  1. What is the optimal time for beginning therapeutic exercise following surgery or an injury?
    a. Immediately after
    b. 24 hours later
    c. 3 to 4 days later
    d. When pain subsides
A

A

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning collagenous scar formation compared with the original mature injured tissue?
    a. It is less efficient and tolerant of shearing forces.
    b. It is less efficient and tolerant of tensile forces.
    c. It is more efficient and tolerant of tensile forces.
    d. It is more efficient and tolerant of shearing forces.
A

B

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5
Q
  1. The longer the inflammatory process progresses, the more likely the resulting scar tissue will be
    a. less dense and weaker in resisting applied stress.
    b. more dense and stronger in resisting applied stress.
    c. more dense and weaker to resisting applied stress.
    d. able to resist applied stress at the same level as the previously injured tissue.
A

A

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6
Q

. Which of the following are physiological effects of cryotherapy?
a. Decreased vasoconstriction, increased nerve conduction velocity, and decreased pain perception
b. Increased vasoconstriction and metabolism, decreased pain
c. Decreased metabolism, nerve conduction, and pain perception
d. Increased vasodilation, increased metabolism, decreased capillary permeability

A

C

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7
Q
  1. _____ uses gravity to reduce the pooling of fluids and pressure inside the venous and lymphatic vessels to prevent fluid from filtering into surrounding tissue spaces.
    a. Compression
    b. Immobilization
    c. Cold application
    d. Elevation
A

D

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following would NOT be used if the goal is to control hemorrhage and eliminate edema?
    a. Cryotherapy
    b. Electrical muscle stimulation
    c. Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation
    d. Intermittent compression
A

B

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9
Q
  1. Prolonged immobilization can lead to muscles losing their flexibility and assuming a shortened position. This is referred to as
    a. a contracture.
    b. hypomobility.
    c. hypermobility.
    d. Sharpey fibrosis.
A

A

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10
Q
  1. The effects of immobilization of the articular cartilage are dependent on
    a. length of immobilization.
    b. position of the joint.
    c. joint loading.
    d. All of the above.
A

D

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11
Q
  1. In fitting crutches, the hand grips should be placed at a height that allows the elbow to be flexed about
    a. 15°.
    b. 20°.
    c. 25°.
    d. 30°.
A

D

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12
Q
  1. An individual can move into phase 3 of the rehabilitation program when what percentage of normal passive and active range of motion is achieved?
    a. 60%
    b. 70%
    c. 80%
    d. 90%
A

C

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13
Q
  1. Hypomobility can
    a. promote healing.
    b. predispose an individual to microtraumatic injuries.
    c. prevent pain-free return to activity.
    d. lead to degenerative joint changes.
A

A

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14
Q
  1. A large-amplitude movement up to the pathological limit in the range of motion is considered a ______ joint mobilization.
    a. grade II
    b. grade III
    c. grade IV
    d. grade V
A

B

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15
Q
  1. When performing joint mobilization, if the concave surface is stationary and the convex surface is mobilized, a glide of the convex segment should be in
    a. the same direction as the restriction of joint movement.
    b. the opposite direction to the restriction of joint movement.
    c. a posterior direction.
    d. an anterior direction.
A

B

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16
Q
  1. The technique in which an individual consciously relaxes a muscle prior to stretching is termed
    a. active movement.
    b. reciprocal inhibition.
    c. active inhibition.
    d. imagery.
A

C

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17
Q
  1. Joint mechanoreceptors sensitive to the intra-articular pressure and stretching of the joint capsule are called
    a. Golgi receptors.
    b. muscle spindles.
    c. Pacinian corpuscles.
    d. Ruffini corpuscles.
A

D

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18
Q
  1. Closed kinetic chain (CKC) exercises are recommended for several reasons. One such reason is
    a. CKC exercises increase strength at a faster rate than open kinetic chain.
    b. CKC exercises increase range of motion faster.
    c. CKC exercises reduce shearing forces about the joint.
    d. CKC exercises facilitate the inflammatory process.
A

C

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19
Q
  1. A Biomechanical Ankle Platform System is often used to
    a. increase range of motion.
    b. decrease swelling.
    c. improve sensory cues and balance of the lower extremity.
    d. decrease inflammation.
A

C

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20
Q
  1. A method of promoting or hastening the recovery process of muscles through the use of diagonal or spiral patterns is characteristic of
    a. Delorme progressive resistive exercises.
    b. hydrotherapeutic exercise.
    c. isokinetic exercise.
    d. proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation exercises
A

D

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21
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT an open kinetic chain exercise?
    a. Knee extension
    b. Bench press
    c. Throwing a ball
    d. Wall push-up
A

D

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22
Q
  1. An individual is performing a bicep curl as an exercise for a bicep strain. This exercise is considered
    a. an isometric exercise.
    b. an open kinetic chain exercise.
    c. a closed kinetic chain exercise.
    d. an isokinetic exercise.
A

B

23
Q
  1. A patient’s quadriceps atrophy/hypertrophy should be managed during the rehabilitation process by
    a. using a goniometer every other week.
    b. using a goniometer every day.
    c. taking circumference measurements.
    d. using an isokinetic device.
A

C

24
Q
  1. DAPRE requires the first set of exercises to be _____ of one’s max.
    a. 10%
    b. 25%
    c. 50%
    d. 75%
A

C

25
Q
  1. A disadvantage of isotonic training is that
    a. the expense of the equipment.
    b. a muscle can only move a load through the ROM with as much force as the muscle provides at its weakest point.
    c. it only permits concentric contractions.
    d. it does not permit exercise of multiple joints simultaneously.
A

B

26
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT an example of a plyometric exercise?
    a. Using a StairMaster
    b. Performing double leg hops
    c. Using a medicine ball
    d. Performing a standing jump
A

A

27
Q
  1. A functional exercise program designed for a soccer athlete should include
    a. walking, light jogging, sprinting, and soccer drills.
    b. walking, light jogging, side slides, carioca, ball kicks, and dribbling drills.
    c. light jogging, side slides, sprints, dribbling drills, and ball kicks.
    d. walking, jogging, figure eights, dribbling drills, and running drills.
A

B

28
Q
  1. Proprioception and coordination can be improved through performing
    a. closed kinetic chain exercises.
    b. open kinetic chain exercises.
    c. plyometric exercises.
    d. isokinetic exercises.
A

A

29
Q
  1. True or False? Phase 2 of a therapeutic exercise program focuses on the regaining any deficits in range of motion and restoring proprioception.
    a. True
    b. False
A

A

30
Q
  1. True or False? A therapeutic exercise program begins with patient assessment.
    a. True
    b. False
A

T

31
Q
  1. True or False? Acute care of soft-tissue injuries includes application of crushed ice directly to the skin for 30 to 40 minutes.
    a. True
    b. False
A

A

32
Q
  1. True or False? Bone loss can be detected as early as 2 weeks after immobilization.
A

T

33
Q
  1. True or False? Along with primary deficits such as weakness or pain, secondary factors such as problems associated with prolonged immobilization or lack of intervention should be organized into a priority list of concerns and be recorded in the assessment part of the SOAP note.
    a. True
    b. False
A

A

34
Q
  1. True or False? Following an injury, early motion through partial weight-bearing exercise can interfere with proper joint lubrication.
    a. True
    b. False
A

B

35
Q
  1. True or False? Patient education about relaxation to relieve muscle spasm and stress should be initiated in phase 4 of the exercise program.
    a. True
    b. False
A

B

36
Q
  1. True or False? Periodic measurement of girth, range of motion, muscle strength, endurance, power, and cardiovascular fitness will determine if progress is occurring in the exercise program.
    a. True
    b. False
A

A

37
Q
  1. True or False? Collagenous scar formation is more efficient and tolerant of tensile forces than the original mature tissue.
    a. True
    b. False
A

B

38
Q
  1. True or False? Immobilization for more than 2 weeks may lead to joint adhesions that inhibit muscle fiber regeneration.
    a. True
    b. False
A

A

39
Q
  1. True or False? Muscle spindles are encapsulated receptors found in muscle tissue and are sensitive to stretch.
    a. True
    b. False
A

A

40
Q
  1. True or False? Hemorrhage and edema cause pooling of tissue fluids and blood products that increases pain and muscle spasm.
    a. True
    b. False
A

A

41
Q
  1. True or False? Application of cold immediately after injury leads to vasoconstriction and increases capillary permeability, resulting in an increase in the time needed for blood coagulation.
    a. True
    b. False
A

B

42
Q
  1. True or False? The Golgi tendon organs fail to fire during static stretching, leading to microscopic tears of the muscle tissue.
    a. True
    b. False
A

B

43
Q
  1. True or False? In applying the overload principle, strength gains depend primarily on the specific training method used to improve strength.
    a. True
    b. False
A

B

44
Q
  1. True or False? Muscular strength is improved with a minimum of 3 days per week of training that includes 12 to 15 repetitions per bout of 8 to 10 exercises for the major muscle groups.
    a. True
    b. False
A

A

45
Q
  1. True or False? Variable speed/fixed resistance is associated with isokinetic strength training.
    a. True
    b. False
A

B

46
Q
  1. True or False? An advantage of isokinetic training is that a muscle group can be exercised to its maximum potential throughout the full range of motion.
    a. True
    b. False
A

A

47
Q
  1. True or False? Joint congruity can be enhanced through closed kinetic chain exercises.
    a. True
    b. False
A

A

48
Q
  1. Match the following terms and definitions.
  2. Contracture a. active contraction of the agonist to cause a reflex relaxation in the antagonist
  3. Flexibility b. slow deliberate muscle stretching
  4. Plyometric training c. limited passive range of motion
  5. Static stretching d. adhesions in an immobilized muscle leading to a shortened state
  6. Valsalva effect e. distal end is firmly fixed and not free in space
  7. Reciprocal inhibition f. holding one’s breath against a closed glottis
  8. Active stretching g. insufficient strength to move a body segment through a range of motion
  9. Active inhibition h. total range of motion of a joint
  10. CKC exercise i. accessory motion
  11. Arthrokinematics j. flexibility exercises performed by the patient not clinician
  12. Hypomobility k. explosive movements used to develop muscular power
  13. Sticking point l. individual consciously relaxes a muscle prior to stretching
A

Answer: 1-d, 2-h, 3-k, 4-b, 5-f, 6-a, 7-j, 8-l, 9-e, 10-i, 11-c, 12-g

49
Q
  1. A high school athletic trainer has a limited budget. What type of therapeutic exercise equipment could the individual purchase to increase muscle strength, endurance, and power without overextending their budget?
A

Answer: free weights, Thera-Band, elastic and surgical tubing can be purchased relatively inexpensively

50
Q
  1. Describe how to stretch the hamstrings muscle group using the contract–relax technique.
A

Answer: The clinician stabilizes the thigh and passively flexes the hip into the agonist pattern until limitation is felt in the hamstrings. The patient then performs an isotonic contraction with the hamstrings through the antagonist pattern. Next, the therapist applies a passive stretch into the agonist pattern until limitation is felt.

51
Q
  1. What are the sequential steps that should be followed to identify the needs of the patient when designing an individualized therapeutic exercise program?
A

Answer: The sequential steps are as follows:
1. Assess the present level of function and dysfunction from girth measurements, goniometric assessment, strength tests, neurological assessment, stress tests, and functional activities.
2. Organize and interpret the assessment to identify primary and secondary structural or functional deficits.
3. Establish short- and long-term goals to return the individual safely to participation.
4. Develop and supervise the treatment plan, incorporating therapeutic exercise, therapeutic modalities, and medication.
5. Reassess the progress of the plan and adjust as needed.

52
Q
  1. A basketball player has sustained a sprained ankle. Identify and explain the actions that should be included in phase 1 of the therapeutic exercise program for this particular individual.
A

Answer: The response should address the following areas:
Control swelling by applying PRICE; help control hemorrhage, eliminate edema, and control pain by choosing either intermittent compression, electrical muscle stimulation, or TENS; protect and restrict activity at the ankle by immobilization through the use of an elastic wrap, tape, brace, and/or crutch.

53
Q
  1. Identify the four phases of a therapeutic exercise program and briefly state the main goals in each phase.
A

Answer:
Phase 1: Control inflammation
* Control the inflammatory stage, and minimize scar tissue with cryotherapy using PRICE principles (protect, restrict activity, ice, compression, and elevation).
* Instruct the patient on relaxation and coping techniques.
* Maintain range of motion (ROM), joint flexibility, strength, endurance, and power in the unaffected body parts.
* Maintain cardiovascular endurance.