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CATA exam > Chap 33 > Flashcards

Chap 33 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Topical therapies for acne include which of the following?
    a. Retinoids
    b. Antibiotics
    c. Benzoyl peroxide
    d. Tolnaftate
    e. All of the above
    f. A, B, C
    g. A, B, D
    h. A, C, D
    i. B, C, D
    j. None of the above
A

F

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2
Q
  1. Acne that occurs during premenstruation usually results from:
    a. Use of cosmetics and moisturizers that contain oils
    b. Wearing tight clothing that adds pressure to the skin
    c. Headgear rubbing on the face
    d. Androgenic effects of progesterone
A

D

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3
Q
  1. Sports participation is contraindicated during which of the following conditions?
    a. Cellulitis
    b. Tineapedis
    c. Miliaria
    d. Folliculitis
A

A

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following statements best describes tinea corporis?
    a. Fungal infection in groin area
    b. Fungal infection on feet
    c. Fungal infection on body
    d. Bacterial infection in groin area
A

C

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following is a contagious fungal/yeast infections?
    a. Tinea versicolor
    b. Candidasis
    c. Tinea capitis
    d. Tinea pedis
    e. All of the above
    f. A, B, C
    g. A, B, D
    h. A, C, D
    i. B, C, D
    j. None of the above
A

I

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes a second-degree sunburn?
    a. The burn has a mild erythema throughout the area of exposure.
    b. The burn has erythema and blisters.
    c. The burn has blisters and erythema and systemic symptoms of chills and fever.
    d. The burn has skin ulcerations.
A

B

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7
Q
  1. Decreased skin lipids are most likely associated with which of the following conditions?
    a. Pernio
    b. Xerotic skin
    c. Hyperhidrosis
    d. Striae distensae
A

B

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8
Q
  1. Epipen is used for the treatment of which of the following conditions?
    a. Anaphylactic shock often associated with bee or insect stings
    b. Hyperhidrosis
    c. Urticaria
    d. Allergic contact dermatitis
A

A

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9
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes differences between contact and irritant dermatitis?
    a. Erythema
    b. Pruritus
    c. Pain and swelling
    d. Occurs secondary to physical and mechanical agents
A

D

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10
Q
  1. After placing an ice pack on an athlete’s shoulder, he develops generalized wheals. Which of the following best describes this action?
    a. Miliaria
    b. Cold uticaria
    c. Striae distensae
    d. Contact dermatitis
A

B

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11
Q
  1. Tinea pedis and tinea cruris are treated with:
    a. Antibacterial agents
    b. Antifungal agents
    c. Antiviral agents
    d. Anti-inflammatory agents
A

B

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12
Q
  1. The most common cause of skin irritation in athletes is
    a. Nonspecific dermatitis
    b. Pediculosis
    c. Cellulites
    d. Staphylococci
A

A

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13
Q
  1. Herpes gladiatorum is transmitted via
    a. Respiratory droplets
    b. Skin to skin contact
    c. Bodily fluid exposure
    d. Contaminated surfaces
A

B

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14
Q
  1. Boils, impetigo, and folliculitis are examples of:
    a. Mechanical lesions
    b. Bacterial lesions
    c. Fungal lesions
    d. Contact dermatitis-type conditions
A

B

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15
Q
  1. This type of skin infestation/infection is commonly seen on the lip or genital area:
    a. Verrucae
    b. Folliculitis
    c. Impetigo
    d. Herpes simplex
A

D

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16
Q
  1. Herpes simplex often reoccurs because of:
    a. Its ability to lie dormant in dorsal ganglion
    b. Its ability to lie dormant in frontal ganglion
    c. Its -hemolytic characteristics
    d. Its resistance to antibiotic medications
A

A

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17
Q
  1. An athlete who is taking medication for acne may be at greater risk for:
    a. Fungal infections
    b. Bacterial infections
    c. Sunburn
    d. Herpes simplex
A

C

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18
Q
  1. Initial treatment for acute intertrigo includes:
    a. Application of a cold compress
    b. Application of thermotherapy
    c. Application of cramergesic
    d. NSAID therapy
A

A

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19
Q
  1. Which of the following is a cause of dry skin?
    a. Age
    b. Frequent bathing
    c. Malnutrition
    d. Humidity
    e. All of the above
    f. A, B, C
    g. A, B, D
    h. A, C, D
    i. B, C, D
    j. None of the above
A

F

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20
Q
  1. A male swimmer contracts what seems to be contact dermatitis around the bridge of the nose and cheek areas. What is the most likely cause of this condition?
    a. Allergy to soap
    b. Allergy to deodorant
    c. Allergy to swimming goggles
    d. Allergy to food recently eaten
A

C

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21
Q
  1. An athlete develops lesions on the thigh and upper arm regions and begins to wheeze and have signs of hypotension. What might the athlete be experiencing?
    a. Exercised induced uticaria
    b. Cholinergic uticaria
    c. Cold uticaria
    d. Anaphylaxis
A

A

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22
Q
  1. Treatment for tinea cruris may include which of the following steps?
    a. Antifungal medication
    b. Antibiotics
    c. Keeping the groin clean and dry
    d. Wearing loose, absorbent clothing
    e. All of the above
    f. A, B, C
    g. A, B, D
    h. A, C, D
    i. B, C, D
    j. None of the above
A

H

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23
Q
  1. Management of contact dermatitis includes application of a:
    a. Warm compress
    b. Cold compress
    c. Topical antihistamine
    d. Topical benzocaine
A

B

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24
Q
  1. ________ is most often seen in athletes who perform high-intensity weight training.
A

a. Striae distensae

25
Q
  1. The term tinea refers to _________ infections
A

a. Fungal

26
Q
  1. A characteristic sign of ___________ is a bulls-eye rash appearing 3 days to 1 month after infection.
A

a. Lyme disease

27
Q
  1. The condition characterized by an affected area that appears as small dark burrows and tiny vesicles in a linear distribution between the finger webs, in the armpits, around the waist or on the elbows, wrists, ankles, soles of the feet, breasts, and buttocks is called _________
A

a. Scabies

28
Q
  1. A(n) _____________ is a circumscribed collection of pus appearing in an acute or chronic, localized infection
A

a. Abscess

29
Q
  1. Acne is believed to be caused by excessive ____________ production
A

a. Sebum

30
Q
  1. __________is inflammation of the matrix of the nail plate
A

a. Onychia

31
Q
  1. An infection of the upper portion of the hair follicle and surrounding areas is called ________
A

a. Folliculitis

32
Q
  1. ___________ is caused by a strain of staph bacteria that has become resistant to antibiotics commonly used to treat ordinary staph infections
A

a. MRSA

33
Q
  1. Verrucae vulgaris is the medical term for a ____________
A

a. Wart

34
Q
  1. _________ is a condition involving excessive perspiration
A

a. Hyperhidrosis

35
Q
  1. Rocky Mountain spotted fever is transmitted by __________
A

a. Ticks

36
Q
  1. True or False: The scabies mite can be spread on towels, uniforms, and equipment
A

T

37
Q
  1. True or False: Herpes gladiatorum is frequently found among wrestlers.
A

T

38
Q
  1. True or False: Pruritus, redness, and scaling skin are symptoms of bacterial skin lesions.
A

F

39
Q
  1. True or False: Warm compresses and topical corticosteroids are often used to relieve pain from insect bites.
A

F

40
Q
  1. True or False: Prevention of sunburn includes using an SPF of 12 or higher and avoiding exposure to the sun during midday.
A

F

41
Q
  1. True or False: Urticaria is usually systemic in origin and is caused by hypersensitivity to foods, drugs, physical agents, or psychic stimuli.
A

T

42
Q
  1. True or False: Use of spandex under a uniform can reduce the risk of tineacruris
A

F

43
Q
  1. True or False: Anaphylactic shock can occur in minutes or even seconds following contact with the substance to which the person is allergic and can lead to death.
A

T

44
Q
  1. True or False: Characteristics of impetigo include itching or burning, but the area is usually not painful.
A

T

45
Q
  1. True or False: Mild cases of cellulitis are managed with NSAIDs.
A

F

46
Q
  1. True or False: Tinea cruris involves the genitalia but often originates in the feet.
A

T

47
Q
  1. True or False: If left untreated, candidiasis can lead to a life-threatening systemic disease.
A

T

48
Q
  1. True or False: Psoriasis is generic term for acute or chronic inflammatory conditions of the skin.
A

F

49
Q
  1. True or False: If an individual is diagnosed with scabies, it would be appropriate to recommend treatment for others in the household, sexual partners, teammates, or classmates.
A

T

50
Q
  1. True or False: Systemic signs of exercise-induced cold urticaria include wheezing and hypotension.
A

T

51
Q
  1. True or False: Skin lesions are identified by their size and depth.
A

T

52
Q
  1. You are an athletic trainer for a summer camp and there are a few cases of pediculosis. What is your protocol and management plan for this situation?
A

a. Treatment of head and pubic lice is done with medicated shampoos or cream rinses containing lindane or pyrethrins. Dose and duration of shampoo treatment should be followed according to label instructions. Retreatment should occur 7 to 10 days after the initial treatment to assure that no eggs have survived. Nit combs are available to help remove nits from hair. Body lice treatment also requires the boiling and ironing of clothing.

53
Q
  1. There has been an outbreak of impetigo among members of a wrestling team. Explain how you would manage this situation and how you would prevent it from recurring.
A

a. Isolate the infected individual from other players, including athletic clothing and towels, to prevent the spread of the disease. Localized impetigo can be treated with mupirocin ointment applied to the skin three times a day. With diffuse or multiple areas of impetigo, refer to a physician. Systemic antibiotics may be indicated for 5 to 7 days.Gentle cleansing with soap and water will help to remove the crusts. Individuals with impetigo should not be allowed to participate until the crusts have dried to a thick, coagulated crust.

54
Q
  1. Identify six ways to prevent sunburn.
A

a. Use a sunscreen with an appropriate sun protection factor (SPF) for your skin type (preferably one with an SPF of 15 or higher)
b. Apply sunscreen 20 to 30 minutes before exposure to the sun.
c. Apply sunscreen evenly over all exposed skin to avoid isolated areas of sunburn.
d. Reapply sunscreen every 2 to 4 hours, especially if sweating profusely.
e. Select sunscreen that has a high rate of efficacy when subjected to moisture.
f. Be careful when applying the sunscreen around the eyes.
g. Sunscreen sprays work well for the top of the head; lip protectors also should be used.
h. Avoid midday exposure to the sun (10:00 a.m. to 3:00 p.m.).
i. While in the sun, wear loose, woven, light, cotton clothing.
j. Hats with brims are much better than caps or visors.
k. Sunburn can occur on cloudy days, so sunscreen should be worn at all times.
l. Be aware of the reflective photo-energy potential when around water or snow.
m. Several medications (e.g., antibiotics, antiseptics, anesthetics, and certain nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs) increase sensitivity to the sun. Read the instructions for use of any medications before sun exposure. If there are questions, consult a pharmacist or physician.
n. Drink plenty of nonalcoholic beverages to prevent dehydration.

55
Q
  1. Identify methods for prevention of fungal infection.
A

a. Shower after every practice and competition.
b. After each shower, thoroughly dry the feet, groin, and areas between the toes as well as under the arms and breasts.
c. Apply absorbent antifungal powder to the shoes, socks, feet, between the toes, under the arms and breast, and in the groin area.
d. Change socks and underwear daily; allow wet shoes to dry thoroughly before wearing them.
e. Wear street shoes that allow some ventilation to the feet.
f. Clean and disinfect the floors in the shower room, dressing room, and athletic training room daily.
g. Never go barefoot in a shower or locker room.

56
Q
  1. Explain the management of fungal skin conditions.
A

a. Wash the involved region four to five times daily and after physical exertion.
b. Rinse all soap residue from the region and completely dry the area. With dry tinea infections, apply antifungal powder liberally before an exercise period.
c. Apply topical antifungal agents, such as Halotex, Lotrimin, Mycelex, and Tinactin, twice daily for 1 month.
d. If the condition does not clear up, see a physician to rule out candidiasis, dermatitis, psoriasis, or other skin disorders.
e. In resistant infections, prescribed allylamines, such as terbinafine, butenafine, or naftifine, may be used twice daily for 2 to 4 weeks.
f. Follow proper personal hygiene

57
Q
  1. Explain the differences and similarities between allergic and irritant contact dermatitis.
A

a. Allergic dermatitis accounts for 20% to 30% of all contact dermatitis. Common agents that contribute to the condition include adhesive tape, rubber articles (e.g., straps, pads, swim goggles, swim fins, swim caps, shoes), tape adherent and remover, soap, detergent, and deodorant. Allergic dermatitis remains localized to the affected area, and is identified by dry vesicles accompanied by pain, erythema, and pruritic conditions. Heat, whether internal or external (e.g., hot bath), intensifies symptoms and accelerate the skin’s reaction. Irritant dermatitis also presents with erythema, pruritus, pain, and swelling. It often occurs secondary to physical and mechanical agents, such as dry ice burns, abrasions from artificial turf, poorly fitted equipment that causes friction burns, striae (bands of thin wrinkled skin), or increased sweating between skinfolds (e.g., groin, under breast tissue), and during skin loss secondary to an application of a causative agent (adhesive tape). Diagnosis of either type of contact dermatitis relies on the history and distribution of the rash.

58
Q
  1. Describe the management for a bee sting.
A

a. Prevention:
i. Refrain from wearing bright, colorful, or floral clothing.
ii. Refrain from using scented soaps, lotions, or aftershaves.
b. After sustaining a bee sting:
i. Immediately refrain from strenuous exercise.
ii. Remove the stinger with a fingernail. Do not squeeze it, because this will inject more venom
iii. Apply ice to the site.
iv. Systemic antihistamines may help with local reactions.
v. Observe closely for signs of anaphylactic shock:
* Faintness, deteriorating consciousness, or other signs of shock
* Generalized urticaria or edema
* Paresthesia
* Choking or signs of laryngeal edema
* Wheezing, coughing, or difficulty breathing

CATA exam (33 decks)

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