Chap 4 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The ____________________ model focuses on how to improve the overall quality of health care.
A

Answer: value-based

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2
Q
  1. The starting point when developing a policies and procedures manual has four main components what are they?
A

Answer: Vision statement, mission statement, culture of the organization, and value statement

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3
Q
  1. __________________ is the shared understanding of what is acceptable and appropriate behavior, customs, and beliefs that drive how people interact within the organization and with those outside of the organization on behalf of the organization.
    a. Organization cultural
    b. Vision statement
    c. Mission statement
    d. All of the above
    e. None of the above
A

Answer: a

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4
Q
  1. A __________________ describes the organization’s current practice and objectives by identifying three things: (1) what does the organization do? (2) Who does the organization serve? And (3) how are the stakeholders served?
    a. organization cultural
    b. vision statement
    c. mission statement
    d. value statement
A

C

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5
Q
  1. In a Policy and Procedure manual this description describes the qualifications and experience needed which includes the major duties, responsibilities, and supervisory relationships of positions within the organization.
    a. Position description
    b. Scope of practice and credentialing regulations
    c. Job description
    d. Value statement
A

A

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6
Q
  1. ____________________ include prehospital care for athletes with catastrophic cervical spine injury, management of medications by the Sports Medicine Team, and developing a plan to recognize and refer student-athletes with psychological concerns.
    a. Scope of practice and credentialing regulations
    b. Consensus statements
    c. All of the above
    d. None of the above
A

B

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7
Q
  1. Written agreements between athletic trainer (AT) and supervising physician that gives AT the legal authority to provide care are known as?
    a. Scope of practice and credentialing regulations
    b. Consensus statements
    c. Official statements
    d. Standing orders
A

D

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8
Q
  1. Describe the operating procedures required for a standing order (SO) and standing order procedure (SOP) within a policy and procedure manual.
A

Answer: (1) context in which the care can be provided, (2) by whom the care can be administered (3) the exact parameters for how, why, and when the care is provided and the length of time the standing order can be utilized.

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9
Q
  1. ______________ is considered the monetary cost of a service or what the market or individual is willing to pay for service or goods. Whereas ______________ is the extent to which the service’s worth is perceived.
    a. Worth and value
    b. Third-party reimbursement and practice acts
    c. Value and clinical outcomes
    d. Worth and clinical outcomes
A

A

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10
Q
  1. ______________ is defined as any interaction with a patient when an athletic training service is provided, or a communication occurs regarding the patient’s health status.
    a. Clinical outcomes
    b. Patient encounter
    c. Change in patient status
    d. Practice acts
A

B

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11
Q
  1. The most common type of reimbursement model where the provider bills the insurance company or patient for every service, they provide to the patient is known as?
    a. Third-party reimbursement
    b. International Classification of Disease codes
    c. Fee for service
    d. Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) Codes
A

C

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12
Q
  1. Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) codes commonly used by ATs for reimbursement are the Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation (PMR) codes, what are the PMR series numbers?
    a. 89000
    b. 77000
    c. 97000
    d. All of the above
    e. None of the above
A

C

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13
Q
  1. Explain the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) basic tenets of the laws.
A

a. Every health care provider who electronically transmits patient information is a covered entity
b. Notice of privacy practices must be provided to each patient noting how their PHI will be noticed.
c. Patients must give authorization to the health care provider on how, when, and to whom their PHI can be released unless they are unconscious or incapacitated and are unable to do so.
d. Patients may ask for an electronic copy of their electronic medical records.
e. Patients who use cash for their treatment, may restrict their health plan’s access to that treatment information.
f. Individuals may authorize their health information for research purposes.
g. An individual’s genetic information cannot be used or disclosed for underwriting purposes.
h. HIPAA permits the use of electronic communication of patient records as long as security procedures are in place.
i. Health care providers cannot use PHI for marketing purposes.
j. HIPAA requires that covered entities use NPI numbers in standard transactions.

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14
Q
  1. The focus of _________ is to protect students’ right to privacy of their educational records in public educational institutions including primary, secondary, and postsecondary.
    a. HIPPA
    b. FERPA
    c. SO
    d. All of the above
    e. None of the above
A

B

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15
Q
  1. The _________________ provides for the oversight of minimum wage pay, overtime compensation, hours worked, child labor, and documentation of employee pay/time off.
    a. FERPA
    b. HIPPA
    c. FLSA
    d. FLMA
A

C

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16
Q
  1. It is also illegal to discriminate against a person because the person complained about discrimination, filed a charge of discrimination, or participated in an employment discrimination investigation or lawsuit, this federal law is known as?
    a. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC)
    b. Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)
    c. Family Medical Leave Act (FMLA)
    d. Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)
A

A

17
Q
  1. Attention to Human Resources details is vital to the athletic trainer who is an administrator. The challenges of any supervisor are?
    a. Managing employees
    b. Ensure all employees are following the policies and procedures
    c. Being fair, consistent, and impartial
    d. All of the above
    e. None of the above
A

D

18
Q
  1. A positive workplace environment is one that encourages and empowers employees; promotes employee advancement, success, growth, and overall wellbeing. In general, there are six steps an organization can take to lay the foundation. For a positive workplace environment name the six steps.
A

Answer: Onboarding, create a comfortable work space, check-in with employees, encourage collaboration, strong workplace culture, supporting continuing education opportunities

19
Q
  1. The inability to find balance between work and nonwork can lead to the following:
    a. Increased stress
    b. Poor health outcomes
    c. Decreased job satisfaction and burnout
    d. All of the above
    e. None of the above
A

C

20
Q
  1. This section of a business plan describes the business structure that has been chosen as well as the organizational structure of the business itself.
    a. Market analysis
    b. Service line
    c. Marketing and sales
    d. All of the above
    e. None of the above
A

E

21
Q
  1. This section of a business plan provides detailed information about the business, should boast about the strengths of the business, and explain why it will be successful.
    a. Market analysis
    b. Company description
    c. Financial projections
    d. All of the above
    e. None of the above
A

b

22
Q
  1. ____________ is best defined as “the total income produced by a given source”.
    a. Profit & loss
    b. Revenue
    c. Goods and services
    d. Expenses
A

B

23
Q
  1. To qualify as a ________________, programs/institutions will set a cost threshold that is different from one program to the next, so the AT must be familiar with this threshold.
    a. fixed budget
    b. goods & Services
    c. capital expenditure
    d. all of the above
    e. none of the above
A

C

24
Q
  1. Disposable supplies are items such as _________________________that are gone once used and must be replenished.
    a. rehabilitation equipment
    b. tape measures
    c. electrodes
    d. all of the above
    e. none of the above
A

C

25
Q

States are grouped together into 10 districts associations. Each district is represented by a district director, director elect, secretary, and treasurer. The district directors represent their state on the ________________________.
a. Professional Education Committee
b. CAATE
c. Board of Certification
d. NATA Board of Directors

A

D

26
Q
  1. Athletic trainers can volunteer as members of committees whose charge is to examine areas and topics of interest to enhance and advance the athletic training profession. List example of the committees that ATs can volunteer for.
A

Answer: Practice advancement, Committee on Professional Ethics, Education Journal Committee, Ethnic Diversity Advisory Council, and the Professional Education Committee