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CATA exam > Chap 16 > Flashcards

Chap 16 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The sesamoid bones at the first MTP joint protect the _______ from weight-bearing trauma.
    a. extensor hallucis longus
    b. flexor digitorum longus
    c. plantar ligament
    d. Bursa
A

B

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2
Q
  1. The muscles in the deep posterior compartment include each of the following EXCEPT
    a. tibialis posterior.
    b. flexor hallucis longus.
    c. flexor digitorum longus.
    d. soleus.
A

D

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3
Q

The _________ muscle is the primary foot inverter.
a. tibialis posterior
b. tibialis anterior
c. peroneus longus
d. Gastrocnemius

A

A

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4
Q

Restricted toe extension at the first MTP joint due to a ridge of osteophytes palpable along the dorsal aspect of the metatarsal head is a hallmark sign of
a. turf toe.
b. Tailor’s bunion.
c. hallux rigidus.
d. hallux valgus.

A

C

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5
Q
  1. A _________ toe involves hyperextension of the MTP joint and flexion of the DIP and PIP joints.
    a. Hammer
    b. Mallet
    c. Claw
    d. Turf
A

C

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6
Q
  1. The _______ is the main body stabilizer during walking or running.
    a. Hallux
    b. metatarsal arch
    c. talocrural joint
    d. subtalar joint
A

A

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7
Q
  1. The close-packed position of the talocrural joint is
    a. maximum plantar flexion.
    b. maximum dorsiflexion.
    c. near-maximum plantar flexion.
    d. maximum inversion.
A

B

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following limits anterior translation of the talus on the tibia?
    a. Tibiocalcaneal ligament
    b. Anterior tibiotalar ligament
    c. Posterior talofibular ligament
    d. Anterior talofibular ligament
A

D

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9
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a supportive structure for the plantar arches?
    a. Plantar fascia
    b. Long plantar ligament
    c. Tibionavicular ligament
    d. Calcaneonavicular ligament
A

C

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10
Q
  1. Stretching the ______ helps decrease shortening of the plantar fascia.
    a. anterior tibialis
    b. posterior tibialis
    c. peroneal brevis
    d. Gastrocnemius
A

D

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following phases of the gait cycle requires double leg support?
    I. Midswing
    II. Initial contact
    III. Loading response
    IV. Midstance
    V. Preswing
    a. I only
    b. III only
    c. III and IV
    d. II and IV
A

D

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12
Q
  1. If the ________ tendon ruptures, collapse of the midfoot and hyperpronation may be visible.
    a. tibialis anterior
    b. tibialis posterior
    c. extensor digitorum longus
    d. plantaris
A

B

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13
Q
  1. An athlete receives a minor blow to the head of the fibula. Which of the following might sustain a contusion from this blow?
    a. Common peroneal nerve
    b. Tibial nerve
    c. Tibial artery
    d. Sciatic nerve
A

A

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14
Q
  1. Sesamoid disorders, medial tibial stress syndrome, and Achilles tendinitis are each associated with
    a. pes planus.
    b. pes cavus.
    c. tight plantar fascia.
    d. rear foot pronation.
A

A

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT an intrinsic factor leading to metatarsalgia?
    a. Excessive body weight
    b. Repetitive jumping
    c. Valgus heel
    d. Pes planus
A

B

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16
Q
  1. _____ is a hallmark sign of interdigital neuroma.
    a. Proximal radiating pain
    b. Pain that decreases with extension of the MTP and IP joints
    c. Pain that increases during non–weight bearing
    d. Pain that is relieved when barefooted
A

D

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17
Q
  1. The nerve that innervates the anterior compartment of the lower leg is the
    a. deep peroneal nerve.
    b. saphenous nerve.
    c. superficial peroneal nerve.
    d. tibial nerve.
A

A

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18
Q
  1. Several overuse injuries to the medial aspect of the foot and lower leg have been attributed to
    a. excessive heel contact.
    b. prolonged pronation.
    c. prolonged supination.
    d. running on the toes.
A

B

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19
Q
  1. Hyperextension of the MTP joint of the great toe is called
    a. claw toe.
    b. hammer toe.
    c. paronychia.
    d. turf toe.
A

D

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20
Q
  1. The management of turf toe includes each of the following EXCEPT
    a. cryotherapy.
    b. NSAIDs.
    c. wearing a lightweight, flexible shoe.
    d. taping to limit motion at the MTP joint.
A

C

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21
Q
  1. An individual with ________________ often describes a sensation of having a stone in the shoe that worsens when standing.
    a. paronychia
    b. hallux valgus
    c. Morton neuroma
    d. plantar fasciitis
A

C

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22
Q
  1. Each of the following can contribute to the development of a bunion at the first MTP joint except
    a. excessive supination.
    b. prolonged pronation during gait.
    c. contractures of the Achilles tendon.
    d. generalized ligament laxity between the 1st and 2nd metatarsal heads.
A

A

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23
Q
  1. A direct blow to the anterior shin can result in each of the following except
    a. anterior compartment syndrome.
    b. circulatory impairment to the foot.
    c. fibular fracture.
    d. loss of dorsiflexion.
A

C

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24
Q
  1. Inversion ankle sprain results from excessive
    a. dorsiflexion.
    b. plantar flexion.
    c. pronation.
    d. supination.
A

D

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25
Q
  1. As stress is applied to the ankle during plantar flexion and inversion, the first ligament to stretch is the
    a. anterior talofibular.
    b. anterior tibiofibular.
    c. calcaneofibular.
    d. posterior talofibular.
A

A

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26
Q
  1. With excessive dorsiflexion and eversion, the talus is thrust laterally and can
    a. dislocate the transverse tarsal joint.
    b. fracture the medial malleolus.
    c. fracture the lateral malleolus.
    d. rupture the interosseous membrane.
A

C

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27
Q
  1. The rupture of the ______ tendon could result in collapse of the midfoot and visible hyperpronation?
    a. tibialis anterior
    b. flexor hallucis brevis
    c. tibialis posterior
    d. quadratus plantae
A

C

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28
Q
  1. Acute rupture of the Achilles tendon is more commonly seen in individuals between the ages of
    a. 15 to 20 years.
    b. 20 to 30 years.
    c. 30 to 50 years.
    d. over 50 years.
A

C

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29
Q
  1. Each of the following signs and symptoms indicate a ruptured Achilles tendon EXCEPT
    a. excessive passive dorsiflexion.
    b. inability to stand on the toes.
    c. individual hears or feels a popping sensation.
    d. limps with the foot and leg internally rotated.
A

D

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30
Q
  1. Each of the following can overload the plantar fascia except
    a. excessive or prolonged pronation.
    b. excessive tightness in the Achilles tendon.
    c. obesity.
    d. age over 40 years.
A

D

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31
Q
  1. Palpable pain just anterior to the Achilles tendon indicates irritation to the
    a. flexor hallucis longus.
    b. peroneus longus.
    c. retrocalcaneal bursa.
    d. Achilles tendon.
A

C

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32
Q
  1. Excessive or prolonged pronation in running, which leads to pain in the distal third of the medial tibial border not associated with a stress fracture, is typically
    a. Achilles tenosynovitis.
    b. exercise-induced compartment syndrome.
    c. medial tibial stress syndrome.
    d. plantar fasciitis.
A

C

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33
Q
  1. Movement in which direction will isolate the anterior talofibular ligament in an anterior drawer test?
    a. Straight anterior movement with slight dorsiflexion
    b. Straight anterior movement with slight eversion
    c. Straight anterior movement with slight plantar flexion and inversion
    d. Straight inversion
A

C

34
Q
  1. An athlete reports with longitudinal hypertrophy of the 2nd metatarsal and callus formation on the plantar surface of the head of the 2nd metatarsal. This condition is
    a. hallux valgus.
    b. Morton toe.
    c. interdigital neuroma.
    d. a soft corn.
A

B

35
Q
  1. Which of the following ankle ligaments is not a part of the medial collateral ligament (deltoid ligament)?
    a. Anterior tibiotalar ligament
    b. Calcaneofibular ligament
    c. Tibiocalcaneal ligament
    d. Tibionavicular ligament
A

B

36
Q
  1. The primary support for the medial longitudinal arch is the
    a. calcaneonavicular ligament.
    b. long plantar ligament.
    c. short plantar ligament.
    d. tibialis posterior muscle tendon.
A

A

37
Q
  1. A highly specialized band of tissue on the plantar surface of the foot that provides support for the longitudinal arch is the
    a. plantar fascia.
    b. plantar ligament.
    c. plantar sesamoiditis.
    d. plantar vulgaris.
A

A

38
Q
  1. Each of the following tests is used to confirm a suspected syndesmosis sprain EXCEPT
    a. talar tilt.
    b. external rotation test.
    c. squeeze test.
    d. passive dorsiflexion test.
A

A

39
Q
  1. Treatment for a tibialis posterior strain could include
    a. a heel cup.
    b. a heel lift.
    c. a medial shoe wedge.
    d. a lateral shoe wedge.
A

C

40
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for Achilles tendinitis?
    a. Recent change in running surface
    b. Electrolyte imbalance
    c. Change in exercise environment
    d. Sudden increase in workload
A

B

41
Q
  1. MTSS is a periostitis that
    a. is not associated with a stress fracture.
    b. is associated with the posterior tibialis.
    c. typically involves the middle one-third of the tibia.
    d. is associated with compartment syndrome.
A

A

42
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a sign of deep vein thrombosis?
    a. Engorged veins
    b. Positive Homan sign
    c. Chronic swelling in the involved extremity
    d. Tingling or burning that radiates to the toes.
A

D

43
Q
  1. Tarsal tunnel syndrome is often associated with
    a. excessive varus deformity.
    b. excessive valgus deformity.
    c. excessive supination.
    d. pes cavus.
A

B

44
Q
  1. Which of the following is a potential sign of sural nerve entrapment?
    a. Positive squeeze test
    b. Positive Homan sign
    c. Positive Tinel sign
    d. Positive Morton test
A

C

45
Q
  1. Avascular necrosis of the second metatarsal head is termed
    a. Morton toe.
    b. Freiberg disease.
    c. Sever disease.
    d. Homan sign.
A

B

46
Q
  1. True or False? The midfoot region includes the navicular, cuboid, three cuneiform bones, and their articulations.
    a. True
    b. False
A

T

47
Q
  1. True or False? The ankle joint is capable of plantar flexion, dorsiflexion, inversion, and eversion.
A

F

48
Q
  1. True or False? The femoral nerve and its branches provide the primary innervation for the foot, ankle, and lower leg.
A

A

49
Q
  1. True or False? The muscles in the anterior compartment of the lower leg are responsible for dorsiflexion of the ankle.
A

T

50
Q
  1. True or False? Eversion and dorsiflexion injuries can lead to a fracture of the lateral malleolus.
A

T

51
Q
  1. True or False? An anterior acute compartment syndrome is a medical emergency.
A

T

52
Q
  1. True or False? Leg length discrepancy rarely contributes to chronic foot problems.
A

F

53
Q
  1. True or False? Posterior heel pain during activity, relieved with rest, should indicate a possible apophysitis of the calcaneus.
A

T

54
Q
  1. True or False? The sesamoid bones share in weight bearing by protecting the flexor hallucis longus brevis muscle as it passes between the two bones.
A

F

55
Q
  1. True or False? The tarsometatarsal and intermetatarsal joints enable the foot to adapt to uneven surfaces during gait.
A

T

56
Q
  1. True or False? The true ankle joint is the talocrural joint, where dorsiflexion and plantar flexion take place.
A

T

57
Q
  1. True or False? The interosseous membrane between the tibia and fibula is so strong that strong lateral stresses will fracture the fibula rather than tear the membrane.
A

T

58
Q
  1. True or False? The short plantar (plantar calcaneocuboid) ligament is the primary supporting structure for the plantar arches.
A

F

59
Q
  1. True or False? During the weight-bearing phase of the gait cycle, the plantar fascia functions as a spring, to store mechanical energy, which is then released to help the foot push off from the surface.
A

T

60
Q
  1. True or False? General discomfort around the metatarsal heads is called plantar neuroma.
A

F

61
Q
  1. True or False? Pain during palpation just anterior to the Achilles tendon indicates inflammation of the superficial Achilles bursa.
A

F

62
Q
  1. True or False? Pain during palpation of the inferior surface of the calcaneus in the middle of the heel may indicate a possible heel bruise.
A

T

63
Q
  1. True or False? A minor blow to the fibular head can lead to a contusion of the sural nerve.
A

F

64
Q
  1. True or False? An acute blow to the anterior compartment can compromise the neurovascular supply to the foot, leading to loss of dorsiflexion and extension of the toes.
A

T

65
Q
  1. True or False? Midfoot sprains are commonly seen in sports where the foot is unsupported, such as gymnastics and dance, or in track athletes who wear running flats.
A

T

66
Q
  1. True or False? Excessive pronation of the foot results when the plantar aspect of the foot is turned inward toward the midline of the body.
A

F

67
Q
  1. True or False? Strengthening the peroneal muscles can aid in the prevention of inversion ankle sprains.
A

T

68
Q
  1. True or False? During inversion, the medial malleolus acts as a fulcrum to further invert the talus, leading to stretching or tearing of the calcaneofibular ligament.
A

T

69
Q
  1. True or False? In severe eversion ankle sprains, passive motion may be pain-free in all motions except eversion.
A

F

70
Q
  1. True or False? Snowball crepitation over a tendon during active motion reveals tenosynovitis.
A

T

71
Q
  1. True or False? If the tibialis posterior tendon ruptures, hyperpronation of the foot may be visible.
A

T

72
Q
  1. True or False? Achilles tendon ruptures are commonly seen in individuals between 18 and 28 years of age because of the rapid plantar flexion needed to execute many sports skills.
A

F

73
Q
  1. True or False? A common mechanism of injury for a heel contusion is sudden stop-and-start movements.
A

T

74
Q
  1. True or False? Midfoot sprains occur more often in activities in which the foot is unsupported.
A

T

75
Q
  1. True or False? An individual with a hypermobile foot is more susceptible to an eversion sprain.
A

T

76
Q
  1. True or False? The extent of ankle swelling is an accurate indicator of the severity of the injury.
A

F

77
Q
  1. True or False? A common mechanism of injury for a peroneal strain is exploding off a slightly pronated foot.
A

T

78
Q
  1. True or False? Pain is an accurate indicator in assessing possible fracture of the fibula.
A

F

79
Q
  1. Place the letter of the correct definition in the space provided.
  2. Forefoot varus a. calcaneus everted relative to long axis of tibia
  3. Forefoot valgus b. flat foot
  4. Rearfoot varus c. calcaneal eversion, foot abduction, and dorsiflexion
  5. Rearfoot valgus d. 5th metatarsal is elevated relative to 1st metatarsal
  6. Pronation e. high arch
  7. Supination f. calcaneus inverted relative to the long axis of the tibia
  8. Pes planus g. calcaneal inversion, foot adduction, and plantar flexion
  9. Pes planus h. 1st metatarsal is elevated relative to 5th metatarsal
A

Answer: 1-h, 2-d, 3-f, 4-a, 5-c, 6-g, 7-b, 8-e

80
Q
  1. Identify five factors that can lead to metatarsalgia.
A

Answer:
The following factors can lead to metatarsalgia:
Intrinsic factors
* Excessive body weight
* Limited extensibility of the triceps surae complex
* Fallen metatarsal arch
* Valgus heel
* Hammer toes
* Pes planus or pes cavus
Extrinsic factors
* Narrow toe box
Improperly placed shoe cleats
* Improper technique (e.g., in a cyclist, poor foot position or rigid high gears at low cadence)
* Landing incorrectly from a height
* Repetitive jumping or excessive running
* Running style that puts undue pressure on the forefoot
81. Identify and briefly describe three areas that should be considered regarding the prevention of foot, ankle, and lower leg injuries.
Answer: The areas that should be noted are protective equipment, physical conditioning, and footwear.
Protective equipment
* Shin pads
* Commercial ankle braces
* Ankle taping
* Orthotics
Physical conditioning
* Flexibility
* Strength
Footwear
* Shoe design and selection
* Demands of the activity

CATA exam (33 decks)

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